Obstetrics and Gynecology
1 questionsNuchal translucency is used in
NEET-PG 2012 - Obstetrics and Gynecology NEET-PG Practice Questions and MCQs
Question 921: Nuchal translucency is used in
- A. Head scan
- B. MRI neck
- C. ANC USG (Correct Answer)
- D. Anthropometry
Explanation: ***ANC USG*** - **Nuchal translucency** measurement is a key component of the **first-trimester antenatal ultrasound** (ANC USG). - It helps in screening for chromosomal abnormalities like **Down syndrome (Trisomy 21)** and certain cardiac defects. *Head scan* - A head scan (e.g., CT or MRI of the head) is used to evaluate the **brain** and **skull** for conditions like tumors, strokes, or trauma. - It is not routinely used for fetal screening or nuchal translucency assessment. *MRI neck* - **MRI of the neck** is employed to visualize soft tissues, blood vessels, and bones in the neck region. - Its primary use is in diagnosing conditions like cervical disc herniations, spinal cord compression, or neck masses, not for fetal screening. *Anthropometry* - **Anthropometry** involves the measurement of the human body, such as height, weight, and limb circumference. - While general measurements are taken during pregnancy, anthropometry specifically does not refer to the assessment of nuchal translucency.
Pediatrics
1 questionsWhat is the recommended rate for blood transfusion in neonates?
NEET-PG 2012 - Pediatrics NEET-PG Practice Questions and MCQs
Question 921: What is the recommended rate for blood transfusion in neonates?
- A. 1-5 ml/min (Correct Answer)
- B. 10-15 ml/min
- C. 15-20 ml/min
- D. 5-10 ml/min
Explanation: ***1-5 ml/min*** - The recommended rate for blood transfusion in neonates is **1-5 ml/min** to prevent **circulatory overload** and other complications. - Slower rates are crucial for neonates due to their limited cardiovascular reserves and smaller blood volume. *5-10 ml/min* - This rate is generally **too fast** for routine neonatal blood transfusions, increasing the risk of **fluid overload** and **cardiac strain**. - Rapid administration can lead to complications such as **necrotizing enterocolitis (NEC)** or **respiratory distress**. *10-15 ml/min* - Administering blood at this rate in neonates is **contraindicated** due to the high risk of **cardiovascular compromise**. - It could quickly overwhelm the neonate's circulatory system, leading to severe adverse events. *15-20 ml/min* - This rate is significantly **too rapid** for any neonatal blood transfusion and would almost certainly result in **severe volume overload** and potential cardiac arrest. - Such high rates are only rarely considered in extreme emergency situations, like massive hemorrhage with specific considerations and monitoring.
Pharmacology
1 questionsWhich local anesthetic is known for its vasoconstrictive properties?
NEET-PG 2012 - Pharmacology NEET-PG Practice Questions and MCQs
Question 921: Which local anesthetic is known for its vasoconstrictive properties?
- A. Lidocaine
- B. Chlorprocaine
- C. Procaine
- D. Cocaine (Correct Answer)
Explanation: ***Cocaine*** - Cocaine is unique among local anesthetics for its inherent **sympathomimetic** properties, leading to **vasoconstriction**. - This vasoconstriction is due to its ability to block the reuptake of **norepinephrine** and other catecholamines at adrenergic nerve terminals. *Procaine* - Procaine is an **ester-type** local anesthetic that typically causes **vasodilation**, which can lead to rapid systemic absorption and a shorter duration of action. - It does not possess any inherent vasoconstrictive properties. *Lidocaine* - Lidocaine, an **amide-type** local anesthetic, generally causes **vasodilation** at clinical concentrations. - Due to this vasodilatory effect, **epinephrine** is often added to lidocaine preparations to prolong its action and reduce systemic absorption. *Chlorprocaine* - Chlorprocaine is another **ester-type** local anesthetic known for its rapid onset and short duration of action. - It primarily causes **vasodilation**, similar to procaine, and has no intrinsic vasoconstrictive effects.
Psychiatry
5 questionsWhat does the term 'etheromania' refer to?
Which of the following is a recognized type of anxiety disorder?
Derealization and depersonalization are symptoms of which type of disorder?
Which of the following is a first-line treatment for bipolar affective (manic-depressive) disorder:
Formication is primarily associated with which condition?
NEET-PG 2012 - Psychiatry NEET-PG Practice Questions and MCQs
Question 921: What does the term 'etheromania' refer to?
