Anatomy
1 questionsIdentify the type of connective tissue present in the image.
NEET-PG 2012 - Anatomy NEET-PG Practice Questions and MCQs
Question 891: Identify the type of connective tissue present in the image.
- A. Loose and irregular
- B. Specialized
- C. Dense irregular (Correct Answer)
- D. Dense regular
Explanation: ***Dense irregular*** - The image shows **densely packed collagen fibers** arranged in an **irregular, haphazard fashion**, characteristic of dense irregular connective tissue. - This type of tissue provides **strength** and resistance to stress from multiple directions, found in the **dermis of the skin** and organ capsules. *Loose and irregular* - **Loose connective tissue** would show more ground substance and fewer, loosely arranged fibers, whereas this image displays high fiber density. - While it is "irregular" in fiber arrangement, the density of fibers rules out the "loose" classification. *Specialized* - **Specialized connective tissues** include cartilage, bone, blood, and adipose tissue, which have distinct cellular and extracellular matrix components not seen here. - This tissue lacks the specific cellular and matrix characteristics that would classify it as specialized (e.g., chondrocytes in lacunae, osteocytes, blood cells). *Dense regular* - **Dense regular connective tissue** features collagen fibers arranged in parallel bundles, providing strength in one direction. - Examples include **tendons and ligaments**, which are structurally organized in an orderly, aligned manner, unlike the displayed irregular arrangement.
Biochemistry
1 questionsDiagnosis of carcinoid tumour is done by urinary estimation of:
NEET-PG 2012 - Biochemistry NEET-PG Practice Questions and MCQs
Question 891: Diagnosis of carcinoid tumour is done by urinary estimation of:
- A. VMA
- B. Metanephrines
- C. Catecholamines
- D. 5HIAA (Correct Answer)
Explanation: ***5HIAA*** - The urinary estimate of **5-hydroxyindoleacetic acid (5HIAA)** is the primary diagnostic test for **carcinoid tumors** [1], particularly those secreting serotonin. - Elevated levels of **5HIAA** in urine indicate excessive serotonin production, which is characteristic of these tumors. *VMA* - **Vanillylmandelic acid (VMA)** is a metabolite of catecholamines and is primarily used in diagnosing **neuroblastoma** or **pheochromocytoma**, not carcinoid tumors. - Although it indicates catecholamine secretion, it does not correlate with **serotonin** levels associated with carcinoid tumors. *Metanephrines* - **Metanephrines** represent metabolites of catecholamines and are mainly evaluated for **pheochromocytoma**. - They do not provide information on serotonin metabolism or carcinoid tumor activity. *Catecholamines* - Catecholamines such as **epinephrine and norepinephrine** are not specifically related to carcinoid tumors and often indicate other neuroendocrine tumors. - Their levels do not correlate with serotonin or its metabolite, **5HIAA**, used for carcinoid diagnosis. **References:** [1] Cross SS. Underwood's Pathology: A Clinical Approach. 6th ed. (Basic Pathology) introduces the student to key general principles of pathology, both as a medical science and as a clinical activity with a vital role in patient care. Part 2 (Disease Mechanisms) provides fundamental knowledge about the cellular and molecular processes involved in diseases, providing the rationale for their treatment. Part 3 (Systematic Pathology) deals in detail with specific diseases, with emphasis on the clinically important aspects., pp. 12-15.
Dermatology
1 questionsRichner-Hanhart syndrome is characterized by which of the following?
NEET-PG 2012 - Dermatology NEET-PG Practice Questions and MCQs
Question 891: Richner-Hanhart syndrome is characterized by which of the following?
