NEET-PG 2012 Practice Questions

Q: Which of the following is NOT a contraindication for spinal anaesthesia?

Hypertension. ***Hypertension*** - While **severe uncontrolled hypertension** may necessitate blood pressure stabilization before surgery, **mild to moderate hypertension** is not an absolute contraindication for spinal anesthesia. - In fact, spinal anesthesia can sometimes be beneficial in hypertensive patients due to its **vasodilatory effects**, which may help lower blood pressure. *Bleeding disorder* - A **bleeding disorder** (e.g., thrombocytopenia, coagulopathy) is a **major contraindication** due to the high risk of **epidural or spinal hematoma** formation. - A hematoma can lead to **spinal cord compression** and irreversible neurological damage. *Raised intracranial tension* - **Raised intracranial tension (ICT)** is a **strict contraindication** because the drop in cerebrospinal fluid (CSF) pressure during spinal anesthesia can worsen the pressure gradient across the foramen magnum. - This can precipitate **herniation of the brainstem** and lead to catastrophic neurological injury or death. *Infection at injection site* - The presence of an **infection at the injection site** is an absolute contraindication as it poses a significant risk of introducing bacteria into the **subarachnoid space**. - This can lead to serious complications such as **meningitis** or a **spinal abscess**.

Q: Which of the following is associated with macrosomia?

Gestational diabetes mellitus. ***Gestational diabetes mellitus*** - **Gestational diabetes mellitus (GDM)** is a common cause of macrosomia because high maternal glucose levels lead to increased fetal insulin production, which promotes growth and fat deposition. - The **hyperglycemic environment** in GDM stimulates fetal overgrowth, resulting in larger-than-average babies. *Hypothyroidism* - **Maternal hypothyroidism** is typically associated with **fetal growth restriction** and lower birth weight, not macrosomia. - Undiagnosed or poorly controlled hypothyroidism can lead to complications such as **preterm labor** and **preeclampsia**, but not increased fetal size. *None of the options* - This option is incorrect because **gestational diabetes mellitus** is directly associated with macrosomia. - There is a clear and well-documented link between maternal hyperglycemia and increased fetal growth. *Maternal anemia* - **Maternal anemia**, especially severe anemia, is generally associated with an **increased risk of fetal growth restriction** and **low birth weight**. - Anemia limits oxygen and nutrient delivery to the fetus, thereby hindering optimal growth.

Q: What is a Pulled Elbow?

Partial dislocation of the radial head. ***Partial dislocation of the radial head*** - A pulled elbow, also known as **nursemaid's elbow**, specifically refers to a **subluxation of the radial head** from the annular ligament. - This injury typically occurs in young children when their arm is suddenly pulled or jerked, causing the **radial head** to slip out of the **annular ligament**. *Complete separation of the elbow joint* - A complete separation of the elbow joint would involve a **full dislocation** of the humeroulnar or humeroradial joints, a much more severe injury than a pulled elbow. - This would present with more significant deformity and instability compared to the subtle presentation of a pulled elbow. *Subluxation of proximal radio ulnar joint* - While the injury involves the radius and ulna, the specific subluxation in a pulled elbow is that of the **radial head** at the **humero-radial joint**, not primarily the proximal radio-ulnar joint itself. - The focus is on the annular ligament's integrity around the radial head, rather than direct forces acting on the proximal radio-ulnar articulation. *No injury present* - A pulled elbow is a recognized and common **pediatric orthopedic injury** requiring intervention to reduce the radial head. - The child will typically present with pain, refusal to use the affected arm, and a characteristic holding posture.

Q: Proximal humerus fracture which has maximum chances of avascular necrosis

Four part. ***Four part fracture*** - A **four-part proximal humerus fracture** typically involves displacement of the humeral head, greater tuberosity, lesser tuberosity, and humeral shaft. - This extensive displacement significantly disrupts the **blood supply** to the humeral head, specifically the **arcuate artery** and its branches, leading to a high risk of **avascular necrosis**. *One part fracture* - A **one-part fracture** indicates that the fracture fragments are minimally displaced (<1 cm or <45° angulation). - The **blood supply** to the humeral head remains largely intact, resulting in a very low risk of avascular necrosis. *Two part fracture* - A **two-part fracture** involves displacement of one major fragment (e.g., surgical neck or tuberosity) from the humeral head. - While there is some disruption, the overall risk of **avascular necrosis** is lower compared to more complex fractures. *Three part fracture* - A **three-part fracture** involves separate displacement of the humeral head and two tuberosities. - This fracture pattern causes more significant disruption to the **vascularity** of the humeral head than two-part fractures but generally less than four-part fractures.

Q: What is the recommended rate for blood transfusion in neonates?

