In which type of Hodgkin's Lymphoma are lacunar cells typically observed?
What type of anaemia is primarily associated with leukaemia?
A mutation in the transthyretin (TTR) protein causes which of the following types of amyloidosis?
Maximum collagen deposition in wound healing is seen at -
All of the following statements about Giant cell arteritis are true except?
Oncocytic carcinoma arises from -
Li–Fraumeni syndrome is associated with mutations in which of the following genes?
What change is seen in the vessels during the initial stage of Raynaud's phenomenon?
Which of the following conditions can lead to pulmonary infarction?
What laboratory findings are associated with common variable hypogammaglobulinemia?
NEET-PG 2012 - Pathology NEET-PG Practice Questions and MCQs
Question 11: In which type of Hodgkin's Lymphoma are lacunar cells typically observed?
- A. Mixed cellularity type
- B. Lymphocyte predominant type
- C. Nodular Sclerosis type (Correct Answer)
- D. All of the options
Explanation: ***Nodular Sclerosis Type*** - **Lacunar cells** are characteristically seen in **Nodular Sclerosis Hodgkin lymphoma**, which is the most common subtype [1][3]. - These cells are large **Reed-Sternberg cells** with a distinctive morphology, typically found in **fibrous areas** of the lymph node [1]. *Mixed cellularity type* - This subtype is associated with a diverse cell population but does not primarily feature **lacunar cells** [2][4]. - It predominantly contains **Reed-Sternberg cells** without the specific morphology seen in nodular sclerosis [2]. *Lymphocyte predominant* - Lymphocyte predominant type mainly consists of **lymphocytes** with few Reed-Sternberg cells, and lacks **lacunar cells** [5]. - The histology is significantly different, exhibiting a more lymphocytic composition and not the classic lucent spaces [5]. *All of the above* - This option is incorrect as neither **Mixed cellularity** nor **Lymphocyte predominant** types contain **lacunar cells** [2][4][5]. - Lacunar cells are a distinctive feature solely of the **Nodular Sclerosis type** in Hodgkin lymphoma [1]. **References:** [1] Kumar V, Abbas AK, et al.. Robbins and Cotran Pathologic Basis of Disease. 9th ed. Diseases of White Blood Cells, Lymph Nodes, Spleen, and Thymus, p. 616. [2] Kumar V, Abbas AK, et al.. Robbins and Cotran Pathologic Basis of Disease. 9th ed. Diseases of White Blood Cells, Lymph Nodes, Spleen, and Thymus, pp. 616-618. [3] Cross SS. Underwood's Pathology: A Clinical Approach. 6th ed. Common Clinical Problems From Diseases Of The Urinary And Male Genital Tracts, pp. 558-559. [4] Cross SS. Underwood's Pathology: A Clinical Approach. 6th ed. Common Clinical Problems From Diseases Of The Urinary And Male Genital Tracts, pp. 559-560. [5] Kumar V, Abbas AK, et al.. Robbins and Cotran Pathologic Basis of Disease. 9th ed. Diseases of White Blood Cells, Lymph Nodes, Spleen, and Thymus, p. 618.
Question 12: What type of anaemia is primarily associated with leukaemia?
- A. Aplastic anaemia
- B. Iron deficiency anaemia
- C. Megaloblastic anaemia
- D. Myelophthisic anaemia (Correct Answer)
Explanation: ***Myelophthisic anaemia*** - This condition arises from the **displacement of normal hematopoietic tissue** in the bone marrow by abnormal cells, like those seen in leukaemia, leading to **extramedullary hematopoiesis**. - Marrow infiltration causes **pancytopenia** and often results in the presence of **immature granulocytes** and **nucleated red blood cells** in the peripheral blood (leukoerythroblastosis). *Iron deficiency anaemia* - This type of anaemia is caused by insufficient iron for **hemoglobin synthesis**, often due to chronic blood loss or inadequate dietary intake. - While leukaemia patients can develop iron deficiency due to bleeding, it is not the **primary type of anaemia** directly resulting from the marrow infiltration by leukaemic cells. *Megaloblastic anaemia* - Characterized by the production of abnormally large, immature red blood cells, primarily due to **vitamin B12** or **folate deficiency**. - There is no direct causal link between leukaemia and the development of megaloblastic anaemia as a **primary haemato-pathological mechanism**. *Aplastic anaemia* - Characterized by **pancytopenia** due to bone marrow failure with hypocellular marrow, not marrow infiltration. - While both leukaemia and aplastic anaemia can present with cytopenias, aplastic anaemia shows a **hypocellular marrow** whereas leukaemia shows a **hypercellular marrow** with infiltration by malignant cells.