- A. Autosomal dominant
- B. Associated with abnormality in lipid metabolism
- C. Ocular and cutaneous features (Correct Answer)
- D. Never associated with neurological involvement
Explanation: ***Ocular and cutaneous features*** - **Richner-Hanhart syndrome**, also known as **Tyrosinemia type II**, is characterized by the classic triad of **painful hyperkeratotic plaques** on the palms and soles (cutaneous features), **corneal ulcers** or **dendritic keratitis** (ocular features), and **variable neurological involvement**. - These features arise from the accumulation of **tyrosine** due to a deficiency of the enzyme **hepatic tyrosine aminotransferase (TAT)**. - The **ocular and cutaneous manifestations** are the hallmark features that define this syndrome. *Autosomal dominant* - Richner-Hanhart syndrome is inherited in an **autosomal recessive** pattern, meaning two copies of the defective gene (TAT gene on chromosome 16) are required for the condition to manifest. - An **autosomal dominant** inheritance pattern would mean only one copy of the defective gene is sufficient to cause the disorder. *Associated with abnormality in lipid metabolism* - The syndrome is an inborn error of **amino acid metabolism**, specifically involving **tyrosine**, not lipid metabolism. - Diseases associated with abnormality in **lipid metabolism** include conditions like Gaucher disease, Niemann-Pick disease, or Fabry disease. *Never associated with neurological involvement* - This is **incorrect**. **Neurological involvement** including intellectual disability, developmental delay, seizures, and behavioral problems occurs in **30-50% of cases**. - The accumulation of **tyrosine** and its metabolites (particularly tyrosine crystals) can be **neurotoxic**, leading to varying degrees of neurological impairment. - Early dietary restriction of tyrosine and phenylalanine can prevent or minimize neurological complications.
Internal Medicine
2 questionsWhat is the initial treatment of choice for managing secondary hyperparathyroidism in patients with renal osteodystrophy?
What is the most reliable diagnostic tool to differentiate between psychological and organic erectile dysfunction?
NEET-PG 2012 - Internal Medicine NEET-PG Practice Questions and MCQs
Question 891: What is the initial treatment of choice for managing secondary hyperparathyroidism in patients with renal osteodystrophy?
- A. Cinacalcet
- B. Bisphosphonates
- C. Calcium restriction
- D. Phosphate binders (Correct Answer)
Explanation: ***Phosphate binders*** - **Phosphate binders** are the initial treatment because **hyperphosphatemia** is the primary driver of secondary hyperparathyroidism in renal disease, triggering parathyroid hormone (PTH) release [1]. - They work by binding dietary phosphate in the gastrointestinal tract, preventing its absorption and thus lowering serum phosphate levels [1]. *Cinacalcet* - **Cinacalcet** is a calcimimetic that increases the sensitivity of calcium-sensing receptors on the parathyroid gland, reducing **PTH secretion** [1]. - It is often used if **phosphate binders** and **vitamin D analogs** are insufficient in controlling PTH, making it a second-line treatment [1]. *Bisphosphonates* - **Bisphosphonates** are used to treat osteoporosis by inhibiting osteoclast activity and reducing bone resorption. - They are generally contraindicated in advanced renal osteodystrophy due to concerns about adynamic bone disease and are not an initial treatment for **secondary hyperparathyroidism**. *Calcium restriction* - While restricting dietary calcium might seem intuitive, **hypocalcemia** is often a problem in renal disease due to impaired vitamin D activation [1]. - Overly restricting calcium can worsen hypocalcemia, which would further stimulate PTH release, thus it is not an initial treatment for **secondary hyperparathyroidism**.
Question 892: What is the most reliable diagnostic tool to differentiate between psychological and organic erectile dysfunction?
- A. Nocturnal penile tumescence (Correct Answer)
- B. PIPE therapy
- C. Sildenafil induced erection
- D. Squeeze technique
Explanation: ***Nocturnal penile tumescence*** - This diagnostic tool assesses whether a man experiences erections during sleep, which are naturally occurring physiological events. The presence of normal nocturnal erections indicates intact **neurovascular pathways** necessary for erection, suggesting that any daytime erectile dysfunction is likely due to **psychological factors** [2]. - Conversely, the absence of nocturnal erections points towards an **organic cause** for erectile dysfunction, as the physiological mechanism itself is impaired [1]. *Squeeze technique* - The squeeze technique is a behavioral therapy used to treat **premature ejaculation**, not erectile dysfunction. It involves stopping stimulation at the point of impending ejaculation and applying pressure to the glans to reduce arousal. - This technique does not provide any diagnostic information regarding the underlying cause (psychological vs. organic) of erectile dysfunction. *Sildenafil induced erection* - While sildenafil (Viagra) can induce an erection in many men with erectile dysfunction, its response does not reliably differentiate between psychological and organic causes. Sildenafil works by enhancing the effects of **nitric oxide**, leading to increased blood flow to the penis. - Both men with psychological erectile dysfunction and some with organic causes (e.g., mild vascular compromise) may respond to sildenafil, so a positive response does not rule out an **organic etiology**. *PIPE therapy* - "PIPE therapy" is not a recognized medical or diagnostic term for erectile dysfunction. It may be a typo or a misnomer. - Therefore, it does not serve as a diagnostic tool for differentiating between psychological and organic causes of erectile dysfunction.
