Anatomy
7 questionsWhich of the following is NOT a branch of 1st part of maxillary artery?
Which of the following structures is not derived from the ectoderm?
All are derived from ectoderm except for which of the following?
Which muscle stabilizes the clavicle during movement of the shoulder?
Nutrient artery runs ?
What anatomical structures are involved in the closure of the fossa ovalis?
Which is derived from Wolffian duct?
NEET-PG 2012 - Anatomy NEET-PG Practice Questions and MCQs
Question 301: Which of the following is NOT a branch of 1st part of maxillary artery?
- A. Accessory meningeal artery
- B. Inferior alveolar artery
- C. Middle meningeal artery
- D. Greater palatine artery (Correct Answer)
Explanation: ***Greater palatine artery*** - This artery is a branch of the **third part** of the maxillary artery, which supplies the palate. - The third part of the maxillary artery (also known as the pterygopalatine part) gives off branches that pass through the pterygopalatine fossa. *Middle meningeal artery* - This is a significant branch of the **first part** of the maxillary artery, entering the cranial cavity via the **foramen spinosum** to supply the dura mater. - It is often injured in head trauma, leading to an **epidural hematoma**. *Accessory meningeal artery* - This artery also arises from the **first part** of the maxillary artery and enters the skull through the **foramen ovale** to supply the dura mater. - It is a smaller branch compared to the middle meningeal artery. *Inferior alveolar artery* - It is a branch of the **first part** of the maxillary artery, descending to enter the mandible via the **mandibular foramen** to supply the teeth and bone of the mandible. - It gives off the **mylohyoid branch** before entering the mandibular foramen.
Question 302: Which of the following structures is not derived from the ectoderm?
- A. Brain
- B. Retina
- C. Eustachian tube (Correct Answer)
- D. Lens
Explanation: ***Eustachian tube*** - The **Eustachian tube** (auditory tube) is derived from the **endoderm**, specifically from the first pharyngeal pouch. - It connects the nasopharynx to the middle ear and is responsible for equalizing pressure [1]. *Lens* - The **lens** of the eye develops from the surface ectoderm through an invagination called the **lens placode**. - This ectodermal origin is crucial for its transparency and refractive properties. *Brain* - The **brain** is a primary derivative of the ectoderm, specifically the **neural tube**, which forms from the neural plate during neurulation. - This ectodermal origin gives rise to the entire central nervous system. *Retina* - The **retina** of the eye, along with the optic nerve, develops from the **neuroectoderm** (a part of the neural tube). - Its ectodermal origin is essential for its light-sensing function.
Question 303: All are derived from ectoderm except for which of the following?
- A. Hair follicles
- B. Nails
- C. Lens of the eye
- D. Adrenal cortex (Correct Answer)
Explanation: ***Adrenal cortex*** - The adrenal cortex is derived from the **intermediate mesoderm**, specifically from the cells lining the posterior abdominal wall. The cells migrate to develop into the adrenal cortex. - It produces various steroid hormones, including **aldosterone**, **cortisol**, and **androgens**, which regulate diverse bodily functions. *Lens of the eye* - The lens of the eye is derived from the **surface ectoderm**. It forms from an invagination of the surface ectoderm called the lens placode. - Its primary function is to **focus light** onto the retina. *Hair follicles* - Hair follicles develop from the **surface ectoderm** [1]; they are invaginations of the epidermis that extend into the dermis. - They produce hair, which provides **insulation** and **protection** [1]. *Nails* - Nails are also derivatives of the **surface ectoderm**, forming thickened plates on the dorsal surface of the distal phalanges. - They provide **protection** to the fingertips and aid in grasping objects.
Question 304: Which muscle stabilizes the clavicle during movement of the shoulder?
