Anatomy
1 questionsWhich nerve is primarily involved in cubital tunnel syndrome?
NEET-PG 2012 - Anatomy NEET-PG Practice Questions and MCQs
Question 841: Which nerve is primarily involved in cubital tunnel syndrome?
- A. Radial nerve
- B. Ulnar nerve (Correct Answer)
- C. Median nerve
- D. Axillary nerve
Explanation: Ulnar nerve - **Cubital tunnel syndrome** is a condition caused by compression of the **ulnar nerve** as it passes through the cubital tunnel at the medial epicondyle of the elbow. - Symptoms typically include numbness and tingling in the **little finger** and **half of the ring finger**, along with weakness of intrinsic hand muscles [2]. *Radial nerve* - The **radial nerve** is primarily involved in conditions like **radial tunnel syndrome** or radial nerve palsy (**wrist drop**), affecting primarily extensor muscles of the forearm and hand. - Its compression site is typically in the **radial tunnel** near the elbow, distinct from the cubital tunnel. *Median nerve* - The **median nerve** is involved in **carpal tunnel syndrome** at the wrist, causing numbness and tingling in the thumb, index, middle, and radial half of the ring finger [2]. - Compression around the elbow (e.g., pronator teres syndrome) can also affect the median nerve, but this is less common than cubital tunnel syndrome [1]. *Axillary nerve* - The **axillary nerve** is responsible for sensation over the deltoid region and motor function of the deltoid and teres minor muscles. - It is often injured with **shoulder dislocations** or fractures of the surgical neck of the humerus, unrelated to cubital tunnel syndrome.
Internal Medicine
1 questionsWhich of the following conditions is most commonly associated with resorption of the distal phalanx?
NEET-PG 2012 - Internal Medicine NEET-PG Practice Questions and MCQs
Question 841: Which of the following conditions is most commonly associated with resorption of the distal phalanx?
- A. Scleroderma (Correct Answer)
- B. Hyperparathyroidism
- C. Reiter's syndrome
- D. Osteitis deformans (Paget's disease)
Explanation: ***Scleroderma*** - **Scleroderma** (systemic sclerosis) can cause characteristic changes in the distal phalanges, specifically **acro-osteolysis**, leading to resorption of the **distal tufts** [1]. - This is often associated with **Raynaud's phenomenon**, **digital ischemia**, and **calcinosis**, leading to severe circulatory compromise in the digits [1]. *Hyperparathyroidism* - **Primary hyperparathyroidism** causes bone resorption due to increased parathyroid hormone, primarily affecting the **subperiosteal bone** (especially in the radial aspect of the middle phalanges), leading to a "lace-like" appearance on X-ray. - While it causes bone resorption, **distal phalanx tuft resorption** is not its most common or prominent skeletal feature compared to scleroderma. *Reiter's syndrome* - **Reiter's syndrome** (now known as reactive arthritis) is an inflammatory arthropathy usually involving large joints of the lower extremities in an **asymmetric** pattern. - It does not typically cause **resorption of the distal phalanx**; instead, it's associated with enthesitis, dactylitis, and periostitis. *Osteitis deformans (Paget's disease)* - **Paget's disease** is characterized by abnormal bone remodeling, leading to enlarged, deformed bones that are prone to fracture, predominantly affecting the **pelvis, spine, skull, and long bones**. - It causes areas of localized bone destruction and excessive bone formation, but **distal phalanx resorption** is not a feature of this condition.
Obstetrics and Gynecology
5 questions6 year old son of pregnant woman is suffering from chicken pox. Which of the following is given to pregnant woman?
Tdap vaccine is given in between which weeks of pregnancy?
A 35 year old female with history of repeated D&C now has secondary amenorrhea. What is your diagnosis?
What is the definitive management for adenomyosis?
Gold standard technique for diagnosis of endometriosis?
NEET-PG 2012 - Obstetrics and Gynecology NEET-PG Practice Questions and MCQs
Question 841: 6 year old son of pregnant woman is suffering from chicken pox. Which of the following is given to pregnant woman?
- A. Acyclovir + immunoglobulin
- B. Only immunoglobulin (Correct Answer)
- C. Vaccination
- D. Acyclovir
Explanation: ***Only immunoglobulin*** - Giving **immunoglobulin** to a pregnant woman exposed to **chickenpox** provides immediate passive immunity, which is crucial as she is at risk of infection from her child. - This is particularly important because chickenpox during pregnancy can lead to severe maternal disease and congenital varicella syndrome in the fetus. *Acyclovir + immunoglobulin* - **Acyclovir** is an antiviral that treats active varicella infection but is not typically given prophylactically in combination with immunoglobulin for exposure unless the woman is already immunocompromised or develops symptoms. - The primary goal for exposed pregnant women is preventing infection through passive immunity, not immediately treating a potential infection. *Vaccination* - **Varicella vaccine** is a live attenuated vaccine and is **contraindicated** during pregnancy due to the theoretical risk of fetal infection. - It is used for pre-conception immunity or post-exposure prophylaxis in non-pregnant individuals if given within a short window, but not for pregnant women. *Acyclovir* - **Acyclovir** is an antiviral medicine used to treat active chickenpox infections, not to prevent infection immediately after exposure. - It would be considered if the pregnant woman develops symptoms of chickenpox, but not as a primary prophylactic measure in this scenario.