- A. Ether addiction (Correct Answer)
- B. Acute psychosis following ether anesthesia
- C. Excessive use of ether as an anesthetic
- D. Delirium tremens from ether withdrawal
Explanation: ***Ether addiction*** - **Etheromania** specifically refers to the compulsive use and dependence on **ether** for its psychoactive effects. - This term was historically used to describe individuals who developed a significant **addiction** to ether. - The suffix "-mania" in psychiatric terminology often denotes an obsessive or compulsive behavior pattern related to a specific substance. *Acute psychosis following ether anesthesia* - While ether anesthesia can sometimes lead to transient psychomotor agitation or emergence delirium, **acute psychosis** is not the primary definition of etheromania. - Etheromania describes a long-term pattern of **addictive behavior**, not an acute post-anesthesia complication. *Excessive use of ether as an anesthetic* - This describes a medical application of ether, albeit potentially misused, but does not primarily denote the **addictive state** of the person using it. - **Etheromania** focuses on the individual's psychological and physiological dependence, not merely the quantity used for medical purposes. *Delirium tremens from ether withdrawal* - Delirium tremens is specifically associated with **alcohol withdrawal**, not ether withdrawal. - While ether withdrawal can cause symptoms, the term **etheromania** refers to the addiction itself, not withdrawal complications.
Question 922: Which of the following is a recognized type of anxiety disorder?
- A. Bipolar Disorder
- B. Major Depressive Disorder
- C. Schizophrenia
- D. Panic Disorder (Correct Answer)
Explanation: ***Panic Disorder*** - **Panic disorder** is a recognized **anxiety disorder** characterized by recurrent unexpected **panic attacks** - sudden episodes of intense fear accompanied by physical symptoms like heart palpitations, shortness of breath, chest pain, dizziness, and trembling. - It involves persistent worry about having more attacks (anticipatory anxiety) and maladaptive behavioral changes to avoid situations where attacks might occur. - Classified under **Anxiety Disorders** in DSM-5 and ICD-11. *Major Depressive Disorder* - **Major Depressive Disorder (MDD)** is a **mood disorder**, not an anxiety disorder. - Characterized by persistent depressed mood, loss of interest or pleasure (anhedonia), changes in appetite/sleep, fatigue, feelings of worthlessness, and potential suicidal ideation. - Classified under **Depressive Disorders** in DSM-5, distinct from anxiety disorders, though anxiety symptoms may co-occur. *Bipolar Disorder* - **Bipolar disorder** is a **mood disorder**, not an anxiety disorder. - Characterized by significant mood swings including episodes of mania/hypomania (elevated, expansive, or irritable mood with increased energy) and depression. - Classified under **Bipolar and Related Disorders** in DSM-5, distinct from anxiety disorders. *Schizophrenia* - **Schizophrenia** is a **psychotic disorder**, not an anxiety disorder. - Characterized by disturbances in thought, perception, emotions, and behavior, including hallucinations, delusions, disorganized thinking, and negative symptoms. - Classified under **Schizophrenia Spectrum and Other Psychotic Disorders** in DSM-5, distinct from anxiety disorders.
Question 923: Derealization and depersonalization are symptoms of which type of disorder?
- A. Dissociative disorder (Correct Answer)
- B. Personality disorders
- C. Mania
- D. Anxiety disorders
Explanation: ***Dissociative disorder*** - **Derealization** involves experiencing the outside world as unreal or dreamlike - **Depersonalization** is the experience of feeling detached from one's own body or mental processes - These are hallmark symptoms of **dissociative disorders**, specifically depersonalization-derealization disorder in DSM-5 *Personality disorders* - Characterized by enduring, maladaptive patterns of inner experience and behavior - While some personality disorders (e.g., **borderline personality disorder**) may display transient dissociative symptoms under stress, derealization and depersonalization are not core diagnostic features *Mania* - A state of abnormally elevated mood and energy, involving **racing thoughts**, **decreased need for sleep**, and **impulsive behavior** - Does not typically involve consistent derealization or depersonalization as core features *Anxiety disorders* - Depersonalization can occur transiently during **panic attacks** or severe anxiety - However, when derealization and depersonalization are the primary, persistent symptoms, they indicate a **dissociative disorder** rather than an anxiety disorder
Question 924: Which of the following is a first-line treatment for bipolar affective (manic-depressive) disorder:
- A. Chlorpromazine
- B. Haloperidol
- C. Diazepam
- D. Lithium carbonate (Correct Answer)
Explanation: **Lithium carbonate** - **Lithium** is a well-established and highly effective **mood stabilizer**, considered a first-line treatment for managing both **manic** and **depressive episodes** in bipolar disorder. - It helps prevent recurrent episodes and reduces the severity of mood swings, acting as a prophylactic agent. *Chlorpromazine* - **Chlorpromazine** is a **first-generation antipsychotic** that is primarily used to treat **schizophrenia** and other psychotic disorders. - While it can be used acutely to manage severe manic agitation, it is not a first-line agent for the long-term mood stabilization characteristic of bipolar disorder. *Haloperidol* - **Haloperidol** is another **first-generation antipsychotic** often used for acute treatment of **psychotic symptoms** or severe agitation, including in mania. - It is not a primary long-term mood stabilizer for bipolar disorder due to its side effect profile and lack of efficacy in preventing future mood episodes compared to lithium. *Diazepam* - **Diazepam** is a **benzodiazepine** primarily used for treating **anxiety**, muscle spasms, and acute seizures. - While it can help manage acute agitation and insomnia during a manic episode, it does not have mood-stabilizing properties and is not a long-term treatment for bipolar disorder.