- A. Pectoralis major
- B. Latissimus dorsi
- C. Subclavius (Correct Answer)
- D. Serratus anterior
Explanation: ***Subclavius*** - The **subclavius muscle** originates from the first rib and inserts into the inferior surface of the clavicle, acting to **depress the clavicle** and prevent its displacement, thus enhancing shoulder stability during movement. - It plays a crucial role in protecting the underlying **neurovascular structures** (brachial plexus and subclavian vessels) from external trauma to the shoulder. *Pectoralis major* - This large, fan-shaped muscle primarily functions in **adduction, medial rotation, and flexion of the humerus** at the shoulder joint [1]. - It does not directly stabilize the clavicle but rather acts on the arm. *Latissimus dorsi* - The **latissimus dorsi** is a broad muscle of the back responsible for **extension, adduction, and internal rotation of the humerus** [1]. - Its actions are mainly on the humerus and it does not directly stabilize the clavicle. *Serratus anterior* - The **serratus anterior** muscle primarily **protracts and rotates the scapula**, keeping it pressed against the thoracic wall. - While it's essential for **scapular stability** and overhead arm movements, it does not directly stabilize the clavicle.
Question 305: Nutrient artery runs ?
- A. Away from epiphysis (Correct Answer)
- B. Towards metaphysis
- C. None of the options
- D. Away from metaphysis
Explanation: ***Away from epiphysis*** - The **nutrient artery** runs away from the **dominant (faster-growing) epiphysis** towards the non-dominant end of the bone. - This follows the classic anatomical rule: **"To the elbow, from the knee"** - nutrient arteries point towards the elbow in upper limb bones and away from the knee in lower limb bones. - The **nutrient foramen** is directed obliquely away from the more actively growing end, established during bone development. - Examples: In the humerus, it runs towards the elbow (away from proximal epiphysis); in the femur, it runs away from the knee (away from distal epiphysis). *Towards metaphysis* - While the artery does course towards the metaphyseal region of the slower-growing end, this option is less anatomically precise. - The standard teaching emphasizes the relationship with the **dominant epiphysis** rather than the metaphysis. *Away from metaphysis* - This is **incorrect** - the nutrient artery actually runs **towards** the metaphysis of the non-dominant end. - It runs **away from** the dominant epiphysis, not away from the metaphysis. *None of the options* - This is incorrect as **"Away from epiphysis"** correctly describes the direction of the nutrient artery relative to the dominant growing end.
Question 306: What anatomical structures are involved in the closure of the fossa ovalis?
- A. Septum primum + Endocardial cushion
- B. Septum primum + Septum secundum (Correct Answer)
- C. Endocardial cushions + Septum secundum
- D. None of the options
Explanation: The septum primum acts as a valve, closing against the septum secundum postnatally due to changes in atrial pressure. This fusion effectively closes the foramen ovale, leading to the formation of the fossa ovalis. The endocardial cushions are important for the formation of the atrial and ventricular septa, as well as the AV valves, but not directly for the closure of the fossa ovalis. The septum primum is directly involved, but its apposition with the endocardial cushions doesn't close the foramen ovale. While both structures contribute to heart development, their direct interaction is not responsible for the closure of the fossa ovalis. The septum secundum forms the muscular rim of the fossa ovalis, and the endocardial cushions are critical for atrial septation, but not the final closure here. This option is incorrect because the specific combination of septum primum and septum secundum is indeed responsible for the closure of the fossa ovalis.
Question 307: Which is derived from Wolffian duct?
- A. Appendix of epididymis (Correct Answer)
- B. Appendix of the testis
- C. Uterine structure
- D. Hydatid of Morgagni
Explanation: The **appendix of the epididymis** is a vestigial structure directly derived from the mesonephric (Wolffian) duct in males. It is an embryological remnant of this duct, located at the head of the epididymis. *Appendix of the testis* - The **appendix of the testis** (hydatid of Morgagni) is a remnant of the paramesonephric (Müllerian) duct, not the Wolffian duct. - It is usually found on the upper pole of the testis, typically near the epididymis. *Uterine structure* - **Uterine structures** (uterus, fallopian tubes, and upper vagina) are derived from the paramesonephric (Müllerian) ducts in females [1]. - The Wolffian ducts largely regress in females due to the absence of testosterone. *Hydatid of Morgagni* - The term **hydatid of Morgagni** can refer to the appendix of the testis (Müllerian duct remnant) or, less commonly, to the appendix of the epididymis (Wolffian duct remnant). - However, in common clinical and anatomical usage, it almost exclusively refers to the **appendix of the testis**, which is a Müllerian duct derivative.
Biochemistry
1 questionsIn the electron transport chain (ETC), which enzyme does cyanide inhibit?
NEET-PG 2012 - Biochemistry NEET-PG Practice Questions and MCQs
Question 301: In the electron transport chain (ETC), which enzyme does cyanide inhibit?
