NEET-PG 2012 Practice Questions

Q: Effect of environment on genes is called?

Epigenetics. ***Epigenetics*** - **Epigenetics** refers to heritable changes in **gene expression** that do not involve alterations to the underlying **DNA sequence**. - These changes are often influenced by **environmental factors**, such as diet, stress, and exposure to toxins, which can affect how genes are turned on or off. *Positive Eugenics* - **Positive eugenics** aims to improve the human population by encouraging the reproduction of individuals deemed to have "desirable" traits. - This concept is ethically controversial and focuses on directed breeding rather than environmental gene influence. *Negative Eugenics* - **Negative eugenics** aims to reduce the prevalence of "undesirable" traits in the human population by discouraging or preventing the reproduction of individuals deemed to possess them. - Like positive eugenics, this is a highly controversial concept focused on limiting reproduction based on perceived genetic quality. *Euthenics* - **Euthenics** is a movement focused on improving human well-being and development by improving living conditions and the environment. - While it acknowledges the impact of the environment, it focuses on societal and lifestyle improvements rather than the direct molecular changes in gene expression.

Q: What is the estimated time for a dead body to float in water under typical summer conditions in India, considering various influencing factors?

24 hours. ***Correct Answer: 24 hours*** - Under typical summer conditions in India, decomposition is **accelerated due to higher water temperatures** (25-35°C), leading to faster gas formation - The accumulation of **putrefactive gases** (hydrogen sulfide, methane, carbon dioxide) in body cavities reduces the body's specific gravity, causing it to float - This process typically occurs within **24 hours in warm water**, which is the most commonly observed timeframe in Indian summer conditions - This is a classical teaching point in forensic medicine regarding postmortem changes in water *Incorrect: 8 hours* - **Too short** for sufficient gas accumulation to cause consistent flotation of an adult body - While lighter bodies or those in very warm, shallow water might float earlier, 8 hours is uncommon for typical cases - Initial stages of putrefaction are just beginning at this timeframe *Incorrect: 16 hours* - While plausible in some cases with optimal conditions, **not the most consistent timeframe** for flotation - Gas production is still ongoing but typically insufficient for stable flotation in most adult bodies - Falls short of the classical 24-hour teaching in forensic pathology *Incorrect: 36 hours* - Bodies will certainly be floating by this time, but this represents a **later stage beyond initial flotation** - The critical gas accumulation for flotation usually occurs **within the first 24 hours** in warm water - This timeframe is beyond what is typically considered the initial appearance of flotation

Q: Which of the following viruses is classified as a poxvirus?

Variola. ***Variola virus*** - **Variola virus** is the causative agent of **smallpox**, a historically significant and highly contagious disease. - It belongs to the **Orthopoxvirus** genus within the **Poxviridae family**, characterized by its large, brick-shaped virion and dsDNA genome. *Coxsackie virus* - **Coxsackieviruses** are part of the **Picornaviridae family**, specifically the **Enterovirus** genus. - They are known to cause a range of diseases including **hand-foot-and-mouth disease**, myocarditis, and aseptic meningitis, and are much smaller than poxviruses. *ECHO virus* - **Echoviruses** (Enteric Cytopathic Human Orphan viruses) are also members of the **Picornaviridae family** and the **Enterovirus** genus. - They are associated with diseases such as **aseptic meningitis**, gastroenteritis, and respiratory infections, completely distinct from poxviruses. *HSV (Herpes Simplex Virus)* - **Herpes Simplex Viruses** belong to the **Herpesviridae family**, characterized by a **linear dsDNA genome** and an enveloped icosahedral capsid. - They cause diseases like **oral and genital herpes** and are structurally and genetically distinct from poxviruses.

Q: What is the correct sequence of the sexual cycle in malaria?

Gametocytes to sporozoites. ***Gametocytes to sporozoites*** - The sexual cycle begins when a mosquito ingests **gametocytes** during a blood meal. - These gametocytes develop into **gametes**, which fuse to form a **zygote**. The zygote matures into an **oocyst** and then releases **sporozoites**, which migrate to the mosquito's salivary glands, ready to infect a new human host. *Gametocytes to gametes* - This is an initial step within the sexual cycle where gametocytes differentiate into **male and female gametes**, respectively. - However, it's not the complete *sequence* of the sexual cycle, as it omits subsequent crucial stages like fertilization and sporozoite formation. *Sporozoites to gametocytes* - **Sporozoites** are injected into a human host and initiate the asexual cycle by infecting liver cells, then red blood cells. - **Gametocytes** are formed later during the asexual cycle in the human host, ready to be picked up by another mosquito; this sequence describes part of the human infection, not the sexual cycle in the mosquito. *Gametes to zygote* - This step represents **fertilization**, where male and female gametes fuse, forming a **zygote** in the mosquito gut. - While essential, it is only one part of the overall sexual cycle and doesn't encompass the full transformation from gametocytes to infective sporozoites.