Question 13: A mutation in the transthyretin (TTR) protein causes which of the following types of amyloidosis?
- A. Familial Mediterranean fever
- B. Dialysis associated amyloidosis
- C. Prion protein associated amyloidosis
- D. Familial amyloidotic polyneuropathy (Correct Answer)
Explanation: ***Familial amyloidotic polyneuropathy*** - This condition is specifically caused by **mutations in the transthyretin (TTR) protein**, leading to amyloid deposition primarily in nerves [1]. - It presents with **peripheral neuropathy**, including sensory and autonomic symptoms, which align with TTR mutations [1]. *Familial Mediterranean fever* - This is an autoinflammatory disorder caused by mutations in the **MEFV gene**, unrelated to transthyretin. - It is characterized by recurrent **fever, abdominal pain**, and **serositis**, not amyloidosis caused by TTR. *Prion protein associated amyloidosis* - Relates to prion diseases like **Creutzfeldt-Jakob disease**, caused by abnormal **prion proteins** rather than TTR [1]. - Symptoms are usually **neurodegenerative** in nature, not linked to familial amyloidogenic processes. *Dialysis associated amyloidosis* - This form of amyloidosis is due to the accumulation of **beta-2 microglobulin**, not mutations in TTR [1]. - Commonly presents with **joint pain** and carpal tunnel syndrome associated with long-term dialysis [1]. **References:** [1] Kumar V, Abbas AK, et al.. Robbins and Cotran Pathologic Basis of Disease. 9th ed. Diseases of the Immune System, p. 266.
Question 14: Maximum collagen deposition in wound healing is seen at -
- A. End of third week (Correct Answer)
- B. End of first week
- C. End of 2 months
- D. End of second week
Explanation: ***End of third week*** - By the end of the **third week**, the proliferative phase of wound healing is well underway, characterized by significant **collagen deposition**. [1] - At this stage, **Type III collagen** is initially laid down, which is later replaced by stronger **Type I collagen**, contributing to increasing wound strength. *End of first week* - The first week primarily involves the **inflammatory phase** and the initial stages of **proliferation**, with minimal new collagen deposition. [2] - While some **fibroblasts** are present, the amount of collagen synthesized is still relatively low. *End of second week* - Collagen synthesis is ongoing during the second week, but the **peak deposition rate** and overall amount of collagen accumulated are typically not as high as at the end of the third week. - The wound is gaining strength, but further increase in collagen content and remodeling is yet to occur. *End of 2 months* - By 2 months, the wound is in the **remodeling phase**, where the total collagen content might be substantial but the *rate of new collagen synthesis* has slowed down. - At this stage, there is a balance between **collagen synthesis** and **degradation**, and the collagen fibers are being reorganized and cross-linked to further improve tensile strength. **References:** [1] Kumar V, Abbas AK, et al.. Robbins and Cotran Pathologic Basis of Disease. 9th ed. Inflammation and Repair, pp. 117-119. [2] Kumar V, Abbas AK, et al.. Robbins and Cotran Pathologic Basis of Disease. 9th ed. Inflammation and Repair, p. 115.
Question 15: All of the following statements about Giant cell arteritis are true except?
- A. Involves large to small sized arteries (Correct Answer)
- B. Granulomatous inflammation
- C. Segmental nature of the involvement
- D. Can involve the aorta and its major branches
Explanation: ***Involves large to small sized arteries*** - Giant cell arteritis (GCA) predominantly affects **medium to large-sized arteries**, most commonly the branches of the **carotid artery**, such as the temporal arteries [1]. - While it can affect various arteries, it does not typically involve **small-sized arteries**, such as arterioles, directly as a primary site of inflammation. *Granulomatous inflammation* - GCA is characterized histologically by **granulomatous inflammation** within the arterial wall, which includes multinucleated **giant cells** and lymphocytes [2]. - This specific inflammatory pattern is a hallmark feature used in the diagnosis of GCA upon biopsy [2]. *Segmental nature of the involvement* - The arterial inflammation in GCA is often **segmental**, meaning that affected arteries may have inflamed and non-inflamed sections alternating along their length [2]. - This segmental involvement often necessitates **longer biopsies** (e.g., 2-3 cm for temporal artery biopsy) to increase the diagnostic yield. *Can involve the aorta and its major branches* - GCA can indeed affect the **aorta** (aortitis) and its major branches, leading to complications like **aneurysms** or **dissections**. - Involvement of these larger vessels can manifest as symptoms such as **claudication** in the limbs or asymptomatic aneurysms detectable on imaging [1]. **References:** [1] Cross SS. Underwood's Pathology: A Clinical Approach. 6th ed. Common Clinical Problems From Osteoarticular And Connective Tissue Disease, pp. 688-689. [2] Kumar V, Abbas AK, et al.. Robbins and Cotran Pathologic Basis of Disease. 9th ed. Diseases of Infancy and Childhood, pp. 516-517.
