Anatomy
1 questionsThe commonest site of aspiration of a foreign body in the supine position is into the:
NEET-PG 2012 - Anatomy NEET-PG Practice Questions and MCQs
Question 911: The commonest site of aspiration of a foreign body in the supine position is into the:
- A. Right upper lobe apical
- B. Left basal
- C. Right middle lobe medial segment
- D. Right lower lobe superior segment (Correct Answer)
Explanation: ***Right lower lobe superior segment*** - When an individual is in the **supine position**, the most dependent portion of the lung (where gravity would pull aspirated material) is the **superior segment of the right lower lobe**. - This anatomical orientation, combined with the **wider and more vertical right main bronchus**, increases the likelihood of aspirated foreign bodies entering and settling in this specific segment. - The superior segment of the right lower lobe is **posteriorly located** and becomes the most dependent when lying supine. *Right upper lobe apical* - While the right upper lobe is on the favored side for aspiration due to the anatomy of the main bronchi, the **apical segment** is not the most dependent in the supine position. - Aspiration into the apical segment is generally less common than into more dependent segments when lying flat. *Left basal* - The **left main bronchus** is narrower and takes a more acute angle compared to the right, making aspiration into the left lung less common. - Even if aspiration were to occur in the left lung, the **basal segments** are not the most dependent in the supine position. *Right middle lobe medial segment* - The medial segment of the middle lobe is **not as posteriorly positioned** as the superior segment of the right lower lobe in the supine position. - While aspiration can occur into the middle lobe, it is **less common** than into the superior segment of the right lower lobe when supine due to the anatomical positioning and gravity effects.
Orthopaedics
1 questionsTardy ulnar nerve palsy is specifically associated with which type of fracture?
NEET-PG 2012 - Orthopaedics NEET-PG Practice Questions and MCQs
Question 911: Tardy ulnar nerve palsy is specifically associated with which type of fracture?
- A. Lateral condyle fracture of the humerus (Correct Answer)
- B. Medial condyle fracture of the humerus
- C. Fracture of the humeral shaft
- D. Fracture of the radial shaft
Explanation: ***Lateral condyle fracture of the humerus*** - This fracture, especially in children, can lead to **cubitus valgus deformity** as a long-term complication if it heals incorrectly. - The resulting **valgus angulation** at the elbow abnormally stretches the ulnar nerve behind the medial epicondyle, causing **tardy ulnar nerve palsy** years after the initial injury. *Medial condyle fracture of the humerus* - While close to the ulnar nerve, medial condyle fractures are more likely to cause **immediate nerve damage** due to direct impingement, rather than delayed or "tardy" palsy from chronic stretching. - Complications typically involve varus deformity, which does not commonly stretch the ulnar nerve in the same manner as valgus. *Fracture of the humeral shaft* - This type of fracture is more commonly associated with **radial nerve injury** (e.g., wrist drop), especially in fractures of the mid-shaft. - It does not typically lead to long-term deformities at the elbow that would cause **delayed ulnar nerve compression**. *Fracture of the radial shaft* - Radial shaft fractures (e.g., Monteggia, Galeazzi) primarily affect the **radial nerve** or the **posterior interosseous nerve**. - They do not directly involve the elbow joint in a manner that would cause **tardy ulnar nerve palsy**.
Pathology
1 questionsAll of the following are features of juvenile CML except which of the following?
NEET-PG 2012 - Pathology NEET-PG Practice Questions and MCQs
Question 911: All of the following are features of juvenile CML except which of the following?