Q: Regarding fungal cell wall, all are true except:

Azoles act on them. ***Azoles act on them*** - **Azole antifungals** primarily target the **ergosterol synthesis** pathway, specifically inhibiting the **lanosterol 14-alpha-demethylase** enzyme, which is located in the fungal cell membrane, not the cell wall. - While the cell wall is crucial for fungal viability, agents targeting it (e.g., **echinocandins**) are distinct from azoles. *Contains chitin* - The fungal cell wall is indeed a complex structure composed of various carbohydrates, with **chitin** being a major structural polysaccharide that provides rigidity. - Chitin is a **beta-(1,4)-linked polymer of N-acetylglucosamine** and is a unique component distinguishing fungal cells from animal cells. *Prevent osmotic damage* - The rigid fungal cell wall provides structural support and protects the cell from **environmental stresses**, particularly **osmotic lysis** in hypotonic environments. - It maintains the cell's integrity against internal **turgor pressure**, which is essential for fungal growth and survival. *Does not contain peptidoglycan* - Fungal cell walls are distinct from bacterial cell walls in their composition; they **do not contain peptidoglycan**. - **Peptidoglycan** is a characteristic component of bacterial cell walls, which is targeted by antibiotics like penicillins.

Q: Which of the following statements is true regarding Diphyllobothrium?

The operculated egg is a diagnostic feature. ***The operculated egg is a diagnostic feature*** - *Diphyllobothrium latum*, also known as the **fish tapeworm**, produces characteristic **operculated eggs** that are oval-shaped with an operculum (cap) at one end and a small knob at the other. - The presence of these **unembryonated eggs** in stool samples is the primary diagnostic method for diphyllobothriasis. *Humans are the only definitive host* - While humans are common definitive hosts, other **fish-eating mammals** such as bears, dogs, and cats can also serve as definitive hosts for *Diphyllobothrium latum*. - The definitive host is where the **adult worm resides** and reproduces sexually. *Vitamin B12 deficiency always occurs in infection* - **Vitamin B12 deficiency (megaloblastic anemia)** is a known complication of *Diphyllobothrium latum* infection, as the worm competes for B12 in the host's intestine. - However, it does **not occur in all infected individuals**; it is estimated to affect a significant minority, typically those with heavy worm burdens or prolonged infection, and can be influenced by dietary intake. *Fish are definitive hosts* - Fish (specifically freshwater fish like pike, perch, and salmon) act as **second intermediate hosts** for *Diphyllobothrium latum*, carrying the **plerocercoid larvae**. - **Humans and other fish-eating mammals** are the definitive hosts, where the plerocercoid larvae mature into adult tapeworms in the small intestine.

Q: Who discovered the malarial parasite?

Charles Louis Alphonse Laveran. ***Charles Louis Alphonse Laveran*** - **Charles Louis Alphonse Laveran** was a French physician who, in **1880**, observed parasites in the blood of a malaria patient. - He was awarded the **Nobel Prize in Physiology or Medicine in 1907** for his discovery of the role of protozoa in causing diseases, specifically recognizing the malarial parasite. *Ronald Ross* - **Ronald Ross** was a British physician who, in **1897**, demonstrated that **malaria is transmitted by mosquitoes**. - While he elucidated the **transmission cycle**, it was Laveran who first identified the parasite itself in human blood. - He received the **Nobel Prize in 1902** for this work. *Paul Muller* - **Paul Muller** was a Swiss chemist who was awarded the **Nobel Prize in Physiology or Medicine in 1948** for his discovery of the insecticidal properties of **DDT (dichlorodiphenyltrichloroethane)**. - His work was significant in combating insect-borne diseases like malaria, but he was not involved in the discovery of the malarial parasite. *Pampania* - This name does not correspond to any recognized figure in the discovery of the malarial parasite or its transmission. - This is a distractor option in the original examination question.

Q: What type of deposit is commonly associated with age-related macular degeneration?

Drusen. ***Drusen*** - **Drusen** are yellow deposits of extracellular material that accumulate beneath the **retinal pigment epithelium (RPE)**. - Their presence is a hallmark sign of **age-related macular degeneration (AMD)** and can lead to vision loss by disrupting retinal function. *Iron* - While iron can accumulate in ocular tissues in conditions like **siderosis bulbi** (due to retained intraocular foreign bodies), it is not a characteristic deposit of macular degeneration. - Ocular iron deposition typically causes different pathologies, such as retinal dysfunction or glaucoma, rather than AMD. *Lipochrome* - **Lipochrome** refers to a class of pigments, including **lipofuscin**, which can accumulate in cells as a byproduct of cellular metabolism and aging. - Although lipofuscin buildup occurs in the RPE with age, **drusen** are the specific, organized extracellular deposits pathognomonic for macular degeneration. *Hemosiderine* - **Hemosiderin** is an iron-storage complex formed from the breakdown of hemoglobin, found in situations of hemorrhage or chronic bleeding. - It is not a typical deposit found in macular degeneration; its presence in the retina usually indicates a history of retinal hemorrhage.

