Community Medicine
4 questionsWhich of the following diseases does not have a chronic carrier state?
Transovarian transmission is seen in which of the following infections?
All of the following are characteristics of case control study except:
Child protection scheme is under which ministry?
NEET-PG 2012 - Community Medicine NEET-PG Practice Questions and MCQs
Question 541: Which of the following diseases does not have a chronic carrier state?
- A. Malaria
- B. Tetanus (Correct Answer)
- C. Measles
- D. Poliomyelitis
Explanation: ***Tetanus*** - Tetanus is caused by the toxin produced by *Clostridium tetani*, which is an **environmental bacterium** found in soil and does not establish a persistent infection within humans. - Humans are merely **accidental hosts** for this bacterium, meaning there is **no chronic carrier state** where an infected individual continuously harbors and transmits the pathogen. - The disease occurs through wound contamination with spores, not human-to-human transmission. *Measles* - Measles is an **acute viral infection** with no chronic carrier state in the classical sense. - After acute infection, the virus is cleared from the body in immunocompetent individuals. - While **subacute sclerosing panencephalitis (SSPE)** represents a rare persistent infection, this is **not a carrier state** as the virus is not transmissible from these individuals. - SSPE occurs years after initial infection but does not involve viral shedding or transmission. *Malaria* - Individuals infected with ***Plasmodium* parasites** can develop a **chronic carrier state**, particularly with *P. vivax* and *P. ovale*, which form hypnozoites in the liver. - These parasites can remain dormant and then reactivate, causing **relapses** and allowing for continued transmission to mosquitoes over extended periods. - Chronic asymptomatic carriers can serve as reservoirs for transmission in endemic areas. *Poliomyelitis* - Individuals infected with poliovirus can shed the virus in their stools for **several weeks to months** after infection. - In **immunodeficient individuals**, prolonged excretion can occur for years, creating chronic carriers. - This prolonged shedding allows for the **continued transmission** of the virus within a population.
Question 542: Transovarian transmission is seen in which of the following infections?
- A. Plague
- B. Ebola fever
- C. Yellow fever (Correct Answer)
- D. None of the options
Explanation: ***Yellow fever*** - **Transovarian transmission** refers to the passage of a pathogen from an adult female arthropod (like a mosquito) to her offspring via the eggs. This mechanism allows the virus to persist in the **vector population** even in the absence of infected vertebrate hosts. - **Yellow fever virus** is known to undergo transovarian transmission in its mosquito vectors, particularly *Aedes aegypti* and other *Aedes* species. *Plague* - Plague is caused by the bacterium *Yersinia pestis* and is primarily transmitted by **flea bites** from infected rodents to humans. - It does not involve transovarian transmission; the fleas acquire the bacteria during a **blood meal** from an infected host. *Ebola fever* - Ebola virus is transmitted through **direct contact** with blood or bodily fluids of infected humans or animals. - It is not an **arthropod-borne disease** and therefore does not exhibit transovarian transmission. *None of the options* - This option is incorrect because **Yellow Fever** clearly demonstrates transovarian transmission within its mosquito vector.
Question 543: All of the following are characteristics of case control study except:
- A. Quick results are obtained
- B. Measures incidence rate (Correct Answer)
- C. Inexpensive study
- D. Proceeds from effect to cause
Explanation: ***Correct: Measures incidence rate*** - A **case-control study** proceeds from effect (disease) to cause (exposure) and thus does **NOT measure the incidence rate** of a disease. - Case-control studies calculate **odds ratios**, not incidence rates. - **Incidence rate** is typically measured in **cohort studies**, where a group of individuals is followed over time to observe the development of new cases of a disease. *Incorrect: Quick results are obtained* - Case-control studies are generally **retrospective**, meaning they look back in time from the outcome (disease) to identify past exposures. - This design allows for **quicker data collection** and analysis compared to prospective studies like cohort studies, which follow individuals over time. - This IS a characteristic of case-control studies. *Incorrect: Proceeds from effect to cause* - In a case-control study, researchers start by identifying individuals with the **disease (cases)** and a comparable group without the disease (controls). - They then investigate past exposures in both groups to determine potential **risk factors** or causes. - This IS a characteristic of case-control studies. *Incorrect: Inexpensive study* - Case-control studies are typically **less expensive** than other analytical study designs, such as cohort studies. - This is because they do not require long-term follow-up of a large population, reducing costs associated with repeated measurements and participant retention. - This IS a characteristic of case-control studies.
Question 544: Child protection scheme is under which ministry?