Question 16: Oncocytic carcinoma arises from -
- A. Perivascular region
- B. Renal glomerulus
- C. Loop of Henle
- D. Collecting duct (intercalated cells) (Correct Answer)
Explanation: ***Collecting duct*** - Oncocytic carcinoma primarily originates from the **collecting ducts** of the kidney, where oncocytes are characteristically found [1]. - It is associated with specific **morphological features**, including abundant eosinophilic cytoplasm. *Loop of henle* - This part of the nephron primarily functions in **concentration of urine** and is not a common site for oncocytic tumors. - Tumors arising here typically do not exhibit **oncocytic features** and are more often linked to different renal cell types. *Glomerulus* - The glomerulus is involved in **filtration of blood** and lacks oncocytic differentiation. - Oncocytic carcinoma does not arise from glomerular structures, as it features distinct cellular characteristics. *Perivascular* - This term refers to the tissue surrounding blood vessels and is not a site for oncocytic carcinoma development. - Such tumors would not align with the histological features or origins typically seen in oncocytic carcinoma. **References:** [1] Kumar V, Abbas AK, et al.. Robbins and Cotran Pathologic Basis of Disease. 9th ed. The Kidney, p. 959.
Question 17: Li–Fraumeni syndrome is associated with mutations in which of the following genes?
- A. Gene RB1
- B. Gene BRCA1
- C. Gene P21
- D. Gene TP53 (Correct Answer)
Explanation: ***Gene TP53*** - Li-Fraumeni syndrome is a rare, inherited cancer susceptibility syndrome associated with germline mutations in the **TP53 tumor suppressor gene**. - The **TP53 gene** encodes the p53 protein, which plays a critical role in cell cycle arrest, DNA repair, and initiation of apoptosis in response to cellular stress, thus preventing tumor formation. *Gene P21* - The **p21 gene** (CDKN1A) is a cyclin-dependent kinase inhibitor that acts downstream of p53, mediating p53-induced cell cycle arrest. - While p21 is involved in the p53 pathway, mutations in p21 itself are not the primary cause of Li-Fraumeni syndrome. *Gene RB1* - The **RB1 gene** encodes the retinoblastoma protein, a tumor suppressor involved in cell cycle regulation, particularly in controlling passage from G1 to S phase. - Mutations in **RB1** are primarily associated with hereditary retinoblastoma and osteosarcoma, not Li-Fraumeni syndrome. *Gene BRCA1* - The **BRCA1 gene** is a tumor suppressor gene involved in DNA repair, especially homologous recombination. - Germline mutations in **BRCA1** are strongly associated with hereditary breast and ovarian cancer syndrome, not Li-Fraumeni syndrome.
Question 18: What change is seen in the vessels during the initial stage of Raynaud's phenomenon?