Q: Which of the following antineoplastic drugs SHOULD NOT be given by rapid IV infusion?

Cisplatin. ***Cisplatin*** - **Cisplatin** is highly nephrotoxic and emetogenic; rapid IV infusion can exacerbate these adverse effects, leading to severe renal damage and intractable nausea/vomiting. - It typically requires **prolonged infusion times** (e.g., 6-8 hours) with extensive pre- and post-hydration to reduce kidney toxicity and ensure patient tolerance. *Cyclophosphamide* - While cyclophosphamide can cause **hemorrhagic cystitis**, this is managed by adequate hydration and mesna, and its infusion rate is generally not as critically prolonged as cisplatin's. - It is often administered as a **relatively quick IV infusion** over 30-60 minutes, emphasizing hydration. *Bleomycin* - **Bleomycin** is known for pulmonary toxicity and hypersensitivity reactions, but these are not primarily linked to its infusion rate. - It is commonly given via **slow IV push or short infusion**, sometimes with a test dose to assess for hypersensitivity. *Cytosine arabinoside* - **Cytosine arabinoside** can cause myelosuppression and cerebellar toxicity, but these toxicities are not typically exacerbated by a rapid infusion rate. - It is often administered via a **continuous infusion** over several days or as a rapid IV bolus.

Q: What are the homes called where children are placed under the care of doctors and psychiatrists?

Residential treatment facilities. ***Residential treatment facilities*** - These facilities provide structured, live-in therapeutic environments where children and adolescents receive comprehensive psychiatric and medical care. - They are staffed by a multidisciplinary team including **psychiatrists**, psychologists, social workers, and nurses. *Foster care homes* - Foster care involves placing children with temporary families, usually due to neglect or abuse, focusing on a family-like setting rather than intensive medical or psychiatric care. - While foster children may receive mental health services, the homes themselves are not clinical environments. *Youth detention centers* - These facilities are for children and adolescents who have committed crimes and are awaiting trial or serving sentences. - While mental health services may be provided, their primary purpose is correctional, not therapeutic. *Child mental health clinics* - These clinics offer outpatient services, including diagnosis, therapy, and medication management, but do not provide residential care. - Children attend appointments and then return home, unlike the live-in care provided in residential facilities.

Question 1

Effect of environment on genes is called?

Accepted Answer

Epigenetics

Answer

Euthenics

Answer

Positive Eugenics

Answer

Negative Eugenics

Question 2

What is the estimated time for a dead body to float in water under typical summer conditions in India, considering various influencing factors?

Accepted Answer

24 hours

Answer

8 hours

Answer

16 hours

Answer

36 hours

Question 3

Which of the following viruses is classified as a poxvirus?

Accepted Answer

Variola

Answer

Coxsackie

Answer

ECHO

Answer

HSV

Question 4

What is the correct sequence of the sexual cycle in malaria?

Accepted Answer

Gametocytes to sporozoites

Answer

Sporozoites to gametocytes

Answer

Gametocytes to gametes

Answer

Gametes to zygote

Question 5

Regarding fungal cell wall, all are true except:

Accepted Answer

Azoles act on them

Answer

Contains chitin

Answer

Prevent osmotic damage

Answer

Does not contain peptidoglycan

Question 6

Which of the following statements is true regarding Diphyllobothrium?

Accepted Answer

The operculated egg is a diagnostic feature

Answer

Humans are the only definitive host

Answer

Vitamin B12 deficiency always occurs in infection

Answer

Fish are definitive hosts

Question 7

Who discovered the malarial parasite?

Accepted Answer

Charles Louis Alphonse Laveran

Answer

Ronald Ross

Answer

Paul Muller

Answer

Pampania

Question 8

What type of deposit is commonly associated with age-related macular degeneration?

Accepted Answer

Drusen

Answer

Iron

Answer

Lipochrome

Answer

Hemosiderine

Question 9

Which of the following antineoplastic drugs SHOULD NOT be given by rapid IV infusion?

Accepted Answer

Cisplatin

Answer

Cyclophosphamide

Answer

Cytosine arabinoside

Answer

Bleomycin

Question 10

What are the homes called where children are placed under the care of doctors and psychiatrists?

Accepted Answer

Residential treatment facilities

Answer

Foster care homes

Answer

Youth detention centers

Answer

Child mental health clinics

NEET-PG 2012

Biochemistry

Forensic Medicine

Microbiology

Ophthalmology

Pharmacology

Psychiatry