- A. Complex II (Succinate dehydrogenase)
- B. Cytochrome c oxidase (Complex IV) (Correct Answer)
- C. Complex I (NADH dehydrogenase)
- D. Complex III (Cytochrome bc1 complex)
Explanation: ***Cytochrome c oxidase (Complex IV)*** - Cyanide binds to the **ferric iron (Fe3+)** in the heme a3 component of cytochrome c oxidase, blocking the final transfer of electrons to oxygen. - This inhibition effectively halts the entire **electron transport chain** and **oxidative phosphorylation**, leading to rapid cellular energy depletion. *Complex I (NADH dehydrogenase)* - While other toxins can inhibit Complex I (e.g., rotenone, amytal), **cyanide specifically targets Complex IV**. - Inhibition here prevents the entry of electrons from **NADH** into the ETC, but it's not cyanide's primary site of action. *Complex III (Cytochrome bc1 complex)* - Complex III is involved in transferring electrons from **ubiquinol** to cytochrome c, but it is not directly inhibited by cyanide. - Antimycin A is a well-known inhibitor of Complex III. *Complex II (Succinate dehydrogenase)* - Complex II directly receives electrons from **succinate** in the citric acid cycle and passes them to ubiquinone, bypassing Complex I. - Cyanide does not inhibit Complex II; inhibitors of this complex include malonate.
Internal Medicine
1 questionsWhich of the following is an acquired condition?
NEET-PG 2012 - Internal Medicine NEET-PG Practice Questions and MCQs
Question 301: Which of the following is an acquired condition?
- A. Polymastia (supernumerary breasts)
- B. Polythelia (extra nipples)
- C. Mastitis (Correct Answer)
- D. Amastia (absence of breast tissue)
Explanation: ***Mastitis*** - **Mastitis** is an **inflammatory condition** of the breast, often caused by bacterial infection, particularly common during **lactation** [1]. - It is an **acquired condition** as it develops after birth due to external or internal factors, not present at birth. *Polymastia (supernumerary breasts)* - **Polymastia** is a **congenital condition** where additional breast tissue develops along the **milk line**. - This condition is present at birth and results from *embryological development anomalies*, not acquired later in life. *Polythelia (extra nipples)* - **Polythelia** refers to the presence of **accessory nipples** along the embryonic milk line and is a **congenital anomaly**. - Like polymastia, it is present from birth due to *developmental errors* and is not an acquired condition. *Amastia (absence of breast tissue)* - **Amastia** is a rare **congenital anomaly** characterized by the complete absence of breast tissue, nipple, and areola. - It is a **birth defect**, meaning it is present from birth and not an acquired condition.
Orthopaedics
1 questionsWhich of the following conditions can cause locking of the knee joint?
NEET-PG 2012 - Orthopaedics NEET-PG Practice Questions and MCQs
Question 301: Which of the following conditions can cause locking of the knee joint?
- A. Osgood Schlatter
- B. Tuberculosis of knee
- C. a and b both
- D. Loose body in knee joint (Correct Answer)
Explanation: ***Loose body in knee joint*** - A **loose body** (e.g., a fragment of cartilage or bone) can get trapped between the articular surfaces of the knee joint, mechanically obstructing its movement and causing sudden, painful **locking**. - This mechanical impingement prevents full extension or flexion of the knee until the loose body shifts, leading to episodic locking symptoms. *Osgood Schlatter* - This condition involves inflammation and potential avulsion of the **tibial tuberosity** where the patellar tendon inserts. - It primarily causes pain and swelling below the kneecap, especially during physical activity, but does not typically result in true mechanical locking of the joint. *Tuberculosis of knee* - **Tuberculosis of the knee joint** is an infectious arthritis that causes chronic pain, swelling, and gradual destruction of articular cartilage and bone. - While it can lead to pain and limited range of motion, it usually does not present with the sudden, intermittent mechanical locking characteristic of a loose body. *a and b both* - Neither **Osgood Schlatter** nor **Tuberculosis of the knee** typically cause the characteristic mechanical locking sensation described for a loose body in the joint. - Each of these conditions has distinct pathophysiological mechanisms and clinical presentations that do not involve a physical obstruction causing locking.