Anatomy
8 questionsThe thoracic duct crosses from the right to the left at the level of
Which of the following is not a branch of the inferior mesenteric artery?
Which structure(s) passes behind the inguinal ligament:
Right ovarian artery is a branch of ?
Ovarian fossa is formed by all except?
Where is the neurovascular plane located in the anterior abdominal wall?
Which statement accurately describes a characteristic of synovial joints?
Which of the following statements about the Corpus Callosum is correct?
NEET-PG 2012 - Anatomy NEET-PG Practice Questions and MCQs
Question 291: The thoracic duct crosses from the right to the left at the level of
- A. T12 vertebra
- B. T2 vertebra
- C. T4-T5 vertebra (Correct Answer)
- D. T6 vertebra
Explanation: ***T4-T5 vertebra*** - The **thoracic duct** crosses from the right to the left side of the vertebral column at the level of the **T4-T5 vertebrae**, specifically just above the root of the left lung. - This crossover is an important anatomical landmark as it signifies the duct's ascent towards the neck to drain into the left subclavian vein. *T12 vertebra* - The **thoracic duct** originates from the **cisterna chyli** at the level of the L1 or L2 vertebra and ascends into the thorax at or below the T12 vertebra, it does not cross over at this level. - This level primarily marks its entry into the thoracic cavity, not its main crossover point. *T6 vertebra* - While the **thoracic duct** is present in the thorax at this level, it does not undergo its characteristic crossover from right to left at the T6 vertebra. - The duct continues its ascent along the right side of the vertebral column before moving across. *T2 vertebra* - By the level of the T2 vertebra, the **thoracic duct** has already crossed to the left side of the vertebral column and is ascending towards its termination in the neck. - The crossover event occurs more inferiorly, at the T4-T5 level.
Question 292: Which of the following is not a branch of the inferior mesenteric artery?
- A. Left colic
- B. Middle rectal (Correct Answer)
- C. Superior rectal
- D. Sigmoidal artery
Explanation: ***Middle rectal artery*** - The **middle rectal artery** [2] is typically a branch of the **internal iliac artery** [2], supplying the middle part of the rectum. - It is not a direct branch of the inferior mesenteric artery. *Left colic artery* - The left colic artery is a direct branch of the **inferior mesenteric artery** [1], supplying the distal transverse colon and descending colon. - It forms an important anastomosis with the middle colic artery [1]. *Superior rectal artery* - The **superior rectal artery** is the terminal branch of the **inferior mesenteric artery**, supplying the upper rectum. - This artery provides the primary arterial supply to the proximal large intestine structures. *Sigmoidal artery* - The **sigmoidal arteries** are typically 2-4 branches arising from the **inferior mesenteric artery**, supplying the sigmoid colon. - These arteries anastomose with branches of the superior rectal and left colic arteries.
Question 293: Which structure(s) passes behind the inguinal ligament:
- A. Femoral branch of genitofemoral nerve
- B. Femoral vein
- C. Psoas major
- D. All of the options (Correct Answer)
Explanation: ***Correct: All of the options*** All three structures pass deep to (behind) the inguinal ligament as they transition from the pelvis/abdomen into the thigh [1]. The inguinal ligament forms the superior border of the femoral triangle [1]. ***Femoral branch of genitofemoral nerve (Correct)*** - Pierces the **psoas major** muscle and descends along its anterior surface - Passes through the **lacuna musculorum** (lateral compartment) deep to the inguinal ligament - Lies **lateral to the femoral artery** - Provides sensory innervation to the skin over the femoral triangle ***Femoral vein (Correct)*** - Continuation of the popliteal vein from the lower limb - Passes through the **lacuna vasorum** (medial compartment/femoral canal) within the **femoral sheath** - Located **medial to the femoral artery** behind the inguinal ligament [1] - Carries deoxygenated blood back to the heart via the external iliac vein ***Psoas major (Correct)*** - Major hip flexor muscle originating from lumbar vertebrae (T12-L5) - Passes through the **lacuna musculorum** deep to the inguinal ligament - Located **lateral to the femoral vessels** - Combines with iliacus to form iliopsoas, inserting on the lesser trochanter of femur
Question 294: Right ovarian artery is a branch of ?
- A. Abdominal aorta (Correct Answer)
- B. Right internal iliac
- C. Common iliac
- D. External iliac
Explanation: ***Abdominal aorta*** - The **right ovarian artery** typically originates directly from the **abdominal aorta**, just inferior to the renal arteries [1]. - This is a direct branch, supplying blood to the **right ovary**, **fallopian tube**, and surrounding structures [1]. *Right internal iliac* - The **internal iliac artery** primarily supplies the **pelvic organs**, gluteal region, and medial thigh [1]. - While it has branches to pelvic structures, the ovarian artery does not originate from it. *Common iliac* - The **common iliac artery** bifurcates into the **internal and external iliac arteries** at the level of the sacroiliac joint. - It does not directly give off the ovarian artery. *External iliac* - The **external iliac artery** continues as the **femoral artery** below the inguinal ligament, primarily supplying the lower limb. - It does not give off branches to the ovary.
