Biochemistry
1 questionsWhich amino acid in Jowar is responsible for its pellagragenic effect?
NEET-PG 2012 - Biochemistry NEET-PG Practice Questions and MCQs
Question 721: Which amino acid in Jowar is responsible for its pellagragenic effect?
- A. Leucine (Correct Answer)
- B. Lysine
- C. Tryptophan
- D. Methionine
Explanation: ***Leucine*** - A high intake of **leucine**, an essential amino acid, interferes with the metabolism of **tryptophan** and niacin, leading to **pellagra**. - Jowar (sorghum) contains high levels of leucine, which, when it forms a major part of the diet, can induce **niacin deficiency**. *Lysine* - Lysine is an essential amino acid and is generally considered to be in **limited supply** in many cereal grains, making it a desirable amino acid to increase in diets. - It does not directly contribute to the pellagragenic effect; rather, a deficiency in lysine can be a nutritional concern. *Tryptophan* - Tryptophan is a **precursor to niacin (Vitamin B3)** in the body; a deficiency in tryptophan can lead to pellagra. - The high leucine content in jowar interferes with the conversion of tryptophan to niacin, thus exacerbating niacin deficiency. *Methionine* - Methionine is an **essential sulfur-containing amino acid** important for various metabolic functions and protein synthesis. - It is not directly implicated in the pellagragenic effect associated with high jowar consumption.
Community Medicine
4 questionsNational Leprosy Eradication Programme was started in -
Multi-purpose worker scheme in India was introduced following the recommendation of ?
What is the primary strategy of the Iodine Deficiency Control Programme?
In community medicine practice, what aspects are primarily studied to understand health outcomes?
NEET-PG 2012 - Community Medicine NEET-PG Practice Questions and MCQs
Question 721: National Leprosy Eradication Programme was started in -
- A. 1949
- B. 1955
- C. 1973
- D. 1983 (Correct Answer)
Explanation: **Correct: 1983** - The **National Leprosy Eradication Programme (NLEP)** was launched in India in **1983** - Its goal was to eliminate leprosy as a public health problem by reducing its prevalence rate to less than 1 case per 10,000 population - This marked the shift from control to eradication strategy with the introduction of **Multi-Drug Therapy (MDT)** *Incorrect: 1949* - This year is not associated with the inception of a national leprosy eradication program in India - While efforts against leprosy existed, a comprehensive national program was not established at this time *Incorrect: 1955* - The **National Leprosy Control Programme (NLCP)** was launched in India in **1955** - This was a control program, preceding the eradication program, focusing on diagnosis and treatment with Dapsone monotherapy - NLCP was later upgraded to NLEP in 1983 *Incorrect: 1973* - This year is not cited as the start date for the national leprosy eradication program in India - The focus shifted from control to eradication in 1983 with the adoption of WHO-recommended MDT
Question 722: Multi-purpose worker scheme in India was introduced following the recommendation of ?
- A. Srivastava Committee
- B. Bhore Committee
- C. Kartar Singh Committee (Correct Answer)
- D. Chadha Committee
Explanation: ***Kartar Singh Committee*** - The **Kartar Singh Committee** (1973) recommended the implementation of the **multi-purpose worker scheme** in India. - This scheme aimed to integrate several health services at the grassroots level through a single health worker. *Srivastava Committee* - The **Srivastava Committee** (1975) focused on the creation of a **Medical and Health Education Commission** to reform medical education. - It did not specifically recommend the multi-purpose worker scheme. *Bhore Committee* - The **Bhore Committee** (1946), also known as the Health Survey and Development Committee, recommended a comprehensive health service with an emphasis on preventive and curative care. - It laid conceptual groundwork for primary healthcare but did not specifically propose the multi-purpose worker scheme, which came much later. *Chadha Committee* - The **Chadha Committee** (1963) reviewed India's health infrastructure and medical education. - It focused on health center development and medical college expansion, not the multi-purpose worker scheme.
Question 723: What is the primary strategy of the Iodine Deficiency Control Programme?
