Anatomy
7 questionsAll are derived from ectoderm except for which of the following?
Coronary sinus develops from?
Which is derived from Wolffian duct?
Which of the following statements provides the MOST COMPLETE description of sclerotome function during vertebral development?
Which of the following is a traction epiphysis ?
Renal papilla opens into -
In walking, gravity tends to tilt pelvis and trunk to the unsupported side, the major factor in preventing this unwanted movement is?
NEET-PG 2012 - Anatomy NEET-PG Practice Questions and MCQs
Question 401: All are derived from ectoderm except for which of the following?
- A. Hair follicles
- B. Nails
- C. Lens of the eye
- D. Adrenal cortex (Correct Answer)
Explanation: ***Adrenal cortex*** - The adrenal cortex is derived from the **intermediate mesoderm**, specifically from the cells lining the posterior abdominal wall. The cells migrate to develop into the adrenal cortex. - It produces various steroid hormones, including **aldosterone**, **cortisol**, and **androgens**, which regulate diverse bodily functions. *Lens of the eye* - The lens of the eye is derived from the **surface ectoderm**. It forms from an invagination of the surface ectoderm called the lens placode. - Its primary function is to **focus light** onto the retina. *Hair follicles* - Hair follicles develop from the **surface ectoderm** [1]; they are invaginations of the epidermis that extend into the dermis. - They produce hair, which provides **insulation** and **protection** [1]. *Nails* - Nails are also derivatives of the **surface ectoderm**, forming thickened plates on the dorsal surface of the distal phalanges. - They provide **protection** to the fingertips and aid in grasping objects.
Question 402: Coronary sinus develops from?
- A. Truncus arteriosus
- B. Conus
- C. Sinus venosus (Correct Answer)
- D. AV canal
Explanation: Sinus venosus - The sinus venosus is a primordial cardiac chamber that receives venous blood from the body and placenta in the early embryonic heart. - The left horn of the sinus venosus loses its connection with the systemic venous circulation and becomes the coronary sinus, which drains most of the cardiac veins into the right atrium [1, 4]. Truncus arteriosus - The truncus arteriosus is the embryonic precursor to the ascending aorta and pulmonary trunk. - It does not contribute to the development of the coronary sinus. Conus - The conus (or conus cordis) is the outflow portion of the primitive ventricle and differentiates into the outflow tracts of the right (infundibulum) and left (aortic vestibule) ventricles. - It is not involved in the formation of the coronary sinus. AV canal - The atrioventricular (AV) canal connects the primitive atrium and ventricle and is crucial for the formation of the AV valves and septation of the heart chambers. - It does not directly develop into the coronary sinus.
Question 403: Which is derived from Wolffian duct?
- A. Appendix of epididymis (Correct Answer)
- B. Appendix of the testis
- C. Uterine structure
- D. Hydatid of Morgagni
Explanation: The **appendix of the epididymis** is a vestigial structure directly derived from the mesonephric (Wolffian) duct in males. It is an embryological remnant of this duct, located at the head of the epididymis. *Appendix of the testis* - The **appendix of the testis** (hydatid of Morgagni) is a remnant of the paramesonephric (Müllerian) duct, not the Wolffian duct. - It is usually found on the upper pole of the testis, typically near the epididymis. *Uterine structure* - **Uterine structures** (uterus, fallopian tubes, and upper vagina) are derived from the paramesonephric (Müllerian) ducts in females [1]. - The Wolffian ducts largely regress in females due to the absence of testosterone. *Hydatid of Morgagni* - The term **hydatid of Morgagni** can refer to the appendix of the testis (Müllerian duct remnant) or, less commonly, to the appendix of the epididymis (Wolffian duct remnant). - However, in common clinical and anatomical usage, it almost exclusively refers to the **appendix of the testis**, which is a Müllerian duct derivative.
Question 404: Which of the following statements provides the MOST COMPLETE description of sclerotome function during vertebral development?
- A. The notochord forms the nucleus pulposus.
- B. The sclerotome contributes to the formation of vertebral bodies.
- C. The sclerotome surrounds the notochord and the neural tube during development. (Correct Answer)
- D. The sclerotome surrounds the notochord.