Question 295: Ovarian fossa is formed by all except?
- A. Internal iliac artery
- B. Ureter
- C. Obliterated umbilical artery
- D. Round ligament of ovary (Correct Answer)
Explanation: ***Round ligament of ovary*** - The **round ligament of ovary** (ovarian ligament) connects the ovary to the lateral wall of the uterus and does NOT form any boundary of the ovarian fossa [1]. - It lies medial to the ovary and is not involved in forming the depression of the ovarian fossa [1]. - This ligament anchors the ovary but is separate from the peritoneal boundaries defining the fossa [1]. *Obliterated umbilical artery* - The **obliterated umbilical artery** (medial umbilical ligament) forms the **anterior boundary** of the ovarian fossa [2]. - This is a key anatomical landmark running along the lateral pelvic wall anterior to the ovary [2]. *Internal iliac artery* - The **internal iliac artery** forms the **posterior boundary** of the ovarian fossa [2]. - It lies on the lateral pelvic wall, deep and posterior to the ovarian fossa [2]. - This is one of the main structures defining the fossa's posterior limit [2]. *Ureter* - The **ureter** runs along the lateral pelvic wall and forms part of the **posterior/floor boundary** of the ovarian fossa [2]. - It passes posteroinferior to the ovary, contributing to the fossa's posterior limits [2].
Question 296: Where is the neurovascular plane located in the anterior abdominal wall?
- A. Between external oblique and internal oblique
- B. Between internal oblique and transversus abdominis (Correct Answer)
- C. Below transversus abdominis
- D. Above external oblique
Explanation: ***Between internal oblique and transversus abdominis*** - This space, often referred to as the **transversus abdominis plane (TAP)**, contains the major neurovascular bundles supplying the anterior abdominal wall [1]. - The nerves here are the lower **thoracic (T7-T11)** and **iliohypogastric/ilioinguinal (L1) nerves**, along with accompanying blood vessels [1]. *Between external oblique and internal oblique* - This fascial plane primarily houses some superficial nerves and vessels but not the main neurovascular supply to the abdominal wall muscles. - The major neurovascular bundles for deeper muscle layers and skin are located deeper to the **internal oblique** [1]. *Below transversus abdominis* - Below the **transversus abdominis** muscle lies the **transversalis fascia**, an extraperitoneal fat layer, and then the **peritoneum**. - This deeper region primarily contains retroperitoneal structures and organs, not the main neurovascular plane for the abdominal wall. *Above external oblique* - The layer above the **external oblique** muscle is primarily subcutaneous tissue and skin. - While superficial nerves and vessels are present here, this is not the main neurovascular plane that supplies the muscles of the anterior abdominal wall.
Question 297: Which statement accurately describes a characteristic of synovial joints?
- A. Hyaline cartilage covers the articular surfaces of synovial joints. (Correct Answer)
- B. The metacarpo-phalangeal joint is a condyloid joint.
- C. Cartilage can sometimes divide the joint into two cavities.
- D. Stability is inversely proportional to mobility in synovial joints.
Explanation: ***Hyaline cartilage covers the articular surfaces of synovial joints.*** - The articular surfaces of bones within a **synovial joint** are covered by a thin layer of **hyaline cartilage**, providing a smooth, low-friction surface for movement [1]. - This **articular cartilage** absorbs shock and protects the underlying bone from wear and tear [1]. - This is a **universal structural characteristic** of all synovial joints, making it the most accurate answer. *The metacarpo-phalangeal joint is a condyloid joint.* - While this statement is factually true (MCP joints are indeed **condyloid/ellipsoid joints** allowing movement in two planes), it describes a **specific type** of synovial joint, not a general characteristic of all synovial joints. - The question asks for a characteristic that describes synovial joints as a category, not an example of one specific joint classification. - This makes it incorrect as the best answer to this question. *Cartilage can sometimes divide the joint into two cavities.* - This statement refers to an **articular disc** or **meniscus**, which is a fibrocartilaginous structure that can partially or completely divide a synovial joint cavity. - This feature is present in **some** synovial joints (like the knee or temporomandibular joint) but is **not universal**. - Since it's not a characteristic of all synovial joints, it's not the best answer. *Stability is inversely proportional to mobility in synovial joints.* - Generally, there is an **inverse relationship** between **stability** and **mobility** in joints; joints designed for great mobility (e.g., shoulder) tend to be less stable, and vice-versa (e.g., hip). - However, this describes a **functional principle** or trade-off rather than a **structural characteristic** that defines synovial joints. - While true, it's not the defining characteristic being asked for in this question.
Question 298: Which of the following statements about the Corpus Callosum is correct?
