Anesthesiology
1 questionsWhat is the potential respiratory complication associated with the use of Trilene in combination with Sodalime?
NEET-PG 2012 - Anesthesiology NEET-PG Practice Questions and MCQs
Question 771: What is the potential respiratory complication associated with the use of Trilene in combination with Sodalime?
- A. Renal toxicity
- B. Hepatotoxicity
- C. Myocardial depression
- D. Airway irritation and inflammation (Correct Answer)
Explanation: ***Airway irritation and inflammation*** - The interaction between **Trilene (trichloroethylene)** and **soda lime** in a closed anesthetic circuit can produce **dichloroacetylene**. - **Dichloroacetylene** is a highly toxic compound that can cause severe airway irritation, inflammation, and even **necrosis** of the respiratory tract. *Renal toxicity* - While some halogenated anesthetics (e.g., methoxyflurane) are associated with **renal toxicity** due to fluoride ion release, this is not the primary or most severe respiratory complication of Trilene with soda lime. - The main concern with Trilene and soda lime is the formation of a **toxic airway irritant**. *Hepatotoxicity* - **Halothane** is more classically associated with **hepatotoxicity** (halothane hepatitis) due to metabolism into toxic intermediates. - **Trilene** itself is not primarily known for causing severe hepatotoxicity, and the interaction with soda lime does not specifically target the liver for toxicity. *Myocardial depression* - Many inhaled anesthetics, including Trilene, can cause some degree of **myocardial depression**. - However, this is a general effect of the anesthetic on cardiac function and is not a unique or specific complication arising from the **interaction with soda lime** that produces dichloroacetylene.
Community Medicine
1 questionsVector of scrub typhus in man?
NEET-PG 2012 - Community Medicine NEET-PG Practice Questions and MCQs
Question 771: Vector of scrub typhus in man?
- A. O. tsutsugamushi
- B. Leptotrombidium deliense (Correct Answer)
- C. Lice
- D. Pediculus humanus
Explanation: ***Leptotrombidium deliense*** - This is the **chigger mite** species primarily responsible for transmitting **scrub typhus** to humans. - **Larval mites (chiggers)** of this species feed on human skin and transmit the bacterium *Orientia tsutsugamushi*. *O. tsutsugamushi* - This is the **causative agent** of scrub typhus, not the vector. - It is a **rickettsial bacterium** transmitted by infected chiggers. *Lice* - **Lice** (e.g., *Pediculus humanus corporis*) are vectors for diseases like **epidemic typhus** (caused by *Rickettsia prowazekii*) and **relapsing fever**, but not scrub typhus. - They are **blood-sucking insects** distinct from mites. *Pediculus humanus* - This refers to **human lice**, specifically *Pediculus humanus capitis* (head louse) or *Pediculus humanus corporis* (body louse). - As mentioned, lice transmit diseases like epidemic typhus, not **scrub typhus**.
Forensic Medicine
1 questionsWhich of the following poisonings presents with abdominal pain, diarrhea, Mees lines on nails, and myelosuppression?
NEET-PG 2012 - Forensic Medicine NEET-PG Practice Questions and MCQs
Question 771: Which of the following poisonings presents with abdominal pain, diarrhea, Mees lines on nails, and myelosuppression?
- A. Lead
- B. Arsenic (Correct Answer)
- C. Alcohol
- D. Mercury
Explanation: ***Arsenic*** - **Arsenic poisoning** is characterized by gastrointestinal symptoms like severe **abdominal pain** and **diarrhea**, as well as dermatological signs such as **Mees lines** (transverse white bands on fingernails). - It also causes **myelosuppression**, leading to anemia, leukopenia, and thrombocytopenia, and can affect the cardiovascular and nervous systems. *Lead* - **Lead poisoning** typically presents with diffuse **abdominal pain** (lead colic), **constipation** (not diarrhea), and neurological symptoms like **foot drop** and **encephalopathy**. - While it can cause anemia due to impaired heme synthesis, **Mees lines** and significant myelosuppression are not primary features. *Alcohol* - **Alcohol intoxication** or chronic alcoholism primarily affects the central nervous system, liver, and pancreas, leading to symptoms like **ataxia**, **hepatitis**, and **pancreatitis**. - It does not cause **Mees lines** or the specific combination of severe gastrointestinal issues and myelosuppression seen with arsenic. *Mercury* - **Mercury poisoning** typically manifests with neurological symptoms (tremors, emotional lability, **peripheral neuropathy**), stomatitis, and renal dysfunction. - While it can cause gastrointestinal upset, **Mees lines** and **myelosuppression** are not characteristic features of mercury toxicity.
Pharmacology
7 questionsWhat is the primary cardiotoxic effect of bupivacaine?
Which of the following is a synthetic estrogen?
Which of the following medications does not interact with warfarin?