Explanation: ***The sclerotome surrounds the notochord and the neural tube during development.*** - The **sclerotome** is the part of the somite that differentiates into mesenchymal cells and migrates to surround both the developing **notochord** (which gives rise to the nucleus pulposus) and the **neural tube** (which forms the spinal cord). - This encirclement is crucial for the formation of the **vertebral column**, providing protection and a structural framework. *The notochord forms the nucleus pulposus.* - While true that the **notochord** contributes to the **nucleus pulposus**, this statement describes the fate of the notochord itself, not the function of the sclerotome. - The question asks for the function of the sclerotome, and this option only details one specific derivative. *The sclerotome contributes to the formation of vertebral bodies.* - This statement is partially true, as the **sclerotome** does indeed form the **vertebral bodies**, arches, and intervertebral discs. - However, it is not the *most complete* description of its function during development, as it omits the crucial aspect of surrounding the neural tube. *The sclerotome surrounds the notochord.* - This statement is correct but **incomplete** as it only mentions the notochord. - The **sclerotome** also surrounds the **neural tube**, which is a vital part of its developmental role in forming the vertebral canal.
Question 405: Which of the following is a traction epiphysis ?
- A. Tibial condyles
- B. Head of femur
- C. Trochanter of femur
- D. Coracoid process of scapula (Correct Answer)
Explanation: ***Coracoid process of scapula*** - A **traction epiphysis** (also called atavistic epiphysis) serves as an attachment site for muscles and tendons, transferring muscle force to the bone without bearing significant weight or forming articular surfaces. - The **coracoid process** is a classic example, anchoring the **pectoralis minor, coracobrachialis, and short head of biceps brachii**, as well as important ligaments (coracoclavicular and coracoacromial). - It develops from a separate ossification center purely for muscle and ligament attachment, not for articulation or weight-bearing. *Tibial condyles* - The **tibial condyles** are **pressure epiphyses** (articular epiphyses) that form the superior articular surface of the tibia. - They articulate with the femoral condyles to form the knee joint and bear significant weight during standing and movement. - Their primary function is joint formation and contribution to longitudinal bone growth. *Trochanter of femur* - The **greater and lesser trochanters** are large bony prominences that serve as muscle attachment sites, but they are better classified as **apophyses** rather than true traction epiphyses. - An **apophysis** is a secondary ossification center that does not contribute to longitudinal bone growth and serves primarily for muscle attachment. - While functionally similar to traction epiphyses, the term "traction epiphysis" is more specifically applied to structures like the coracoid process, tibial tuberosity, and calcaneal tuberosity. *Head of femur* - The **head of femur** is a classic **pressure epiphysis** that articulates with the acetabulum to form the hip joint. - It bears significant body weight and contributes to the longitudinal growth of the femur. - Its primary functions are joint formation and weight transmission, not muscle attachment.
Question 406: Renal papilla opens into -
- A. Cortex
- B. Pyramid
- C. Minor calyx (Correct Answer)
- D. Major calyx
Explanation: ***Minor calyx*** - The **renal papilla** is the apex of the renal pyramid, which drains urine directly into a **minor calyx**. - Minor calyces then merge to form major calyces, eventually leading to the renal pelvis. *Cortex* - The **renal cortex** is the outer layer of the kidney, containing glomeruli and convoluted tubules, and does not directly receive urine from the papilla. - Urine is primarily formed and filtered in the cortex and then flows into the medulla. *Pyramid* - A **renal pyramid** is a conical structure within the renal medulla, and the renal papilla is its tip, but it doesn't open *into* the pyramid itself. - Instead, the pyramid *contains* the structures that contribute to the papilla. *Major calyx* - A **major calyx** is formed by the convergence of several minor calyces. - The renal papilla drains into the minor calyx, which then, in turn, drains into the major calyx.
Question 407: In walking, gravity tends to tilt pelvis and trunk to the unsupported side, the major factor in preventing this unwanted movement is?
- A. Adductor muscles
- B. Quadriceps
- C. Gluteus medius and minimus (Correct Answer)
- D. Gluteus maximus
Explanation: ***Gluteus medius and minimus*** - The **gluteus medius** and **gluteus minimus** are essential **abductors** of the hip, primarily responsible for stabilizing the pelvis during the **single-limb support phase of gait**. - When one leg is lifted during walking, these muscles on the **stance leg side** contract to prevent the pelvis from tilting downwards on the unsupported swing leg side. *Adductor muscles* - **Adductor muscles** (adductor longus, brevis, magnus, pectineus, gracilis) primarily function to bring the thigh toward the midline of the body. - While they play a role in gait stability, their main action is not to prevent the lateral pelvic tilt described. *Quadriceps* - The quadriceps femoris group (rectus femoris, vastus lateralis, medialis, intermedius) are powerful **extensors of the knee**. - They are crucial for weight acceptance and propulsion during walking but do not directly prevent lateral pelvic tilt [1]. *Gluteus maximus* - The **gluteus maximus** is the largest and most powerful muscle of the hip, primarily responsible for **hip extension** and **external rotation**. - It is crucial for activities like climbing stairs or running, but its main role in normal walking is not to prevent lateral pelvic tilt; that function is more specific to the gluteus medius and minimus.