Question 842: Tdap vaccine is given in between which weeks of pregnancy?
- A. 10-16 weeks
- B. 17-22 weeks
- C. 22-26 weeks
- D. 27-36 weeks (Correct Answer)
Explanation: ***27-36 weeks*** - The **Tdap vaccine** is recommended during this window in **every pregnancy** to maximize the transfer of **maternal antibodies** to the fetus. - This timing provides effective protection against **pertussis (whooping cough)** for the newborn from birth until their own vaccinations begin. *10-16 weeks* - This period is generally too early for optimal **passive immunity transfer** to the fetus against pertussis. - While other vaccines might be considered, **Tdap is specifically timed later** for maximum antibody benefit. *17-22 weeks* - This window is also typically considered too early for the Tdap vaccine to provide the **highest level of antibody transfer** to the newborn. - The goal is to administer the vaccine when **maternal antibody levels peak closer to delivery**. *22-26 weeks* - While closer to the recommended timeframe, this still falls slightly outside the **optimal window (27-36 weeks)** for the Tdap vaccine. - Delaying slightly longer ensures **peak antibody levels** for the longest possible passive immunity.
Question 843: A 35 year old female with history of repeated D&C now has secondary amenorrhea. What is your diagnosis?
- A. Asherman's syndrome (Correct Answer)
- B. Hypothyroidism
- C. Kallman syndrome
- D. Sheehan's syndrome
Explanation: ***Asherman's syndrome*** - This syndrome is characterized by the formation of **intrauterine adhesions** or scar tissue following uterine trauma, often from repeated **Dilation and Curettage (D&C)** procedures. - The adhesions can prevent the normal growth and shedding of the **endometrial lining**, leading to **secondary amenorrhea** and infertility. *Hypothyroidism* - While hypothyroidism can cause menstrual irregularities, including **amenorrhea**, it would not typically be linked to a history of **repeated D&C procedures**. - The mechanism involves **hormonal imbalances** (e.g., elevated **TRH leading to elevated prolactin**), not scarring of the uterus. *Kallman syndrome* - This is a rare genetic condition causing **hypogonadotropic hypogonadism** and **anosmia** (loss of smell), leading to **primary amenorrhea**. - It does not involve uterine scarring and is not associated with D&C procedures or **secondary amenorrhea**. *Sheehan's syndrome* - Sheehan's syndrome is **postpartum hypopituitarism** caused by **ischemic necrosis of the pituitary gland** after severe hemorrhage during or after childbirth. - It would present with symptoms like **lactation failure** and could cause **secondary amenorrhea**, but it is not related to repeated D&C procedures.
Question 844: What is the definitive management for adenomyosis?
- A. Endometrial ablation.
- B. Hysterectomy (surgical removal of the uterus). (Correct Answer)
- C. Hormonal therapy (e.g., Danazol) for temporary symptom relief.
- D. Hormonal therapy (e.g., GnRH analogue) for temporary symptom relief.
Explanation: ***Hysterectomy (surgical removal of the uterus)*** - This is considered the **definitive management** for adenomyosis because it completely removes the uterine tissue where the ectopic endometrial glands are found. - Hysterectomy effectively eliminates the source of symptoms such as **heavy menstrual bleeding** and **pelvic pain** by removing the uterus entirely. *Endometrial ablation* - Endometrial ablation involves destroying the **lining of the uterus** and is primarily used for heavy menstrual bleeding. - It is **ineffective for adenomyosis** since the endometrial tissue is embedded deep within the myometrium and is not fully reached by ablation. *Hormonal therapy (e.g., Danazol) for temporary symptom relief* - **Danazol** (an androgen derivative) can suppress ovarian function and reduce symptoms of adenomyosis by shrinking endometrial tissue. - However, its effects are **temporary**, and symptoms typically return upon cessation of treatment, making it not a definitive solution. *Hormonal therapy (e.g., GNRH analogue) for temporary symptom relief* - **GnRH analogues** induce a temporary menopausal state, which can significantly reduce symptoms by inhibiting estrogen production, leading to atrophy of the adenomyotic tissue. - This treatment is also **temporary**, and symptoms often recur once the medication is stopped; it's often used as a bridge to surgery or for women nearing menopause.
Question 845: Gold standard technique for diagnosis of endometriosis?