Long-term steroid ingestion leads to all of the following except:
Which of the following antibiotics is known to cause bleeding due to its effect on blood clotting?
All are true regarding Sunitinib except which of the following?
Which of the following is not a selective serotonin reuptake inhibitor?
NEET-PG 2012 - Pharmacology NEET-PG Practice Questions and MCQs
Question 771: What is the primary cardiotoxic effect of bupivacaine?
- A. Depressed pacemaker activity (Correct Answer)
- B. Toxic compound damaging myocardial cells
- C. Depressed neural control on heart
- D. Vascular thrombosis and Myocardial ischemia
Explanation: ***Depressed pacemaker activity*** - **Bupivacaine** is a potent **local anesthetic** that blocks voltage-gated **sodium channels** in myocardial cells with **high affinity** and **slow dissociation kinetics**. - This prolonged channel blockade leads to decreased cardiac excitability and **depressed automaticity** of pacemaker cells, particularly affecting the **SA node** and **His-Purkinje system**. - Results in slowing of the **heart rate**, **bradyarrhythmias**, **conduction blocks**, and potentially **ventricular arrhythmias** or **asystole**. - Bupivacaine is **more cardiotoxic** than other local anesthetics due to its **lipophilicity** and prolonged binding to cardiac sodium channels. *Toxic compound damaging myocardial cells* - While **bupivacaine** is cardiotoxic, its primary mechanism is not direct **cellular damage** through cytotoxic effects, oxidative stress, or cell membrane lysis. - The toxicity is predominantly due to **electrophysiological effects** on ion channels, interfering with normal cardiac conduction and contractility. *Depressed neural control on heart* - **Bupivacaine's** cardiotoxicity primarily affects the **myocardium directly** through sodium channel blockade, rather than indirectly through the **autonomic nervous system**. - Although high systemic concentrations can affect the **central nervous system** (causing seizures and CNS depression), the direct cardiac effects occur independently of neural influence. *Vascular thrombosis and Myocardial ischemia* - **Bupivacaine** cardiotoxicity does not typically involve formation of **thrombi** or mechanisms leading to **myocardial ischemia** through coronary artery occlusion. - Its effects are predominantly on the **electrical conduction system**, **myocardial contractility**, and **cardiac ion channels**, not the vascular supply to the heart.
Question 772: Which of the following is a synthetic estrogen?
- A. Estrone
- B. Estriol
- C. Estradiol
- D. Diethylstilbestrol (Correct Answer)
Explanation: ***Diethylstilbestrol*** - **Diethylstilbestrol (DES)** is a **synthetic non-steroidal estrogen** that was historically used as a medication, particularly to prevent miscarriage. - Its use was discontinued after being linked to various adverse effects, including **vaginal clear cell adenocarcinoma** in female offspring whose mothers took DES during pregnancy. *Estrone* - **Estrone** is one of the three major **naturally occurring endogenous estrogens** in humans. - It is the primary estrogen during **menopause** and is derived from androstenedione. *Estriol* - **Estriol** is another of the three major **naturally occurring estrogens**, predominantly produced during **pregnancy** by the placenta. - It is often used as a marker for fetal well-being. *Estradiol* - **Estradiol** is the **most potent and abundant naturally occurring estrogen** in women during their reproductive years. - It plays a crucial role in the development and maintenance of female reproductive tissues and secondary sexual characteristics.
Question 773: Which of the following medications does not interact with warfarin?
- A. Barbiturate
- B. Oral contraceptive
- C. Cephalosporins
- D. Benzodiazepines (Correct Answer)
Explanation: ***Benzodiazepines*** - **Benzodiazepines** are generally considered safe to use with warfarin as they are extensively metabolized in the liver, but they do not typically alter the **cytochrome P450 enzymes** responsible for warfarin metabolism. - They also do not interfere with **vitamin K recycling** or **platelet function**, which are key mechanisms through which other drugs interact with warfarin. *Barbiturate* - **Barbiturates** are **potent inducers of hepatic enzymes**, particularly CYP2C9, which is responsible for metabolizing warfarin. - This enzyme induction leads to **increased warfarin metabolism**, reducing its anticoagulant effect and necessitating higher warfarin doses. *Oral contraceptive* - **Oral contraceptives** can **reduce the anticoagulant effect of warfarin** by inducing clotting factors or inhibiting warfarin metabolism. - This interaction can increase the risk of **thromboembolic events** in patients on warfarin. *Cephalosporins* - Certain **cephalosporins**, especially those with a **methylthiotetrazole (MTT) side chain** (e.g., Cefamandole, Cefoperazone, Moxalactam), can **inhibit vitamin K epoxide reductase**. - This inhibition leads to a **decrease in vitamin K-dependent clotting factors**, thus potentiating the anticoagulant effect of warfarin and increasing bleeding risk.