Biochemistry
2 questionsWhich of the following is a true difference between gangliosides and cerebrosides?
Which of the following is an amino sugar formed from fructose-6-phosphate?
NEET-PG 2012 - Biochemistry NEET-PG Practice Questions and MCQs
Question 401: Which of the following is a true difference between gangliosides and cerebrosides?
- A. Specific carbohydrate composition
- B. Charge difference (Correct Answer)
- C. Location in the nervous system
- D. Presence of glucose
Explanation: ***Charge difference*** - **Gangliosides** contain **sialic acid (N-acetylneuraminic acid)** residues, which are negatively charged, making gangliosides **anionic**. - **Cerebrosides** are **neutral glycosphingolipids** as they lack charged sugar residues. *Specific carbohydrate composition* - While both have carbohydrate components, referring to "specific carbohydrate composition" as the *true difference* is too broad. Both have characteristic sugar groups, but the **presence of sialic acid** in gangliosides is the key differentiator in charge. - Cerebrosides typically contain a single sugar (either glucose or galactose), whereas gangliosides have a more complex oligosaccharide chain including sialic acid. *Presence of glucose* - Both cerebrosides (specifically **glucocerebrosides**) and gangliosides can contain **glucose** in their carbohydrate moieties. - This is not a distinguishing feature; the *type* and *arrangement* of sugars, particularly the presence of sialic acid, are more specific. *Location in the nervous system* - Both gangliosides and cerebrosides are abundant in the **nervous system**, particularly in cell membranes. - Their presence in the nervous system is a similarity, not a differentiating factor.
Question 402: Which of the following is an amino sugar formed from fructose-6-phosphate?
- A. N-acetylglucosamine-6-phosphate
- B. Glucosamine-6-phosphate (Correct Answer)
- C. Galactosamine-6-phosphate
- D. UDP-N-acetylglucosamine
Explanation: ***Glucosamine-6-phosphate*** - This amino sugar is directly synthesized from **fructose-6-phosphate** via a transamidation reaction, where an amino group replaces a hydroxyl group. - It is a key intermediate in the biosynthesis of other **amino sugars** and **glycosaminoglycans**. *N-acetylglucosamine-6-phosphate* - This is formed from **glucosamine-6-phosphate** by the addition of an **acetyl group**, making it a subsequent product, not the initial amino sugar from fructose-6-phosphate. - The N-acetylation step is crucial for its role in cellular signaling and structural components. *Galactosamine-6-phosphate* - While an amino sugar, **galactosamine-6-phosphate** is derived from UDP-N-acetylglucosamine, not directly from fructose-6-phosphate. - Its formation involves an **epimerization** step of an existing N-acetylglucosamine structure. *UDP-N-acetylglucosamine* - This is an **activated form** of N-acetylglucosamine, formed by the addition of UTP to N-acetylglucosamine-1-phosphate. - It serves as a precursor for the synthesis of complex **carbohydrates** and glycoproteins, far downstream from fructose-6-phosphate.
Obstetrics and Gynecology
1 questionsBlastocyst makes contact with endometrium on ?
NEET-PG 2012 - Obstetrics and Gynecology NEET-PG Practice Questions and MCQs
Question 401: Blastocyst makes contact with endometrium on ?
- A. < 3 days
- B. 5 - 7 days (Correct Answer)
- C. 8 - 11 days
- D. 15-16 days
Explanation: ***5-7 days*** - The **blastocyst makes initial contact** (apposition) with the **endometrium** around **day 5-6 after fertilization**. - **Implantation**, which includes adhesion and invasion, typically begins around day 6 and is complete by day 10. - This timeframe allows the blastocyst to travel from the fallopian tube to the uterus and for the uterine lining to be optimally prepared. *< 3 days* - Within the first few days after fertilization, the zygote is still undergoing **cleavage** and development into a **morula**, then a young blastocyst, while traveling down the fallopian tube. - It has not yet reached the uterus or developed sufficiently to interact with the endometrium. *8-11 days* - By 8-11 days, the process of implantation is usually **well underway or completed**, with the blastocyst already invading the endometrial wall. - Initial contact and attachment occur prior to this period. *15-16 days* - This timeframe is well beyond the typical window for initial blastocyst contact and implantation. - By 15-16 days post-fertilization, the embryo would be undergoing **gastrulation** and early organogenesis, assuming successful implantation.