1-5 ml/min. ***1-5 ml/min*** - The recommended rate for blood transfusion in neonates is **1-5 ml/min** to prevent **circulatory overload** and other complications. - Slower rates are crucial for neonates due to their limited cardiovascular reserves and smaller blood volume. *5-10 ml/min* - This rate is generally **too fast** for routine neonatal blood transfusions, increasing the risk of **fluid overload** and **cardiac strain**. - Rapid administration can lead to complications such as **necrotizing enterocolitis (NEC)** or **respiratory distress**. *10-15 ml/min* - Administering blood at this rate in neonates is **contraindicated** due to the high risk of **cardiovascular compromise**. - It could quickly overwhelm the neonate's circulatory system, leading to severe adverse events. *15-20 ml/min* - This rate is significantly **too rapid** for any neonatal blood transfusion and would almost certainly result in **severe volume overload** and potential cardiac arrest. - Such high rates are only rarely considered in extreme emergency situations, like massive hemorrhage with specific considerations and monitoring.

Q: Upper segment to lower segment ratio in a 3-year-old child is:

1.3:1. ***1.3:1*** - At birth, the upper segment to lower segment ratio is around **1.7:1**, indicating proportionally longer trunks. - By the age of **3 years**, this ratio typically decreases to approximately **1.3:1** as the lower limbs grow more rapidly. *1.2:1* - This ratio is typically observed in **older children** or young adults, as lower limb growth catches up further. - A ratio of 1.2:1 would suggest more **proportional body segments** than expected for a 3-year-old child. *1.4:1* - This ratio is closer to that of a **younger infant** or toddler, as the lower segments are still relatively shorter. - A 3-year-old would generally have experienced more **lower limb growth**, reducing this ratio further. *1.6:1* - This ratio is characteristic of a **newborn or very young infant**, where the upper body and head are significantly larger relative to the legs. - It would be **abnormal** for a 3-year-old to still have such a high ratio, indicating a disproportional growth pattern.

Q: Which of the following is a first-line treatment for bipolar affective (manic-depressive) disorder:

Lithium carbonate. **Lithium carbonate** - **Lithium** is a well-established and highly effective **mood stabilizer**, considered a first-line treatment for managing both **manic** and **depressive episodes** in bipolar disorder. - It helps prevent recurrent episodes and reduces the severity of mood swings, acting as a prophylactic agent. *Chlorpromazine* - **Chlorpromazine** is a **first-generation antipsychotic** that is primarily used to treat **schizophrenia** and other psychotic disorders. - While it can be used acutely to manage severe manic agitation, it is not a first-line agent for the long-term mood stabilization characteristic of bipolar disorder. *Haloperidol* - **Haloperidol** is another **first-generation antipsychotic** often used for acute treatment of **psychotic symptoms** or severe agitation, including in mania. - It is not a primary long-term mood stabilizer for bipolar disorder due to its side effect profile and lack of efficacy in preventing future mood episodes compared to lithium. *Diazepam* - **Diazepam** is a **benzodiazepine** primarily used for treating **anxiety**, muscle spasms, and acute seizures. - While it can help manage acute agitation and insomnia during a manic episode, it does not have mood-stabilizing properties and is not a long-term treatment for bipolar disorder.

Q: Which of the following conditions is least likely to cause posterior scalloping of the vertebrae?

Aortic aneurysm. ***Aortic aneurysm*** - An **aortic aneurysm** is located **anterior to the vertebral column** and primarily affects the anterior aspect of the vertebral bodies, causing **anterior scalloping** due to chronic pulsatile erosion, not posterior scalloping. - Posterior scalloping requires intraspinal pathology that expands the spinal canal from within; an aortic aneurysm is extraspinal and anterior, making it the **least likely** cause of posterior scalloping. *Neurofibromatosis* - **Neurofibromatosis** commonly causes posterior vertebral scalloping due to **dural ectasia** (widening of the dural sac) and pressure erosion from expanding neurofibromas within the spinal canal. - This condition is also associated with paraspinal masses, posterior vertebral body erosion, and scoliosis. *Astrocytoma* - An **intramedullary astrocytoma** within the spinal cord can lead to expansion of the cord that causes chronic pressure on the posterior vertebral bodies from within the spinal canal. - This slow-growing intraspinal tumor gradually remodels the bone, causing posterior scalloping. *Ependymoma* - Similar to astrocytoma, an **intramedullary ependymoma** (the most common primary intramedullary tumor in adults) can enlarge the spinal cord, leading to pressure erosion on the posterior vertebral bodies. - This is a characteristic feature of slowly growing intraspinal masses, which cause remodeling of the bony spinal canal.

