What is the primary reason for low glucose levels in premature infants?
What is correct about febrile seizures
A 9-month-old child of a diabetic mother presents with tachypnea and hepatomegaly. Echocardiography shows normal cardiac morphology with asymmetric septal hypertrophy. Which of the following medications is indicated for the management of this child's condition?
What is the treatment of choice for a 5-year-old child with bedwetting?
What is the minimum weight gain recommended for a malnourished child during the catch-up growth phase of nutritional rehabilitation?
In children, which of the following is a key diagnostic sign of congestive heart failure (CHF)?
Treatment of simple febrile convulsion is based on
What is the threshold for hyperglycemia in neonates?
What is the most common cause of conjugated hyperbilirubinemia in infants?
Which of the following cancers has the highest cure rate?
NEET-PG 2012 - Pediatrics NEET-PG Practice Questions and MCQs
Question 21: What is the primary reason for low glucose levels in premature infants?
- A. Decreased glycogen stores (Correct Answer)
- B. Increased brain to body ratio
- C. Decreased action of pyruvate carboxylase
- D. None of the options
Explanation: ***Decreased glycogen stores*** - Premature infants have undeveloped livers, leading to significantly **reduced glycogen reserves** at birth compared to full-term infants. - These limited stores are rapidly depleted within hours after birth, leaving the infant vulnerable to **hypoglycemia** as they cannot maintain glucose homeostasis. *Increased brain to body ratio* - While premature infants do have a relatively **larger brain-to-body ratio**, this primarily increases their glucose utilization, rather than causing low glucose directly. - The increased glucose demand is an exacerbating factor for hypoglycemia, but the fundamental issue remains the lack of available glucose to meet this demand. *Decreased action of pyruvate carboxylase* - **Pyruvate carboxylase** is an enzyme crucial for **gluconeogenesis**, the process of synthesizing glucose from non-carbohydrate precursors. - While immature hepatic enzyme systems in premature infants can contribute to impaired gluconeogenesis, the primary and most immediate reason for initial low glucose levels is the lack of stored glycogen. *None of the options* - Given that a specific and significant reason for low glucose levels in premature infants is clearly identified (decreased glycogen stores), this option is incorrect.
Question 22: What is correct about febrile seizures
- A. Focal deficits
- B. Repeated seizure
- C. Abnormal EEG
- D. Normal EEG (Correct Answer)
Explanation: ***Normal EEG*** - An **electroencephalogram (EEG)** is generally **not recommended** after a simple febrile seizure because these seizures are due to the brain's response to fever, not an underlying epileptic disorder. - The **EEG typically appears normal** following a simple febrile seizure, as there is no intrinsic cerebral pathology to detect. - Simple febrile seizures are benign events that do not require routine EEG investigation. *Focal deficits* - **Focal neurological deficits** (e.g., weakness on one side of the body) are **not characteristic** of **simple febrile seizures** and would suggest a more complex neurological issue or an underlying etiology. - The presence of focal deficits would prompt further investigation for complex febrile seizures or other neurological conditions. *Repeated seizure* - While **recurrence of febrile seizures** is common (about 30-35% of children experience a second seizure), this refers to a **risk factor** for recurrence rather than a defining characteristic of febrile seizures. - Risk factors for recurrence include young age at first seizure, family history of febrile seizures, low fever at onset, and brief duration between fever onset and seizure. *Abnormal EEG* - An **abnormal EEG** in the context of a febrile seizure would raise concerns for an **underlying epileptic syndrome** or other neurological pathology, which is not typical for **simple febrile seizures**. - Routine EEG is not indicated for simple febrile seizures as it is unlikely to show abnormalities and is not predictive of future epilepsy.
Question 23: A 9-month-old child of a diabetic mother presents with tachypnea and hepatomegaly. Echocardiography shows normal cardiac morphology with asymmetric septal hypertrophy. Which of the following medications is indicated for the management of this child's condition?