- A. No pathological changes (functional vasospasm only) (Correct Answer)
- B. Thrombosis
- C. Fibrinoid necrosis
- D. Hyaline sclerosis
Explanation: ***No pathological changes (functional vasospasm only)*** - Raynaud's phenomenon, particularly **primary Raynaud's** (Raynaud's disease), is characterized by **functional vasospasm** of arterioles, especially in fingers and toes, in response to cold or stress [1]. - In its initial stages, there are no structural changes or pathological alterations within the vessel walls; the vasoconstriction is entirely **functional** [1]. *Thrombosis* - **Thrombosis** involves the formation of a blood clot within a vessel, obstructing blood flow. - While severe Raynaud's can, in rare cases, lead to digital ischemia and microthrombosis, it is **not the primary or initial change** seen in typical Raynaud's phenomenon. *Fibrinoid necrosis* - **Fibrinoid necrosis** is a type of vascular damage associated with severe autoimmune diseases or malignant hypertension, where fibrin and plasma proteins deposit in the vessel wall. - This is a **structural, irreversible change** and is not characteristic of the initial, functional vasospasm seen in Raynaud's phenomenon. *Hyaline sclerosis* - **Hyaline sclerosis** is a change in small arteries and arterioles, often seen in benign essential hypertension or as part of the aging process, where the vessel wall thickens and becomes hyaline (glassy) due to plasma protein leakage and fibrosis. - This represents a **chronic structural change** and is not the acute, intermittent, functional vasoconstriction defining the initial stage of Raynaud's. **References:** [1] Kumar V, Abbas AK, et al.. Robbins and Cotran Pathologic Basis of Disease. 9th ed. Diseases of Infancy and Childhood, pp. 520-522.
Question 19: Which of the following conditions can lead to pulmonary infarction?
- A. Saddle embolus at bifurcation
- B. Arterioles being blocked
- C. None of the above.
- D. Blockage of 2nd and 3rd generation end arteries (Correct Answer)
Explanation: ***None*** - Indicates that all the listed options do indeed contribute to **pulmonary infarction**. - **Pulmonary infarction** typically occurs due to vascular obstruction; thus, this choice signifies all other options are related. [1] *Saddle embolus at bifurcation* - A **saddle embolus** can cause significant blockage at the **pulmonary artery bifurcation**, leading to acute pulmonary infarction. [2] - This type of embolism can severely reduce blood supply to both lungs, directly contributing to infarction. [3] *Arterioles are blocked* - Obstruction of **small arterioles** can lead to localized ischemia and subsequent infarction in the pulmonary region. [1] - This phenomenon is consistent with the pathophysiology of pulmonary infarction, hence it is a contributing factor. *Blockage of 2nd and 3rd gen end arteries* - Infarction can occur if there is blockage of the **2nd and 3rd generation of pulmonary arteries**, leading to compromised blood flow. [1] - These smaller branches play a critical role in perfusing lung tissue, and their blockage can result in pulmonary infarction. [4] **References:** [1] Kumar V, Abbas AK, et al.. Robbins and Cotran Pathologic Basis of Disease. 9th ed. Hemodynamic Disorders, Thromboembolic Disease, and Shock, pp. 137-138. [2] Cross SS. Underwood's Pathology: A Clinical Approach. 6th ed. Common Clinical Problems From Respiratory Tract Disease, pp. 323-324. [3] Kumar V, Abbas AK, et al.. Robbins and Cotran Pathologic Basis of Disease. 9th ed. Hemodynamic Disorders, Thromboembolic Disease, and Shock, p. 140. [4] Kumar V, Abbas AK, et al.. Robbins and Cotran Pathologic Basis of Disease. 9th ed. The Lung, pp. 705-706.
Question 20: What laboratory findings are associated with common variable hypogammaglobulinemia?
- A. Low serum immunoglobulin levels (Correct Answer)
- B. Decreased B cell count
- C. Increased B cell count
- D. Neutropenia
Explanation: ***Low serum immunoglobulin levels*** - **Common variable hypogammaglobulinemia (CVID)** is characterized by significantly **low levels of IgG, IgA, and/or IgM** due to impaired B cell differentiation into plasma cells. - This deficiency in antibodies is the hallmark of the disorder, explaining the increased susceptibility to infections. *Decreased B cell count* - While CVID involves impaired B cell function, the **B cell counts** in the peripheral blood are typically **normal** or sometimes even elevated [1]. - The problem lies in their inability to differentiate and produce adequate antibodies, not in their numerical presence [1]. *Increased B cell count* - An increased B cell count is not a characteristic finding in CVID; peripheral B cell numbers are usually normal [1]. - If B cell counts are significantly increased, other conditions such as certain **lymphoproliferative disorders** should be considered. *Neutropenia* - **Neutropenia** (low neutrophil count) is not a primary diagnostic feature of CVID, although it can occur in some patients with autoimmune complications. - The defining laboratory finding is the **deficiency of immunoglobulins**, leading to recurrent infections. **References:** [1] Kumar V, Abbas AK, et al.. Robbins and Cotran Pathologic Basis of Disease. 9th ed. Diseases of the Immune System, pp. 249-250.