Q: The most appropriate first-line imaging modality to detect adrenal metastasis due to bronchogenic carcinoma is:

Contrast Enhanced CT abdomen. **Contrast Enhanced CT abdomen** - **Contrast-enhanced CT abdomen** is generally considered the most sensitive and cost-effective imaging modality for detecting **adrenal metastases**. - It allows for detailed visualization of adrenal gland morphology, including size, shape, and enhancement patterns, which can help differentiate benign from malignant lesions. *PET scan* - While **PET (Positron Emission Tomography) scans** are highly sensitive for detecting metabolically active metastatic disease, they are often used as a secondary imaging modality to characterize indeterminate lesions found on CT or MRI. - **PET scans** can have false positives in benign adrenal tumors (e.g., adenomas rich in fat) and are less readily available or higher in cost for initial screening compared to CT. *MRI of the abdomen* - **MRI of the abdomen** can be very useful for further characterization of adrenal masses, especially for distinguishing between lipid-rich adenomas and metastases. - However, for initial detection, especially in the context of screening for distant metastases from bronchogenic carcinoma, **CT is generally preferred due to its wider availability, speed, and lower cost**. *Adrenal radionuclide scan* - **Adrenal radionuclide scans** (e.g., using MIBG or iodocholesterol) are primarily used for functional imaging of adrenal glands, typically to detect specific types of tumors like pheochromocytomas or aldosteronomas. - These scans are **not sensitive for detecting adrenal metastases** from bronchogenic carcinoma, as the metastatic lesions do not typically exhibit the specific uptake patterns targeted by these radiotracers.

Q: In Congenital Diaphragmatic Hernia (CDH), the most commonly associated anomaly affects the

Congenital heart defects. ***Congenital heart defects*** - **Congenital diaphragmatic hernia (CDH)** is frequently associated with other congenital anomalies. - **Cardiac malformations** are the most common co-occurring defects, affecting a significant proportion of CDH patients. *Anomalies of the urinary tract* - While **urogenital anomalies** can occur with CDH, they are less prevalent than congenital heart defects. - These typically include conditions like **renal agenesis** or **hydronephrosis**. *Anomalies of the skull* - **Skull anomalies** are not a primary or common association with congenital diaphragmatic hernia. - Genetic syndromes associated with both CDH and skull anomalies are relatively rare. *Craniofacial anomalies* - **Craniofacial anomalies**, such as **cleft lip/palate**, can occur with CDH but are less common than cardiac anomalies. - These are often seen within the context of specific genetic syndromes.

Question 1

Which of the following is NOT a contraindication for spinal anaesthesia?

Accepted Answer

Hypertension

Answer

Raised intracranial tension

Answer

Bleeding disorder

Answer

Infection at injection site

Question 2

Which of the following is associated with macrosomia?

Accepted Answer

Gestational diabetes mellitus

Answer

None of the options

Answer

Hypothyroidism

Answer

Maternal anemia

Question 3

What is a Pulled Elbow?

Accepted Answer

Partial dislocation of the radial head

Answer

Subluxation of proximal radio ulnar joint

Answer

Complete separation of the elbow joint

Answer

No injury present

Question 4

Proximal humerus fracture which has maximum chances of avascular necrosis

Accepted Answer

Four part

Answer

One part

Answer

Two part

Answer

Three part

Question 5

What is the recommended rate for blood transfusion in neonates?

Accepted Answer

1-5 ml/min

Answer

10-15 ml/min

Answer

15-20 ml/min

Answer

5-10 ml/min

Question 6

Upper segment to lower segment ratio in a 3-year-old child is:

Accepted Answer

1.3:1

Answer

1.2:1

Answer

1.4:1

Answer

1.6:1

Question 7

Which of the following is a first-line treatment for bipolar affective (manic-depressive) disorder:

Accepted Answer

Lithium carbonate

Answer

Chlorpromazine

Answer

Haloperidol

Answer

Diazepam

Question 8

Which of the following conditions is least likely to cause posterior scalloping of the vertebrae?

Accepted Answer

Aortic aneurysm

Answer

Astrocytoma

Answer

Neurofibromatosis

Answer

Ependymoma

Question 9

The most appropriate first-line imaging modality to detect adrenal metastasis due to bronchogenic carcinoma is:

Accepted Answer

Contrast Enhanced CT abdomen

Answer

PET scan

Answer

MRI of the abdomen

Answer

Adrenal radionuclide scan

Question 10

In Congenital Diaphragmatic Hernia (CDH), the most commonly associated anomaly affects the

Accepted Answer

Congenital heart defects

Answer

Anomalies of the urinary tract

Answer

Anomalies of the skull

Answer

Craniofacial anomalies

NEET-PG 2012

Anesthesiology

Obstetrics and Gynecology

Orthopaedics

Pediatrics

Psychiatry

Radiology

Surgery