- A. All of the options
- B. Connects distant areas of the two sides of the brain
- C. Connects the two frontal lobes
- D. Connects the left and right hemispheres (Correct Answer)
Explanation: ***Connects the left and right hemispheres*** - The **corpus callosum** is the largest **commissural white matter tract** in the brain, uniquely designed to facilitate communication between the **corresponding regions** of the left and right cerebral hemispheres [1]. - Its primary function is to integrate **sensory, motor, and cognitive information** processed in each hemisphere, ensuring coordinated brain activity [1]. *Connects distant areas of the two sides of the brain* - While it connects regions on the two sides of the brain, the statement is too broad and does not specify its role in connecting **corresponding** or **homologous** areas across the hemispheres. - Other fiber tracts (e.g., **anterior commissure**) also connect different areas between the two sides, but the corpus callosum is specific to the **cerebral hemispheres**. *Connects the two frontal lobes* - The corpus callosum connects all four lobes (frontal, parietal, temporal, occipital) between the two hemispheres, not exclusively the **frontal lobes**. - While it does contain fibers connecting the frontal lobes, this statement is **incomplete** and does not capture its overall function. *All of the options* - Since the other options are either **incorrect** or **incomplete**, this option cannot be correct. - The most accurate and encompassing description of the corpus callosum's function among the choices is connecting the left and right hemispheres.
Surgery
2 questionsIVC filter is used in the following situations except -
What is the appropriate treatment for an incidentally detected appendicular carcinoid tumor measuring 2.5 cm?
NEET-PG 2012 - Surgery NEET-PG Practice Questions and MCQs
Question 291: IVC filter is used in the following situations except -
- A. To reduce symptoms
- B. As primary treatment for acute DVT (Correct Answer)
- C. Negligible size of emboli
- D. To prevent progress of native blood vessel disease
Explanation: ***As primary treatment for acute DVT*** - The **primary treatment** for **acute deep vein thrombosis (DVT)** is **anticoagulation therapy** (heparin, warfarin, or DOACs) to prevent clot propagation and embolization. - An **IVC filter** is **NOT primary therapy**—it is reserved for specific situations and does not treat the underlying thrombosis. - **Indications for IVC filter include:** - Absolute **contraindication to anticoagulation** (active bleeding, recent hemorrhagic stroke) - **Recurrent PE despite adequate anticoagulation** - Complications from anticoagulation therapy - Therefore, using IVC filter as primary treatment for acute DVT is **incorrect and not indicated**. *Negligible size of emboli* - While IVC filters trap **large emboli**, the concept of "negligible size emboli" is not a standard clinical consideration for filter placement. - IVC filters are indicated based on **risk of PE** and **contraindications to anticoagulation**, not based on emboli size assessment. *To reduce symptoms* - **IVC filters** do not reduce symptoms of DVT such as pain, swelling, or discomfort. - They function as a **mechanical barrier** to prevent emboli from reaching pulmonary circulation. - Symptom management requires anticoagulation, compression therapy, and leg elevation. *To prevent progress of native blood vessel disease* - IVC filters do not influence progression of underlying **vascular disease** such as atherosclerosis or chronic venous insufficiency. - Their sole function is **mechanical prevention of PE**, not disease modification.
Question 292: What is the appropriate treatment for an incidentally detected appendicular carcinoid tumor measuring 2.5 cm?
- A. Right hemicolectomy (Correct Answer)
- B. Limited resection of the right colon
- C. Total colectomy
- D. Appendicectomy
Explanation: ***Right hemicolectomy*** - An appendiceal carcinoid tumor **larger than 2 cm** (or with **mesoappendix invasion, positive margins, or high-grade features**) warrants a right hemicolectomy due to a significantly higher risk of lymph node metastasis (20-30%). - This 2.5 cm tumor clearly exceeds the 2 cm threshold, making right hemicolectomy the standard of care. - This procedure ensures adequate oncological margins and removal of regional lymph nodes, which is crucial for complete treatment. *Limited resection of the right colon* - This option is insufficient for an appendiceal carcinoid of this size, as it may not remove all regional lymph nodes or provide adequate oncological margins. - Limited resection lacks the systematic lymphadenectomy required for tumors exceeding 2 cm. *Total colectomy* - This is an **overly aggressive** and unnecessary procedure for an isolated appendiceal carcinoid tumor, even one of this size. - Total colectomy is typically reserved for diffuse colonic involvement, multifocal tumors, or specific genetic syndromes, which is not indicated here. *Appendicectomy* - An appendicectomy alone is only appropriate for very small appendiceal carcinoid tumors, typically **less than 1 cm** in size, with negative margins and without evidence of mesoappendix invasion or aggressive features. - For a 2.5 cm tumor, the risk of regional lymph node involvement (20-30%) is too high for appendicectomy to be considered adequate oncological treatment.