- A. Digoxin
- B. Frusemide
- C. Propranolol (Correct Answer)
- D. Isoptin
Explanation: ***Propranolol*** - **Propranolol** is a **beta-blocker** that is indicated for **hypertrophic cardiomyopathy** (HCM) in infants, especially those of diabetic mothers. - It works by reducing the **heart rate** and **myocardial contractility**, which decreases the **left ventricular outflow tract (LVOT) obstruction** caused by the hypertrophied septum. *Digoxin* - **Digoxin** is a **positive inotrope**, meaning it increases the force of myocardial contraction. - This effect would worsen the **outflow tract obstruction** in hypertrophic cardiomyopathy and is therefore contraindicated. *Frusemide* - **Frusemide** is a **diuretic** used to manage **fluid overload** and **congestive heart failure**. - While fluid management can be part of heart failure treatment, frusemide does not directly address the underlying **asymmetric septal hypertrophy** or **LVOT obstruction** in this context. *Isoptin* - **Isoptin** (verapamil) is a **non-dihydropyridine calcium channel blocker**. - While some calcium channel blockers can be used in adult hypertrophic cardiomyopathy, verapamil is generally avoided in infants with HCM due to its potential for **negative inotropic effects** and worsening hypotension, especially in the presence of outflow obstruction, and the risk of significant **bradycardia** and **atrioventricular block**.
Question 24: What is the treatment of choice for a 5-year-old child with bedwetting?
- A. No treatment
- B. Motivational therapy (Correct Answer)
- C. Imipramine
- D. Desmopressin
Explanation: ***Motivational therapy*** - This is the **first-line active treatment** for **primary nocturnal enuresis** in children, involving encouragement, positive reinforcement (star charts), rewards, and education about bladder control. - It focuses on **behavioral strategies** and can be highly effective with parental involvement. - When intervention is pursued at age 5, motivational therapy is preferred over pharmacological options due to safety and effectiveness. *No treatment* - At age 5, **watchful waiting with reassurance** is often appropriate since nocturnal enuresis is common at this age (affects 15-20% of 5-year-olds) and has a **spontaneous resolution rate of 15% per year**. - However, when the question asks for "treatment of choice," it implies active intervention rather than observation alone. - Active behavioral therapy is preferred when bedwetting causes distress or affects the child's self-esteem. *Imipramine* - **Imipramine** is a **tricyclic antidepressant** with anticholinergic effects that can reduce bladder contractions, but it has significant side effects including **cardiac arrhythmias** and is **not first-line treatment**. - It is typically reserved for children ≥7 years after behavioral interventions fail, due to its potential adverse effects and high relapse rate after discontinuation. *Desmopressin* - **Desmopressin** is an **antidiuretic hormone analog** that reduces urine production overnight. - While effective, it is typically reserved for children ≥6 years who are unresponsive to behavioral therapy or for **short-term situational use** (e.g., sleepovers, camps). - Side effects include potential **hyponatremia** and high relapse rate after discontinuation.
Question 25: What is the minimum weight gain recommended for a malnourished child during the catch-up growth phase of nutritional rehabilitation?
- A. 5 gm/kg/day (Correct Answer)
- B. 10 gm/kg/day
- C. 15 gm/kg/day
- D. 20 gm/kg/day
Explanation: ***Correct: 5 gm/kg/day*** - According to **WHO guidelines** for management of severe acute malnutrition and **IAP recommendations**, the **minimum acceptable weight gain** during the catch-up growth phase is **5 gm/kg/day**. - This represents the **threshold for adequate nutritional rehabilitation** - gains below this indicate inadequate recovery and require reassessment of the feeding protocol. - Weight gain of 5 gm/kg/day or more indicates that the child is responding to treatment. *Incorrect: 10 gm/kg/day* - A weight gain of **10 gm/kg/day** represents **good/satisfactory catch-up growth**, not the minimum requirement. - This is considered an **optimal target** rather than the minimum acceptable threshold. - While desirable, the question specifically asks for the minimum recommendation, which is 5 gm/kg/day. *Incorrect: 15 gm/kg/day* - A weight gain of **15 gm/kg/day** reflects **excellent catch-up growth** and is at the higher end of optimal targets. - This exceeds both the minimum requirement and the good target. - While indicating very successful rehabilitation, it is not the minimum recommendation. *Incorrect: 20 gm/kg/day* - A weight gain of **20 gm/kg/day** is an **exceptionally high rate** rarely achieved in clinical practice. - While theoretically possible with intensive feeding protocols, this far exceeds the minimum requirement. - Such high rates may require monitoring for refeeding syndrome and metabolic complications.