Question 774: Long-term steroid ingestion leads to all of the following except:
- A. Avascular necrosis of head of femur
- B. Growth retardation
- C. Hypoglycemia (Correct Answer)
- D. Cataract
Explanation: ***Hypoglycemia*** - Chronic steroid use primarily leads to **hyperglycemia** due to increased **gluconeogenesis** and **insulin resistance**, not hypoglycemia. - Steroids raise blood glucose levels, potentially inducing or worsening **diabetes mellitus**. *Avascular necrosis of head of femur* - Long-term steroid use is a well-established risk factor for **avascular necrosis**, particularly affecting the **femoral head**. - This occurs due to impaired blood supply to the bone, leading to its death. *Cataract* - **Posterior subcapsular cataracts** are a known ocular complication of prolonged systemic corticosteroid therapy. - The mechanism involves direct effects of steroids on lens metabolism and protein aggregation. *Growth retardation* - In children, chronic corticosteroid therapy can suppress growth, leading to **growth retardation**. - This is due to interference with **growth hormone secretion** and direct effects on bone formation.
Question 775: Which of the following antibiotics is known to cause bleeding due to its effect on blood clotting?
- A. Moxalactam (Correct Answer)
- B. Cefaloridine
- C. Cefazolin
- D. Ceftazidime
Explanation: Moxalactam - Moxalactam is a **third-generation cephalosporin** known to cause **hypoprothrombinemia** and platelet dysfunction, leading to an increased risk of bleeding. - This effect is due to its **N-methylthiotetrazole (NMTT) side chain**, which inhibits vitamin K-dependent clotting factor synthesis. Cefaloridine - This is a **first-generation cephalosporin** that does not have the NMTT side chain and is not commonly associated with significant bleeding risks. - Its primary adverse effect of concern is **nephrotoxicity** at high doses, rather than coagulopathy. Ceftazidime - Ceftazidime is a **third-generation cephalosporin** primarily used for *Pseudomonas aeruginosa* infections but does **not contain the NMTT side chain** responsible for bleeding complications. - While broad-spectrum, it generally has a favorable safety profile concerning coagulation. *Cefazolin* - Cefazolin is a **first-generation cephalosporin** [1] widely used for surgical prophylaxis and skin infections [1], and it does **not interfere with coagulation** pathways. - Its main side effects are typical for penicillin-related antibiotics, such as hypersensitivity reactions [1],[2].
Question 776: All are true regarding Sunitinib except which of the following?
- A. It inhibits tyrosine kinase receptors
- B. It is excreted primarily in urine (Correct Answer)
- C. It is used for the treatment of GIST
- D. It is used for renal cell carcinoma
Explanation: ***It is excreted primarily in urine*** - **Sunitinib** is predominantly metabolized in the **liver** by CYP3A4 and primarily excreted in the **feces**, not urine. - Its major active metabolite, N-desethyl sunitinib, is also primarily eliminated via the fecal route. *It inhibits tyrosine kinase receptors* - **Sunitinib** is a **multitargeted receptor tyrosine kinase (RTK) inhibitor**. - It blocks several RTKs involved in tumor growth, angiogenesis, and metastatic progression, such as **VEGFR, PDGFR, KIT, and FLT3**. *It is used for the treatment of GIST* - **Sunitinib** is approved for the treatment of **imatinib-refractory** or **imatinib-intolerant gastrointestinal stromal tumors (GIST)**. - Its mechanism in GIST involves inhibiting KIT and PDGFR, which are often mutated and constitutively active in this cancer. *It is used for renal cell carcinoma* - **Sunitinib** is a standard first-line treatment for **advanced renal cell carcinoma (RCC)**. - Its efficacy in RCC is primarily due to its inhibition of VEGFR, which targets the high vascularity characteristic of kidney tumors.
Question 777: Which of the following is not a selective serotonin reuptake inhibitor?
- A. Buspirone (Correct Answer)
- B. Citalopram
- C. Fluoxetine
- D. Fluvoxamine
Explanation: ***Buspirone*** - **Buspirone** is an anxiolytic that primarily acts as a **serotonin 5-HT1A receptor partial agonist**, not an SSRI. - It does not significantly affect the reuptake of serotonin, distinguishing it from SSRIs. *Fluoxetine* - **Fluoxetine** is a well-known and widely used **SSRI**. - It works by selectively inhibiting the reuptake of serotonin, thereby increasing its concentration in the synaptic cleft. *Fluvoxamine* - **Fluvoxamine** is another antidepressant classified as an **SSRI**. - It is often used for the treatment of **obsessive-compulsive disorder (OCD)** due to its strong serotonin reuptake inhibition. *Citalopram* - **Citalopram** is an **SSRI** frequently prescribed for depression and anxiety disorders. - Its mechanism involves potent and selective inhibition of **serotonin reuptake**.