- A. Ministry of Social Justice and Empowerment
- B. Ministry of Health and Family Welfare
- C. Ministry of Education
- D. Ministry of Women and Child Development (Correct Answer)
Explanation: ***Ministry of Women and Child Development*** - The **Ministry of Women and Child Development** is the nodal ministry in India responsible for formulating and administering laws, policies, and programs concerning women and children, including child protection schemes. - This ministry works to ensure the overall development, welfare, and protection of children, addressing issues such as child abuse, exploitation, and trafficking through various initiatives. *Ministry of Health and Family Welfare* - This ministry primarily deals with **public health**, healthcare services, and family planning, focusing on the health and nutritional aspects of children, but not their overall protection and welfare schemes. - While it contributes to child well-being through health programs, it does not oversee the comprehensive **child protection framework**. *Ministry of Social Justice and Empowerment* - This ministry focuses on the welfare, social justice, and empowerment of **marginalized and vulnerable sections** of society, including persons with disabilities, scheduled castes, and other backward classes. - While it addresses social welfare, its primary mandate is not specific to the overall **child protection scheme**, which falls under a dedicated ministry. *Ministry of Education* - The Ministry of Education is responsible for the **educational system**, including primary, secondary, and higher education. - While it promotes children's development through education, it does not have the mandate for the broader **child protection schemes** that address safety, welfare, and legal aspects beyond schooling.
Ophthalmology
5 questionsWhat does extraretinal fibrovascular proliferation at the ridge indicate?
What type of deposit is commonly associated with age-related macular degeneration?
Laser iridotomy is done in?
Which of the following conditions is least likely to be associated with neovascular glaucoma?
Recurrent anterior uveitis with increased intraocular tension is seen in which of the following conditions?
NEET-PG 2012 - Ophthalmology NEET-PG Practice Questions and MCQs
Question 541: What does extraretinal fibrovascular proliferation at the ridge indicate?
- A. Normal retina
- B. Stage II Retinopathy of Prematurity
- C. Stage III Retinopathy of Prematurity (Correct Answer)
- D. Stage I Retinopathy of Prematurity
Explanation: ***Stage III Retinopathy of Prematurity*** - Extraretinal fibrovascular proliferation at the ridge is the defining characteristic of **Stage III Retinopathy of Prematurity (ROP)**. - This stage signifies significant **neovascularization** extending into the vitreous, increasing the risk of **retinal detachment**. *Normal retina* - A normal retina does not exhibit **fibrovascular proliferation** or a distinct ridge, as its vascularization is fully developed and confined to the retinal plane. - Absence of any abnormal vascular growth or demarcation line indicates a healthy, mature retinal structure. *Stage II Retinopathy of Prematurity* - Stage II ROP is characterized by a **ridge** that is elevated and appears three-dimensional, but it **lacks extraretinal fibrovascular proliferation**. - This stage represents progression from Stage I, where the demarcation line becomes a prominent ridge, but without new vessel formation outside the retina. *Stage I Retinopathy of Prematurity* - Stage I ROP is characterized by a thin, flat **demarcation line** distinguishing vascularized from avascular retina, without any significant elevation or fibrovascular proliferation. - This initial stage indicates an arrested phase of retinal vascular development, but without the more severe signs of neovascularization.
Question 542: What type of deposit is commonly associated with age-related macular degeneration?
- A. Iron
- B. Drusen (Correct Answer)
- C. Lipochrome
- D. Hemosiderine
Explanation: ***Drusen*** - **Drusen** are yellow deposits of extracellular material that accumulate beneath the **retinal pigment epithelium (RPE)**. - Their presence is a hallmark sign of **age-related macular degeneration (AMD)** and can lead to vision loss by disrupting retinal function. *Iron* - While iron can accumulate in ocular tissues in conditions like **siderosis bulbi** (due to retained intraocular foreign bodies), it is not a characteristic deposit of macular degeneration. - Ocular iron deposition typically causes different pathologies, such as retinal dysfunction or glaucoma, rather than AMD. *Lipochrome* - **Lipochrome** refers to a class of pigments, including **lipofuscin**, which can accumulate in cells as a byproduct of cellular metabolism and aging. - Although lipofuscin buildup occurs in the RPE with age, **drusen** are the specific, organized extracellular deposits pathognomonic for macular degeneration. *Hemosiderine* - **Hemosiderin** is an iron-storage complex formed from the breakdown of hemoglobin, found in situations of hemorrhage or chronic bleeding. - It is not a typical deposit found in macular degeneration; its presence in the retina usually indicates a history of retinal hemorrhage.
Question 543: Laser iridotomy is done in?
- A. Pigmentary glaucoma
- B. None of the options
- C. Angle closure glaucoma (Correct Answer)
- D. Open angle glaucoma
Explanation: ***Angle closure glaucoma*** - **Laser iridotomy** creates a small hole in the iris, allowing aqueous humor to flow directly from the posterior to the anterior chamber, thus relieving pupillary block and opening the angle. - This procedure is the definitive treatment to prevent further **angle closure attacks** and is also used prophylactically in eyes at risk. *Open angle glaucoma* - This condition involves an **open angle** but impaired outflow of aqueous humor through the **trabecular meshwork**. - Laser iridotomy is not indicated as it does not address the primary outflow obstruction in the trabecular meshwork. *Pigmentary glaucoma* - This is a type of **open-angle glaucoma** caused by pigment dispersion that clogs the trabecular meshwork, leading to increased intraocular pressure. - While pigment can be released from the iris, the primary issue is the **trabecular meshwork obstruction**, which is not directly resolved by iridotomy. *None of the options* - This option is incorrect because **angle closure glaucoma** is a clear indication for laser iridotomy.
Question 544: Which of the following conditions is least likely to be associated with neovascular glaucoma?