Orthopaedics
1 questionsWhat condition is primarily diagnosed using Von Rosen's view?
NEET-PG 2012 - Orthopaedics NEET-PG Practice Questions and MCQs
Question 891: What condition is primarily diagnosed using Von Rosen's view?
- A. Congenital dislocation of the hip (CDH) (Correct Answer)
- B. Perthes disease
- C. Congenital Talipes Equinovarus (CTEV)
- D. None of the options
Explanation: ***Congenital dislocation of the hip (CDH)*** - **Von Rosen's view** is a specialized X-ray projection used specifically to assess for **developmental dysplasia of the hip (DDH)**, also known as CDH, in infants. - This view helps visualize the relationship between the **femoral head** and the **acetabulum** by positioning the infant's hips in extension, abduction, and internal rotation. *Perthes disease* - **Perthes disease** is an avascular necrosis of the femoral head, typically diagnosed with standard **frog-leg lateral** and **AP pelvic X-rays**. - While it affects the hip, Von Rosen's view is not the primary diagnostic imaging for this condition, which usually presents later in childhood. *Congenital Talipes Equinovarus (CTEV)* - **CTEV**, or **clubfoot**, is a deformity of the foot and ankle, not the hip. - It is primarily diagnosed clinically and then confirmed with **AP and lateral X-rays of the foot** to assess bone alignment. *None of the options* - This option is incorrect because **Congenital dislocation of the hip (CDH)** is indeed primarily diagnosed using Von Rosen's view, among other methods.
Psychiatry
3 questionsWhich of the following is NOT a characteristic feature of somatization disorder?
What is the term for a persistent preoccupation with serious illness despite having no or only mild symptoms?
Which of the following is not associated with subcortical dementia?
NEET-PG 2012 - Psychiatry NEET-PG Practice Questions and MCQs
Question 891: Which of the following is NOT a characteristic feature of somatization disorder?
- A. Absence of pseudo neurological symptoms
- B. Absence of pain symptoms
- C. Rejection of the sick role (Correct Answer)
- D. Lack of sexual symptoms
Explanation: ***Rejection of the sick role*** - Patients with somatization disorder (now classified under **somatic symptom disorder** in DSM-5) characteristically **embrace the sick role**, not reject it - They actively seek medical attention, present with multiple chronic physical symptoms, express significant distress, and often become preoccupied with their perceived illnesses - This adoption of the sick role is a key behavioral pattern distinguishing somatization disorder from malingering or factitious disorder *Absence of pseudo-neurological symptoms* - This is incorrect because **pseudo-neurological (conversion) symptoms** are characteristic features of somatization disorder - Examples include paralysis, blindness, seizures, sensory loss, aphonia, and loss of coordination - These symptoms resemble neurological conditions but lack organic pathology *Absence of pain symptoms* - This is incorrect because **pain symptoms** are among the most common presentations in somatization disorder - Patients typically report pain in multiple sites: headaches, back pain, joint pain, chest pain, abdominal pain - Pain complaints are often one of the primary reasons these patients seek medical care *Lack of sexual symptoms* - This is incorrect because **sexual and reproductive symptoms** are frequently reported in somatization disorder - Examples include sexual indifference, erectile dysfunction, dyspareunia, irregular menses, excessive menstrual bleeding, and vomiting throughout pregnancy - These contribute to the widespread and varied somatic complaints characteristic of the disorder
Question 892: What is the term for a persistent preoccupation with serious illness despite having no or only mild symptoms?