- A. Fetal Hb is increased
- B. Lymphadenopathy
- C. Thrombocytopenia
- D. Philadelphia chromosome is positive (Correct Answer)
Explanation: ***Philadelphia chromosome is positive*** - **Juvenile Chronic Myeloid Leukemia (JCML)**, now known as **Chronic Myelomonocytic Leukemia (CMML)** of childhood, is characterized by the **absence** of the **Philadelphia chromosome (Ph chromosome)**. - The Ph chromosome, a t(9;22)(q34;q11) translocation forming the **BCR-ABL1 fusion gene**, is the hallmark of adult Chronic Myeloid Leukemia (CML), but not JCML. *Thrombocytopenia* - **Thrombocytopenia** (low platelet count) is a common feature in JCML due to ineffective hematopoiesis and bone marrow infiltration. - This contrasts with adult CML, where **thrombocytosis** (high platelet count) is more characteristic of the chronic phase. *Fetal Hb is increased* - An **increased level of fetal hemoglobin (HbF)** is a characteristic laboratory finding in children with JCML. - This elevation is related to the dysregulated hematopoiesis and is a useful diagnostic marker. *Lymphadenopathy* - **Lymphadenopathy** (enlarged lymph nodes) is a frequent clinical manifestation in JCML, reflecting the widespread infiltration of monocytic cells. - This is part of the systemic involvement seen in this aggressive myeloproliferative disorder.
Pediatrics
4 questionsTreatment of simple febrile convulsion is based on
In children, which of the following is a key diagnostic sign of congestive heart failure (CHF)?
What is the minimum weight gain recommended for a malnourished child during the catch-up growth phase of nutritional rehabilitation?
What is the treatment of choice for a 5-year-old child with bedwetting?
NEET-PG 2012 - Pediatrics NEET-PG Practice Questions and MCQs
Question 911: Treatment of simple febrile convulsion is based on
- A. Control of fever (Correct Answer)
- B. Rectal diazepam
- C. CSF finding
- D. Blood reports
Explanation: ***Control of fever*** - Among the given options, **control of fever** is the most appropriate answer as it represents the **immediate supportive care** for a child with a simple febrile seizure. - Management includes using antipyretics like **paracetamol** or **ibuprofen** to reduce fever and improve comfort. - **Important note:** While fever control is good supportive care, evidence shows that antipyretics do **NOT prevent recurrence** of febrile seizures. The actual cornerstone of management is **reassurance and parental education**. - According to AAP guidelines, simple febrile seizures are benign, self-limited events that require no specific anticonvulsant treatment. *Rectal diazepam* - **Rectal diazepam** is used for **acute termination** of prolonged seizures (>5 minutes) or as rescue therapy for recurrent episodes. - It is NOT indicated for routine management of simple febrile seizures, which typically last <15 minutes and resolve spontaneously. - May be prescribed for home use in select cases with recurrent seizures. *CSF finding* - **CSF analysis** is a **diagnostic procedure**, not a treatment basis. - It is indicated only when there is clinical suspicion of meningitis or meningoencephalitis (e.g., altered sensorium, meningeal signs, complex seizure features). - NOT routinely required for simple febrile seizures in well-appearing children. *Blood reports* - **Blood investigations** are diagnostic, not treatment-guiding for simple febrile seizures. - They may be considered to identify the source of fever or rule out electrolyte abnormalities, but are not the basis of seizure management itself. - Simple febrile seizures do not require routine laboratory workup.
Question 912: In children, which of the following is a key diagnostic sign of congestive heart failure (CHF)?
- A. Pedal edema
- B. Raised JVP
- C. Basal crepitations
- D. Hepatomegaly (Correct Answer)
Explanation: ***Hepatomegaly*** - In children, **hepatomegaly** is a crucial indicator of **right-sided heart failure** due to congestion of the hepatic venous system. - The liver is a compressible organ and can accommodate a significant increase in blood volume, causing it to enlarge considerably before other signs of **venous congestion** become apparent. *Raised JVP* - **Raised jugular venous pressure (JVP)** is often difficult to assess reliably in infants and young children due to their short necks and uncooperative nature. - While present in older children with CHF, it is not considered as sensitive or specific as other signs in younger pediatric patients. *Pedal edema* - **Pedal edema** is less common in pediatric CHF compared to adults, particularly in infants and toddlers. - Their shorter hydrostatic columns and tendency to spend more time supine make dependent edema less prominent. *Basal crepitations* - **Basal crepitations** (rales) indicate **pulmonary edema**, which is a sign of **left-sided heart failure**. - While a part of CHF, **hepatomegaly** is a more consistent and often earlier sign that can be detected across different forms of pediatric CHF (right or left-sided).