Question 26: In children, which of the following is a key diagnostic sign of congestive heart failure (CHF)?
- A. Pedal edema
- B. Raised JVP
- C. Basal crepitations
- D. Hepatomegaly (Correct Answer)
Explanation: ***Hepatomegaly*** - In children, **hepatomegaly** is a crucial indicator of **right-sided heart failure** due to congestion of the hepatic venous system. - The liver is a compressible organ and can accommodate a significant increase in blood volume, causing it to enlarge considerably before other signs of **venous congestion** become apparent. *Raised JVP* - **Raised jugular venous pressure (JVP)** is often difficult to assess reliably in infants and young children due to their short necks and uncooperative nature. - While present in older children with CHF, it is not considered as sensitive or specific as other signs in younger pediatric patients. *Pedal edema* - **Pedal edema** is less common in pediatric CHF compared to adults, particularly in infants and toddlers. - Their shorter hydrostatic columns and tendency to spend more time supine make dependent edema less prominent. *Basal crepitations* - **Basal crepitations** (rales) indicate **pulmonary edema**, which is a sign of **left-sided heart failure**. - While a part of CHF, **hepatomegaly** is a more consistent and often earlier sign that can be detected across different forms of pediatric CHF (right or left-sided).
Question 27: Treatment of simple febrile convulsion is based on
- A. Control of fever (Correct Answer)
- B. Rectal diazepam
- C. CSF finding
- D. Blood reports
Explanation: ***Control of fever*** - Among the given options, **control of fever** is the most appropriate answer as it represents the **immediate supportive care** for a child with a simple febrile seizure. - Management includes using antipyretics like **paracetamol** or **ibuprofen** to reduce fever and improve comfort. - **Important note:** While fever control is good supportive care, evidence shows that antipyretics do **NOT prevent recurrence** of febrile seizures. The actual cornerstone of management is **reassurance and parental education**. - According to AAP guidelines, simple febrile seizures are benign, self-limited events that require no specific anticonvulsant treatment. *Rectal diazepam* - **Rectal diazepam** is used for **acute termination** of prolonged seizures (>5 minutes) or as rescue therapy for recurrent episodes. - It is NOT indicated for routine management of simple febrile seizures, which typically last <15 minutes and resolve spontaneously. - May be prescribed for home use in select cases with recurrent seizures. *CSF finding* - **CSF analysis** is a **diagnostic procedure**, not a treatment basis. - It is indicated only when there is clinical suspicion of meningitis or meningoencephalitis (e.g., altered sensorium, meningeal signs, complex seizure features). - NOT routinely required for simple febrile seizures in well-appearing children. *Blood reports* - **Blood investigations** are diagnostic, not treatment-guiding for simple febrile seizures. - They may be considered to identify the source of fever or rule out electrolyte abnormalities, but are not the basis of seizure management itself. - Simple febrile seizures do not require routine laboratory workup.
Question 28: What is the threshold for hyperglycemia in neonates?