- A. Ca 125 level
- B. Ultrasound
- C. MRI
- D. Laparoscopy (Correct Answer)
Explanation: ***Laparoscopy*** - **Laparoscopy** allows for direct visualization of endometrial implants and enables **biopsy confirmation**, making it the gold standard. - This minimally invasive surgical procedure is crucial for diagnosing, staging, and often treating endometriosis simultaneously. *Ca 125 level* - **CA-125** is a serum marker that can be elevated in endometriosis, but it is **not specific** and can be raised in other conditions like ovarian cancer or physiologic states. - It is primarily used for monitoring treatment response or recurrence, rather than as a primary diagnostic tool. *Ultrasound* - **Transvaginal ultrasound (TVS)** can identify endometriomas (chocolate cysts) and deep infiltrating endometriosis, but it cannot reliably visualize small peritoneal implants. - While it's a good initial imaging modality, its sensitivity for diagnosing all forms of endometriosis is **limited**. *MRI* - **MRI** offers better soft tissue contrast than ultrasound and can identify deep infiltrating endometriosis and some peritoneal implants, especially those involving the bowel or bladder. - However, MRI is **more expensive** and less accessible, and it still cannot definitively rule out all small, superficial endometrial lesions without direct visualization.
Orthopaedics
1 questionsCloacae are openings found in which of the following?
NEET-PG 2012 - Orthopaedics NEET-PG Practice Questions and MCQs
Question 841: Cloacae are openings found in which of the following?
- A. Sequestrum
- B. Involucrum (Correct Answer)
- C. Normal bone
- D. Myositis
Explanation: ***Involucrum*** - **Cloacae** are openings or sinuses that develop in the **involucrum**, which is the new bone formation that surrounds a segment of necrotic bone (sequestrum) during osteomyelitis. - These openings act as channels for the discharge of **pus** and inflammatory debris from the infected bone to the external environment. *Sequestrum* - A **sequestrum** is a piece of **necrotic (dead) bone** that has become separated from the surrounding healthy bone due to osteomyelitis. - While central to the pathology, the cloacae are openings *through the involucrum* that encases the sequestrum, not in the sequestrum itself. *Normal bone* - **Normal bone** does not contain cloacae; these structures are a pathological feature indicative of chronic osteomyelitis. - Healthy bone remodels and resorbs normally, without the formation of channels for pus drainage. *Myositis* - **Myositis** is an inflammation of the **muscles**, not bone, and does not involve the formation of cloacae. - While it can be caused by infection, the pathological changes are localized to muscle tissue.
Pathology
2 questionsWhat is the most common type of degeneration observed in uterine fibroids?
Sequestrum is best defined as
NEET-PG 2012 - Pathology NEET-PG Practice Questions and MCQs
Question 841: What is the most common type of degeneration observed in uterine fibroids?
- A. Calcareous
- B. Hyaline (Correct Answer)
- C. Red
- D. Cystic
Explanation: ***Hyaline*** - **Hyaline degeneration** is the most frequent type of degeneration in uterine fibroids, occurring in about **60% of cases** [1]. - It involves the replacement of smooth muscle and connective tissue with **acellular, glassy, eosinophilic hyaline material** [1]. *Calcareous* - **Calcareous degeneration** (calcification) occurs when hyaline degeneration calcifies, typically seen in **postmenopausal women** or older fibroids. - While it can occur, it is a **secondary change** following hyaline degeneration rather than the primary and most common form. *Red* - **Red degeneration** (carneous degeneration) is acute, often occurring during **pregnancy** due to rapid growth and hemorrhagic infarction. - It presents with **acute pain** and is less common than hyaline degeneration. *Cystic* - **Cystic degeneration** is characterized by liquefaction within the fibroid, leading to the formation of **cysts**. - This typically results from advanced **hyaline degeneration** and is less common than hyaline degeneration itself. **References:** [1] Kumar V, Abbas AK, et al.. Robbins and Cotran Pathologic Basis of Disease. 9th ed. The Female Genital Tract, pp. 1024-1025.
Question 842: Sequestrum is best defined as
- A. A piece of dead bone surrounded by infected tissue (Correct Answer)
- B. A piece of dead bone without surrounding infection
- C. A piece of bone with compromised blood supply
- D. None of the options
Explanation: ***A piece of dead bone surrounded by infected tissue*** * A sequestrum is a fragment of **necrotic (dead) bone** that has become separated from the surrounding living bone in the context of **chronic osteomyelitis**. * The dead bone is typically surrounded by **infected granulation tissue and pus**, making it the classic definition taught in the context of bone infections. * The sequestrum acts as a **nidus for persistent infection**, as antibiotics cannot penetrate the avascular dead bone, making surgical removal often necessary. *A piece of dead bone without surrounding infection* * While a sequestrum is fundamentally dead bone, in clinical practice and standard teaching, it is **intrinsically associated with infection** in osteomyelitis. * The phrase "without surrounding infection" makes this option incorrect, as the classic sequestrum occurs in the **inflammatory milieu of chronic osteomyelitis**. *A piece of bone with compromised blood supply* * This describes **ischemic or avascular bone**, which is the **initial pathological event** that leads to bone death. * However, this is not the definition of sequestrum itself—the sequestrum is the **end result** (dead bone fragment) rather than bone with compromised vascularity. * A sequestrum has **no blood supply** (completely avascular), not merely compromised supply. *None of the options* * This is incorrect because the first option accurately captures the **standard definition of sequestrum** as taught in the context of chronic osteomyelitis in medical education.