Question 913: What is the minimum weight gain recommended for a malnourished child during the catch-up growth phase of nutritional rehabilitation?
- A. 5 gm/kg/day (Correct Answer)
- B. 10 gm/kg/day
- C. 15 gm/kg/day
- D. 20 gm/kg/day
Explanation: ***Correct: 5 gm/kg/day*** - According to **WHO guidelines** for management of severe acute malnutrition and **IAP recommendations**, the **minimum acceptable weight gain** during the catch-up growth phase is **5 gm/kg/day**. - This represents the **threshold for adequate nutritional rehabilitation** - gains below this indicate inadequate recovery and require reassessment of the feeding protocol. - Weight gain of 5 gm/kg/day or more indicates that the child is responding to treatment. *Incorrect: 10 gm/kg/day* - A weight gain of **10 gm/kg/day** represents **good/satisfactory catch-up growth**, not the minimum requirement. - This is considered an **optimal target** rather than the minimum acceptable threshold. - While desirable, the question specifically asks for the minimum recommendation, which is 5 gm/kg/day. *Incorrect: 15 gm/kg/day* - A weight gain of **15 gm/kg/day** reflects **excellent catch-up growth** and is at the higher end of optimal targets. - This exceeds both the minimum requirement and the good target. - While indicating very successful rehabilitation, it is not the minimum recommendation. *Incorrect: 20 gm/kg/day* - A weight gain of **20 gm/kg/day** is an **exceptionally high rate** rarely achieved in clinical practice. - While theoretically possible with intensive feeding protocols, this far exceeds the minimum requirement. - Such high rates may require monitoring for refeeding syndrome and metabolic complications.
Question 914: What is the treatment of choice for a 5-year-old child with bedwetting?
- A. No treatment
- B. Motivational therapy (Correct Answer)
- C. Imipramine
- D. Desmopressin
Explanation: ***Motivational therapy*** - This is the **first-line active treatment** for **primary nocturnal enuresis** in children, involving encouragement, positive reinforcement (star charts), rewards, and education about bladder control. - It focuses on **behavioral strategies** and can be highly effective with parental involvement. - When intervention is pursued at age 5, motivational therapy is preferred over pharmacological options due to safety and effectiveness. *No treatment* - At age 5, **watchful waiting with reassurance** is often appropriate since nocturnal enuresis is common at this age (affects 15-20% of 5-year-olds) and has a **spontaneous resolution rate of 15% per year**. - However, when the question asks for "treatment of choice," it implies active intervention rather than observation alone. - Active behavioral therapy is preferred when bedwetting causes distress or affects the child's self-esteem. *Imipramine* - **Imipramine** is a **tricyclic antidepressant** with anticholinergic effects that can reduce bladder contractions, but it has significant side effects including **cardiac arrhythmias** and is **not first-line treatment**. - It is typically reserved for children ≥7 years after behavioral interventions fail, due to its potential adverse effects and high relapse rate after discontinuation. *Desmopressin* - **Desmopressin** is an **antidiuretic hormone analog** that reduces urine production overnight. - While effective, it is typically reserved for children ≥6 years who are unresponsive to behavioral therapy or for **short-term situational use** (e.g., sleepovers, camps). - Side effects include potential **hyponatremia** and high relapse rate after discontinuation.
Surgery
3 questionsWhat is the most common complication associated with carpal tunnel release surgery?
What is the investigation of choice for detecting recurrence after parathyroid gland surgery?
In the Bismuth-Corlette classification, which type involves the hepatic duct confluence WITHOUT extension into secondary intrahepatic ducts?
NEET-PG 2012 - Surgery NEET-PG Practice Questions and MCQs
Question 911: What is the most common complication associated with carpal tunnel release surgery?