- A. Somatic symptom disorder
- B. Conversion disorder
- C. Body dysmorphic disorder
- D. Illness anxiety disorder (Correct Answer)
Explanation: ***Illness anxiety disorder*** - This condition is characterized by a **preoccupation with having or acquiring a serious illness** despite having few or no somatic symptoms. - Individuals with illness anxiety disorder engage in **excessive health-related behaviors** (e.g., repeated checking) or maladaptive avoidance (e.g., avoiding doctor appointments). *Somatic symptom disorder* - Involves **distressing somatic symptoms** that result in significant disruption of daily life, with excessive thoughts or behaviors related to the symptoms. - The focus is on the **symptoms themselves**, rather than the fear of a specific undiagnosed illness. *Conversion disorder* - Features neurological symptoms (e.g., weakness, paralysis, seizures) that are **incompatible with recognized neurological or medical conditions**. - There is a **lack of voluntary control** over the symptoms, and they are not intentionally feigned. *Body dysmorphic disorder* - Characterized by a **preoccupation with perceived flaws** or defects in physical appearance that are not observable or appear slight to others. - This preoccupation leads to **repetitive behaviors** (e.g., mirror checking) or mental acts (e.g., comparing oneself to others).
Question 893: Which of the following is not associated with subcortical dementia?
- A. Wilson's disease
- B. Alzheimer's disease (Correct Answer)
- C. Huntington's chorea
- D. Parkinsonism
Explanation: ***Alzheimer's disease*** - Alzheimer's disease is primarily a **cortical dementia**, characterized by global cognitive decline, specifically affecting memory, language, and executive functions. - It involves the accumulation of **amyloid plaques** and **neurofibrillary tangles** predominantly in the cerebral cortex. *Parkinsonism* - Parkinsonism, particularly Parkinson's disease dementia, is a common cause of **subcortical dementia**. - It presents with prominent **motor symptoms** (bradykinesia, rigidity, tremor) along with cognitive impairment affecting executive function and attention. *Wilson's disease* - Wilson's disease is a genetic disorder leading to **copper accumulation**, which can cause significant damage to the basal ganglia and other subcortical structures. - This often results in a **subcortical dementia** characterized by motor symptoms, psychiatric disturbances, and cognitive decline. *Huntington's chorea* - Huntington's chorea is a neurodegenerative genetic disorder primarily affecting the **basal ganglia**, a key subcortical structure. - It is a classic example of **subcortical dementia**, presenting with characteristic choreiform movements, psychiatric disturbances, and cognitive impairment.
Radiology
1 questionsInvestigation of choice for studying Renal Cortical mass
NEET-PG 2012 - Radiology NEET-PG Practice Questions and MCQs
Question 891: Investigation of choice for studying Renal Cortical mass
- A. 99mTc DTPA
- B. 53Cr Study
- C. 99mTc DMSA (Correct Answer)
- D. 99mTc Pyrophosphate
Explanation: ***99mTc DMSA*** - **99mTc DMSA** (Technetium-99m dimercaptosuccinic acid) is the radiopharmaceutical of choice for imaging the **renal cortex** and assessing **renal cortical mass** and scarring. - It binds preferentially to the cells of the **renal tubules**, allowing for excellent visualization of cortical tissue. *99mTc DTPA* - **99mTc DTPA** (Technetium-99m Diethylenetriaminepentaacetic acid) is primarily used to assess **glomerular filtration rate (GFR)** and renal blood flow. - It is filtered by the **glomeruli** but not reabsorbed or secreted by the tubules, making it suitable for functional studies rather than morphological assessment of cortical mass. *53Cr Study* - **53Cr** (Chromium-51) is used in studies to measure **red blood cell mass**, survival, or gastrointestinal protein loss. - It has no role in the direct assessment of **renal cortical mass** or function. *99mTc Pyrophosphate* - **99mTc Pyrophosphate** is primarily used to evaluate **myocardial infarction** (hot spots) or detect bone lesions. - It is not indicated for, nor does it provide useful information about, **renal cortical mass**.