- A. Health education
- B. Water testing
- C. Fortification of salt (Correct Answer)
- D. Iodine supplementation
Explanation: ***Fortification of salt*** - **Iodization of salt** is the most cost-effective and widely implemented strategy globally to prevent and control iodine deficiency disorders (IDDs), ensuring a consistent intake of iodine in the population. - This public health intervention targets a staple food item, making it accessible to a broad population regardless of socioeconomic status. - **India's National Iodine Deficiency Disorders Control Programme (NIDDCP)** mandates universal salt iodization as the primary strategy. *Health education* - While important for promoting the consumption of iodized salt and understanding the benefits, it is a **supportive measure** rather than the primary strategy for ensuring widespread iodine intake. - Health education alone cannot guarantee the universal availability and consumption of iodine, especially in areas where iodized salt is not readily supplied. *Water testing* - **Testing water for iodine content** is not a primary strategy as water is generally not a significant source of dietary iodine, and iodine deficiency is primarily addressed through food fortification. - Water quality testing is typically for contaminants and minerals affecting health, not specifically for iodine deficiency control. *Iodine supplementation* - While supplementation (iodized oil capsules) is used in **specific high-risk groups** or areas with severe deficiency, it is not sustainable as a universal primary strategy. - Supplementation requires active distribution and monitoring, making it less cost-effective than salt fortification for population-wide coverage.
Question 724: In community medicine practice, what aspects are primarily studied to understand health outcomes?
- A. Individual health behaviors
- B. Both individual health behaviors and community social factors (Correct Answer)
- C. Community health relationships
- D. None of the above
Explanation: **_Both individual health behaviors and community social factors_** - Community medicine emphasizes a **holistic view of health**, recognizing that outcomes are shaped by both personal choices and the broader social and economic environment. - Studying these interconnected aspects allows for the development of comprehensive public health interventions that address multiple determinants of health. *Individual health behaviors* - While important, focusing solely on individual behaviors overlooks the significant impact of **environmental and social determinants** on health outcomes. - Health behaviors are often influenced by **social factors**, making it insufficient to study them in isolation within community medicine. *Community health relationships* - This term is somewhat vague; while relationships within a community are part of social factors, it does not encompass all the **broader social, economic, and environmental determinants** studied in community medicine. - This option is too narrow to fully capture the scope of what is studied to understand health outcomes in a community setting. *None of the above* - This option is incorrect because understanding health outcomes in community medicine requires considering various factors, including both individual and community-level influences. - The integration of **individual behaviors and community social factors** is central to this field.
Internal Medicine
2 questionsAtaxia, nystagmus, and ophthalmoplegia are seen in which of the following conditions?
Madarosis is seen in ?
NEET-PG 2012 - Internal Medicine NEET-PG Practice Questions and MCQs
Question 721: Ataxia, nystagmus, and ophthalmoplegia are seen in which of the following conditions?
- A. 3rd nerve palsy
- B. Wernicke encephalopathy (Correct Answer)
- C. Myasthenia gravis
- D. Chronic progressive external ophthalmoplegia
Explanation: ***Wernicke encephalopathy*** - This condition is characterized by the classic triad of **ataxia**, **nystagmus**, and **ophthalmoplegia** (often presenting as external ophthalmoplegia), alongside confusion [2]. - It results from a **thiamine (vitamin B1) deficiency** [2], [3], commonly seen in chronic alcoholics or individuals with severe malnutrition. *Myasthenia gravis* - This is an **autoimmune disorder** affecting the neuromuscular junction, leading to fluctuating muscle weakness that worsens with activity [1]. - While it can cause **ophthalmoplegia** (especially ptosis and diplopia), it does not typically present with ataxia or nystagmus. *3rd nerve palsy* - A **third nerve palsy** specifically affects the oculomotor nerve, causing a constellation of symptoms including ptosis, pupillary dilation, and inability to move the eye up, down, or medially. - While it causes **ophthalmoplegia** affecting one eye, it does not typically cause nystagmus or ataxia. *Chronic progressive external ophthalmoplegia* - This is a mitochondrial disorder characterized by **slowly progressive weakness** of the extraocular muscles, leading to bilateral ptosis and limitation of eye movements. - It causes a specific type of **ophthalmoplegia** but is not typically associated with nystagmus or prominent ataxia.
Question 722: Madarosis is seen in ?
- A. None of the options
- B. Addison's disease
- C. Acromegaly
- D. Hypothyroidism (Correct Answer)
Explanation: ***Hypothyroidism*** - **Madarosis**, specifically the loss of the **outer third of the eyebrows**, is a classic sign of **hypothyroidism** due to decreased thyroid hormone levels affecting hair follicle growth [1]. - Other common symptoms include **fatigue**, **weight gain**, **cold intolerance**, and **dry skin**. *Addison's disease* - This condition involves **adrenal insufficiency**, primarily causing symptoms like **hyperpigmentation**, low blood pressure, and fatigue. - **Hair loss** is generally not a prominent feature, and madarosis is not typically seen. *Acromegaly* - Characterized by excessive **growth hormone** production, leading to enlargement of hands, feet, and facial features. - While it can cause some changes in hair texture, **madarosis** is not a common clinical manifestation. *None of the options* - This option is incorrect because **Hypothyroidism** is a direct cause of madarosis due to its impact on **hair follicle metabolism** [1]. - The other conditions listed do not typically present with this specific type of eyebrow hair loss.