- A. Malunion
- B. Avascular necrosis
- C. Finger stiffness (Correct Answer)
- D. Rupture of EPL tendon
Explanation: ***Finger stiffness*** - Among the options listed, **finger stiffness** is the most recognized complication of carpal tunnel release surgery. - **Post-operative pain, swelling, and scar tissue formation** can lead to reduced range of motion in the digits. - Patients may develop stiffness due to **immobilization**, **scar adhesions**, or apprehension in mobilizing the hand after surgery. - **Note:** In clinical practice, **pillar pain** (pain at the thenar and hypothenar eminences) is actually the most common complication (10-30% of cases), but it is not among the options provided. *Malunion* - **Malunion** refers to improper healing of a fractured bone. - Carpal tunnel release involves dividing the **transverse carpal ligament** (flexor retinaculum), which is a **soft tissue procedure**. - No bone is cut or fractured, so malunion is not relevant to this surgery. *Avascular necrosis* - **Avascular necrosis (AVN)** is bone death due to interrupted blood supply. - AVN affects bones with precarious blood supply (femoral head, scaphoid, lunate in Kienböck's disease). - Carpal tunnel release does not involve bone manipulation and **AVN is not a recognized complication** of this procedure. *Rupture of EPL tendon* - **Extensor Pollicis Longus (EPL) tendon rupture** is classically associated with **distal radius fractures** or inflammatory arthritis. - EPL runs through the **third dorsal compartment** and is anatomically distant from the carpal tunnel (volar wrist). - While median nerve injury is a rare but serious complication of carpal tunnel release, **EPL rupture is not associated** with this surgery.
Question 912: What is the investigation of choice for detecting recurrence after parathyroid gland surgery?
- A. SPECT
- B. MRI
- C. Neck ultrasound
- D. Sestamibi scan (Correct Answer)
Explanation: ***Sestamibi scan*** - A **sestamibi scan** is the investigation of choice for **localizing recurrent or persistent hyperparathyroidism** because **parathyroid tissue preferentially retains the tracer** longer than thyroid tissue. - This nuclear medicine imaging technique helps identify ectopic or very small parathyroid adenomas, which may be difficult to locate with other methods. *SPECT* - **Single-photon emission computed tomography (SPECT)** can be used as an adjunct to a sestamibi scan (SPECT-Sestamibi) to provide 3D images and improve localization, but it is typically not the initial or standalone investigation of choice for recurrence. - While SPECT offers increased sensitivity and specificity over planar imaging by removing superimposed structures, the **sestamibi uptake itself is the crucial diagnostic marker**. *MRI* - **Magnetic resonance imaging (MRI)** is generally used for detailed anatomical assessment of the neck and mediastinum, especially if there's concern for **ectopic glands or complex anatomy**. - However, it is less sensitive than sestamibi for detecting small or recurrent hyperactive parathyroid tissue due to its reliance on anatomical rather than functional abnormalities. *Neck ultrasound* - **Neck ultrasound** is an excellent initial imaging modality for primary hyperparathyroidism due to its **affordability and ability to visualize cervical parathyroid glands**. - For detecting recurrence, its utility is limited, especially in cases of **ectopic glands** (e.g., in the mediastinum) or if scar tissue hinders clear visualization.
Question 913: In the Bismuth-Corlette classification, which type involves the hepatic duct confluence WITHOUT extension into secondary intrahepatic ducts?
- A. Type II (Correct Answer)
- B. Type IIIb
- C. Type I
- D. Type IV
- E. Type IIIa
- F. Type III
Explanation: ***Type II*** - This classification specifically describes **cholangiocarcinomas** located at the **hepatic duct confluence** without extension into secondary intrahepatic ducts. - **Type II tumors** involve the hepatic duct confluence but **do not extend** into the right or left secondary intrahepatic ducts. - This is the defining feature that distinguishes Type II from Type III variants. *Type I* - **Type I tumors** are located at least **2 cm distal to the hepatic duct bifurcation**. - This type involves the **common hepatic duct** and **spares the confluence** completely. - Does not meet the criteria of involving the confluence. *Type IIIa* - **Type IIIa tumors** involve the **hepatic duct confluence** with extension into the **right secondary intrahepatic ducts**. - This represents extension **beyond** the confluence, unlike Type II. - The extension into secondary ducts is the key differentiating feature. *Type IIIb* - **Type IIIb tumors** involve the **hepatic duct confluence** with extension into the **left secondary intrahepatic ducts**. - This represents extension **beyond** the confluence, unlike Type II. - The extension pattern differs from Type IIIa by involving the left rather than right system.