- A. Diabetes
- B. Open angle glaucoma (Correct Answer)
- C. CRVO
- D. Eale's disease
Explanation: ***Open angle glaucoma*** ✓ - **Open-angle glaucoma** is a primary **neurodegenerative disease** of the optic nerve, characterized by progressive loss of **retinal ganglion cells** and their axons, leading to characteristic **optic neuropathy** and visual field defects. - It does **NOT** directly cause **neovascularization** or increased VEGF production, which are the underlying mechanisms for **neovascular glaucoma**. - This is the **least likely** association among the given options. *Diabetes* - **Diabetic retinopathy** is a **major cause** of **neovascularization** due to retinal ischemia and increased production of **vascular endothelial growth factor (VEGF)**, which can lead to **neovascular glaucoma**. - **Neovascularization** on the iris (rubeosis iridis) and angle can block aqueous outflow, causing a severe, rapidly progressing form of secondary glaucoma. *CRVO (Central Retinal Vein Occlusion)* - **CRVO** leads to significant retinal ischemia and subsequent release of **VEGF**, which prompts the growth of new, fragile blood vessels. - These new vessels (neovascularization) can grow in the iris and angle, obstructing aqueous humor outflow and causing **neovascular glaucoma**. - **Ischemic CRVO** is one of the **most common causes** of neovascular glaucoma. *Eale's disease* - **Eale's disease** is an **idiopathic occlusive vasculitis** primarily affecting the **peripheral retinal veins**, leading to **retinal ischemia**. - This ischemia stimulates **neovascularization** and the production of **VEGF**, increasing the risk of **neovascular glaucoma** due to the formation of new blood vessels in the anterior chamber.
Question 545: Recurrent anterior uveitis with increased intraocular tension is seen in which of the following conditions?
- A. Posner-Schlossman syndrome (Correct Answer)
- B. Foster-Kennedy syndrome
- C. Vogt-Koyanagi-Harada syndrome
- D. Fuchs heterochromic iridocyclitis
Explanation: ***Posner-Schlossman syndrome*** - Characterized by **recurrent, unilateral, non-granulomatous anterior uveitis** associated with markedly **elevated intraocular pressure (IOP)**. - The condition is also known as **glaucomatocyclitic crisis**, highlighting the episodic inflammation and glaucoma. - Key features include **acute attacks** lasting hours to weeks with **dramatic IOP elevation** (often >40 mmHg). *Foster-Kennedy syndrome* - This syndrome is defined by ipsilateral **optic atrophy**, contralateral **papilledema**, and often **anosmia**, typically due to a frontal lobe tumor. - It does not involve anterior uveitis or primary elevated intraocular tension. - This is a neuro-ophthalmologic syndrome, not an inflammatory ocular condition. *Vogt-Koyanagi-Harada syndrome* - An autoimmune disorder affecting pigmented tissues, leading to **bilateral granulomatous panuveitis**, often with hearing loss, vitiligo, poliosis, and neurological symptoms. - While it involves uveitis, it is typically **bilateral and panuveitis**, not recurrent unilateral anterior uveitis. - IOP may be elevated but not the defining feature with dramatic episodic rises. *Fuchs heterochromic iridocyclitis* - A chronic, **unilateral, low-grade anterior uveitis** with characteristic iris heterochromia. - May have mild IOP elevation but **not recurrent episodic attacks** with marked pressure spikes. - Inflammation is typically **quiet and chronic** rather than acute and recurrent.
Pharmacology
1 questionsWhat is the standard amount of diphtheria toxoid in the DT vaccine?
NEET-PG 2012 - Pharmacology NEET-PG Practice Questions and MCQs
Question 541: What is the standard amount of diphtheria toxoid in the DT vaccine?
- A. 5 Lf
- B. 10 Lf
- C. 15 Lf
- D. 30 Lf (Correct Answer)
Explanation: ***30 Lf*** - The **DT vaccine** (pediatric diphtheria-tetanus vaccine) contains **30 Lf** of **diphtheria toxoid** per dose according to traditional formulations, along with tetanus toxoid. - This higher diphtheria toxoid content is standardized for vaccines administered to children younger than 7 years. - Note: Modern vaccine standards often express potency in **International Units (IU)** where ≥30 IU corresponds to approximately 15-25 Lf, though 30 Lf was the traditional specification. *5 Lf* - This reduced amount of diphtheria toxoid is present in adult formulations like **Tdap vaccine** and **Td vaccine** (typically 2-5 Lf). - The lower diphtheria toxoid content in adult vaccines is sufficient to maintain immunity in individuals with pre-existing immunity from childhood vaccination. *10 Lf* - This amount of diphtheria toxoid is not a standard specification for DT, Td, or Tdap vaccines. - Standard diphtheria toxoid amounts are typically 15-30 Lf for pediatric formulations (DT/DTP) and 2-5 Lf for adult formulations (Td, Tdap). *15 Lf* - While approximately 15 Lf may correspond to the minimum potency when measured in International Units (≥30 IU), the traditional standard specification for DT vaccine is **30 Lf**. - Vaccine formulations are precisely standardized to ensure optimal immunogenicity and safety.