Ophthalmology
2 questionsMassaging of nasolacrimal duct is done in ?
The reduced effect of low astigmatism in dim light is primarily due to:
NEET-PG 2012 - Ophthalmology NEET-PG Practice Questions and MCQs
Question 721: Massaging of nasolacrimal duct is done in ?
- A. Acute dacryocystitis
- B. Congenital dacryocystitis (Correct Answer)
- C. Conjunctivitis
- D. None of the options
Explanation: ***Congenital dacryocystitis*** - **Massaging the nasolacrimal duct** (Crigler massage) is a primary treatment for congenital dacryocystitis to promote the opening of the **valve of Hasner**. - This condition is due to incomplete canalization of the nasolacrimal duct, leading to tearing and discharge in infants. *Acute dacryocystitis* - This is an **acute infection of the lacrimal sac**, and massaging can worsen the condition by spreading the infection. - Treatment typically involves **antibiotics** and, if necessary, incision and drainage of any abscess. *Conjunctivitis* - **Conjunctivitis** is inflammation of the conjunctiva and is not related to obstruction of the nasolacrimal duct. - Massaging the nasolacrimal duct has no therapeutic role in treating conjunctivitis. *None of the options* - This option is incorrect because **congenital dacryocystitis** is a condition where nasolacrimal duct massage is a standard and effective treatment.
Question 722: The reduced effect of low astigmatism in dim light is primarily due to:
- A. Pupil dilatation
- B. Pupil constriction (Correct Answer)
- C. Increased curvature of lens
- D. Decreased curvature of lens
Explanation: ***Pupil constriction*** - In dim light conditions, patients with low astigmatism may experience **reduced symptoms** due to the **pinhole effect** of pupil constriction when they squint or strain to see better. - **Pupil constriction** limits light entry to the central optical zone, reducing the effect of irregular corneal curvature by creating a smaller aperture that acts like a **stenopic slit**. - This **pinhole effect** improves depth of focus and reduces blur from astigmatism by eliminating peripheral aberrant rays. - When viewing in dim light, patients naturally squint to improve clarity, which mimics pupil constriction and reduces astigmatic blur. *Pupil dilatation* - **Pupil dilatation** in dim light would actually *increase* astigmatic symptoms, not reduce them. - A larger pupil allows more peripheral rays to enter the eye, which pass through areas of the lens and cornea with greater refractive error. - This increases the blur circle and worsens the optical quality in uncorrected astigmatism. *Increased curvature of lens* - **Increased lens curvature** (accommodation) increases refractive power but does not correct the unequal curvature of different meridians that defines astigmatism. - This would not specifically reduce astigmatic blur in dim light conditions. *Decreased curvature of lens* - **Decreased lens curvature** reduces refractive power and is associated with relaxed accommodation. - This does not address the fundamental issue of unequal meridional refraction in astigmatism.
Pharmacology
1 questionsWhat is Dinoprost?
NEET-PG 2012 - Pharmacology NEET-PG Practice Questions and MCQs
Question 721: What is Dinoprost?
- A. Prostaglandin E2 (PGE2)
- B. Prostaglandin F2α (PGF2α) (Correct Answer)
- C. Prostaglandin I2 (PGI2)
- D. Prostaglandin E1 (PGE1)
Explanation: ***Prostaglandin F2α (PGF2α)*** - **Dinoprost** is the generic name for **Prostaglandin F2α**. - It works by stimulating **myometrial contractions** and promoting cervical ripening, making it useful in obstetrics. *Prostaglandin E2 (PGE2)* - **PGE2** is known as **Dinoprostone** and is also used for cervical ripening and labor induction. - While similar in function, **Dinoprostone** (PGE2) is distinct from **Dinoprost** (PGF2α). *Prostaglandin I2 (PGI2)* - **PGI2** is also known as **Prostacyclin** and acts as a potent **vasodilator** and **inhibitor of platelet aggregation**. - Its primary therapeutic uses are in conditions like **pulmonary hypertension**, which differs from Dinoprost's obstetric uses. *Prostaglandin E1 (PGE1)* - **PGE1** is also known as **Alprostadil** and is used to maintain the **patency of the ductus arteriosus** in neonates with certain congenital heart defects. - It is distinct from Dinoprost and has different clinical applications.