- A. 150 mg/dl (Correct Answer)
- B. 180 mg/dl
- C. 100 mg/dl
- D. 125 mg/dl
Explanation: ***150 mg/dl*** - A blood glucose level greater than **150 mg/dL** is the **standard threshold** most commonly taught and used for defining **hyperglycemia** in neonates. - This value is widely accepted in clinical practice and guides decisions regarding **glucose management** and potential **insulin therapy** in this population. - This threshold is particularly relevant for term and late preterm neonates. *125 mg/dl* - While **125 mg/dL** represents an elevated glucose level and some newer guidelines consider this as a threshold (especially >7 mmol/L), it is **not the standard taught threshold** of 150 mg/dL. - For examination purposes, **150 mg/dL** remains the recognized standard definition. *180 mg/dl* - A blood glucose level of **180 mg/dL** indicates **severe hyperglycemia** rather than the initial threshold for defining hyperglycemia. - While some protocols for extremely preterm infants may use higher cutoffs, this exceeds the standard diagnostic threshold. - Intervention is typically initiated well before reaching this level to prevent complications. *100 mg/dl* - A blood glucose level of **100 mg/dL** in a neonate falls within the **normal range**, not hyperglycemia. - This level is desirable for proper brain development and metabolic function. - Normal neonatal glucose ranges from approximately **40-100 mg/dL** in the first days of life.
Question 29: What is the most common cause of conjugated hyperbilirubinemia in infants?
- A. Rotor syndrome
- B. Crigler Najjar syndrome
- C. Dubin-Johnson syndrome
- D. Biliary atresia (Correct Answer)
Explanation: ***Rotor syndrome*** - Characterized by **conjugated hyperbilirubinemia** due to a defect in hepatic uptake and storage of bilirubin [1]. - This condition can lead to elevated levels of **direct (conjugated) bilirubin** without significant liver damage. *Crigler Najjar* - This condition primarily causes **unconjugated hyperbilirubinemia** due to a deficiency of the enzyme **uridine diphosphate glucuronyl transferase** [1]. - It typically presents with **kernicterus** in newborns rather than conjugated bilirubin elevation. *Breast milk jaundice* - Mainly leads to **unconjugated hyperbilirubinemia** due to substances in breast milk that inhibit bilirubin conjugation. - Generally occurs in **breastfed infants** after the first week of life, not presenting with increased conjugated bilirubin. *Gilbert syndrome* - This syndrome is associated with **unconjugated hyperbilirubinemia** due to a genetic defect in bilirubin conjugation [1]. - Typically benign, it does not cause **increased conjugated bilirubin** levels as seen in Rotor syndrome. **References:** [1] Kumar V, Abbas AK, et al.. Robbins and Cotran Pathologic Basis of Disease. 9th ed. Liver and Gallbladder, p. 860.
Question 30: Which of the following cancers has the highest cure rate?
- A. Wilm's Tumor
- B. Retinoblastoma (Correct Answer)
- C. Rhabdomyosarcoma
- D. All of the options
Explanation: ***Retinoblastoma*** - This **childhood eye cancer** has an excellent prognosis, with a reported cure rate of **over 95%** when diagnosed early and treated promptly. - Treatment options like **chemotherapy**, **radiation**, **laser therapy**, and **enucleation** contribute to its high survival rate. *Wilm's Tumor* - While **Wilm's tumor** (nephroblastoma) also has a high cure rate in children, typically **around 90%**, it is slightly lower than that of retinoblastoma. - It is a **kidney cancer** primarily affecting children and is highly responsive to treatment. *Rhabdomyosarcoma* - The cure rate for **rhabdomyosarcoma**, a rare and aggressive cancer of the soft tissues, varies significantly based on factors like **tumor location**, **stage**, and **histology**. - Overall survival rates are generally lower than for retinoblastoma and Wilm's tumor, often ranging from **60-70%**. *All of the options* - This option is incorrect because while all three cancers listed have good prognoses, **retinoblastoma** specifically stands out with the highest cure rate among them. - The cure rates for Wilm's tumor and rhabdomyosarcoma, while good, are not as high as that for retinoblastoma.