Question 925: Formication is primarily associated with which condition?
- A. Acute amphetamine intoxication
- B. Alcohol withdrawal
- C. Cannabis poisoning
- D. Chronic use of amphetamine (Correct Answer)
Explanation: ***Chronic use of amphetamine*** - **Formication** (the sensation of insects crawling under the skin) is a classic symptom of **chronic amphetamine abuse**, often leading to excoriations due to scratching. - This **tactile hallucination** is part of the psychosis that can develop with prolonged high-dose amphetamine use. *Acute amphetamine intoxication* - While acute intoxication can cause psychosis and paranoia, **formication** is more strongly associated with the **chronic effects** and withdrawal of amphetamines. - Acute effects typically include euphoria, increased energy, and hypervigilance, rather than persistent tactile hallucinations. *Alcohol withdrawal* - **Alcohol withdrawal** can cause a range of symptoms including tremors, hallucinations (often visual or auditory), and seizures. - While some tactile disturbances can occur, **formication** is not a primary or characteristic symptom of alcohol withdrawal; **delirium tremens** often features visual or auditory hallucinations. *Cannabis poisoning* - **Cannabis poisoning** (or acute intoxication) typically presents with euphoria, altered perception of time, impaired coordination, and increased appetite. - It does not characteristically cause **formication** or other significant tactile hallucinations.
Radiology
2 questionsInvestigation of choice for multiple sclerosis
Which chamber enlargement shows a double right heart border with a wide subcarinal angle?
NEET-PG 2012 - Radiology NEET-PG Practice Questions and MCQs
Question 921: Investigation of choice for multiple sclerosis
- A. CT
- B. MRI (Correct Answer)
- C. USG
- D. PET
Explanation: ***MRI*** - **Magnetic Resonance Imaging (MRI)** is the investigation of choice for **multiple sclerosis** due to its superior ability to visualize **demyelinating plaques** in the brain and spinal cord. - It can detect both **new and old lesions**, crucial for diagnosis and monitoring disease progression, according to the **McDonald criteria**. *CT* - **Computed Tomography (CT) scans** are generally less sensitive than MRI in detecting the subtle **demyelinating lesions** characteristic of multiple sclerosis. - While it can sometimes show larger lesions, it often misses smaller or early-stage plaques, making it less suitable for initial diagnosis. *USG* - **Ultrasound (USG)** is primarily used for visualizing soft tissues and vascular structures, not for detailed imaging of the brain or spinal cord parenchyma. - It has no role in the diagnosis or monitoring of **multiple sclerosis**. *PET* - **Positron Emission Tomography (PET) scans** are used to assess metabolic activity and perfusion, often in oncology or certain neurological disorders like Alzheimer's or Parkinson's disease. - It is not routinely used for the diagnosis of **multiple sclerosis**, as it does not clearly visualize the **demyelinating lesions**.
Question 922: Which chamber enlargement shows a double right heart border with a wide subcarinal angle?
- A. Left atrium (Correct Answer)
- B. Left ventricle
- C. Right atrium
- D. Right ventricle
Explanation: ***Left atrium*** - A **double right heart border** on a chest X-ray is a classic sign of **left atrial enlargement**, as the enlarged left atrium bulges into the right atrial silhouette. - The **wide subcarinal angle** (angle between the mainstem bronchi) also indicates left atrial enlargement, as the expanding left atrium pushes the bronchi apart. *Left ventricle* - **Left ventricular enlargement** primarily manifests as a **downward and leftward displacement of the apex** and increased cardiac silhouette on the left. - It does not typically cause a double right heart border or widening of the subcarinal angle. *Right atrium* - **Right atrial enlargement** usually presents as a **prominent right heart border** that extends further to the right than normal. - It does not result in a double right heart border or affect the subcarinal angle. *Right ventricle* - **Right ventricular enlargement** leads to an **anterior bowing of the sternum** (in severe cases) and an upward and leftward displacement of the cardiac apex. - It pushes the left ventricle posteriorly and does not produce a double right heart border or a wide subcarinal angle.