Anatomy
4 questionsAzygos vein drains into:
Inferior parathyroid develops from which pharyngeal pouch?
Cricoid cartilage lies at which vertebral level?
In walking, gravity tends to tilt pelvis and trunk to the unsupported side, the major factor in preventing this unwanted movement is?
NEET-PG 2012 - Anatomy NEET-PG Practice Questions and MCQs
Question 281: Azygos vein drains into:
- A. Left brachiocephalic vein
- B. Inferior vena cava
- C. Superior vena cava (Correct Answer)
- D. Right brachiocephalic vein
Explanation: Wait, what? Azygos vein drains into: ***Superior vena cava*** - The **azygos vein** ascends along the right side of the vertebral column and typically arches over the root of the right lung before draining into the **superior vena cava (SVC)**. - This anatomical arrangement allows the azygos system to collect venous blood from the posterior thoracic and abdominal walls, as well as the bronchi and esophagus, ultimately returning it to the systemic circulation via the SVC [1]. *Left brachiocephalic vein* - The **left brachiocephalic vein** drains blood from the upper left limb and left side of the head and neck. - It merges with the right brachiocephalic vein to form the SVC; the azygos vein does not directly drain into it. *Inferior vena cava* - The **inferior vena cava (IVC)** collects deoxygenated blood from the lower body. - The azygos system primarily drains structures above the diaphragm, distinct from the IVC's drainage area. *Right brachiocephalic vein* - The **right brachiocephalic vein** drains blood from the upper right limb and right side of the head and neck. - While it contributes to the formation of the SVC, the azygos vein's direct connection is to the SVC itself, not the right brachiocephalic vein.
Question 282: Inferior parathyroid develops from which pharyngeal pouch?
- A. 1st
- B. 2nd
- C. 3rd (Correct Answer)
- D. 4th
Explanation: The inferior parathyroid glands develop from the dorsal wing of the third pharyngeal pouch. Due to their origin, they often migrate further caudally than the superior parathyroid glands, sometimes even locating within the thymus which also develops from the third pouch. *1st* - The first pharyngeal pouch contributes to the formation of the eustachian tube, tympanic cavity, and mastoid air cells. - It has no role in the development of the parathyroid glands. *2nd* - The second pharyngeal pouch mainly gives rise to the palatine tonsils and their crypts. - It is not involved in the development of parathyroid tissue. *4th* - The fourth pharyngeal pouch gives rise to the superior parathyroid glands and the parafollicular cells (C cells) of the thyroid, which produce calcitonin. - While it forms parathyroid tissue, it is for the superior glands, not the inferior ones.
Question 283: Cricoid cartilage lies at which vertebral level?
- A. C3
- B. C6 (Correct Answer)
- C. T1
- D. T4
Explanation: **C6** - The **cricoid cartilage** is an important anatomical landmark, as it signifies the transition from the **laryngopharynx** to the **esophagus** and the start of the **trachea**. - Its location at **C6 vertebral level** is significant for procedures like tracheostomy and in identifying the narrowest part of the adult airway. *C3* - The C3 vertebral level is typically associated with the **hyoid bone**, which is superior to the cricoid cartilage. - The **epiglottis** and the superior aspect of the larynx are more commonly found at C3-C4. *T1* - The T1 vertebral level is in the **thoracic spine**, well below the neck, and is associated with the **apex of the lung** and the **first rib**. - The airway structures at this level are primarily the **trachea** as it enters the thorax. *T4* - The T4 vertebral level is significant as it marks the approximate location of the **carina**, where the trachea bifurcates into the main bronchi. - This level is much lower than the larynx and cricoid cartilage.
Question 284: In walking, gravity tends to tilt pelvis and trunk to the unsupported side, the major factor in preventing this unwanted movement is?
- A. Adductor muscles
- B. Quadriceps
- C. Gluteus medius and minimus (Correct Answer)
- D. Gluteus maximus
Explanation: ***Gluteus medius and minimus*** - The **gluteus medius** and **gluteus minimus** are essential **abductors** of the hip, primarily responsible for stabilizing the pelvis during the **single-limb support phase of gait**. - When one leg is lifted during walking, these muscles on the **stance leg side** contract to prevent the pelvis from tilting downwards on the unsupported swing leg side. *Adductor muscles* - **Adductor muscles** (adductor longus, brevis, magnus, pectineus, gracilis) primarily function to bring the thigh toward the midline of the body. - While they play a role in gait stability, their main action is not to prevent the lateral pelvic tilt described. *Quadriceps* - The quadriceps femoris group (rectus femoris, vastus lateralis, medialis, intermedius) are powerful **extensors of the knee**. - They are crucial for weight acceptance and propulsion during walking but do not directly prevent lateral pelvic tilt [1]. *Gluteus maximus* - The **gluteus maximus** is the largest and most powerful muscle of the hip, primarily responsible for **hip extension** and **external rotation**. - It is crucial for activities like climbing stairs or running, but its main role in normal walking is not to prevent lateral pelvic tilt; that function is more specific to the gluteus medius and minimus.
Biochemistry
1 questionsWhat is the classification of the Y chromosome?
NEET-PG 2012 - Biochemistry NEET-PG Practice Questions and MCQs
Question 281: What is the classification of the Y chromosome?
- A. Metacentric
- B. Submetacentric (Correct Answer)
- C. Acrocentric
- D. None of the options
Explanation: ***Submetacentric*** - The **Y chromosome** is classified as submetacentric because its **centromere** is located off-center, resulting in two arms of unequal length. - The short arm (Yp) is smaller than the long arm (Yq), but not as disproportionate as in acrocentric chromosomes. - The **X chromosome** is also submetacentric, making both sex chromosomes belong to this category. *Metacentric* - A **metacentric chromosome** has its **centromere** located in the middle, resulting in two arms of approximately equal length. - Examples include chromosomes 1, 3, 16, 19, and 20, which have nearly equal arm ratios unlike the Y chromosome. *Acrocentric* - An **acrocentric chromosome** has its **centromere** located very close to one end, creating one very short arm and one very long arm. - The five acrocentric human chromosomes are **13, 14, 15, 21, and 22**, which possess satellite DNA and nucleolar organizing regions (NORs) on their short arms. - The **Y chromosome is NOT acrocentric** despite historical confusion; it has a more centrally positioned centromere than true acrocentric chromosomes. *None of the options* - This option is incorrect because the Y chromosome has a specific and well-established classification as **submetacentric** based on its centromere position and arm ratio.
Internal Medicine
1 questionsWhich of the following is an acquired condition?
NEET-PG 2012 - Internal Medicine NEET-PG Practice Questions and MCQs
Question 281: Which of the following is an acquired condition?
- A. Polymastia (supernumerary breasts)
- B. Polythelia (extra nipples)
- C. Mastitis (Correct Answer)
- D. Amastia (absence of breast tissue)
Explanation: ***Mastitis*** - **Mastitis** is an **inflammatory condition** of the breast, often caused by bacterial infection, particularly common during **lactation** [1]. - It is an **acquired condition** as it develops after birth due to external or internal factors, not present at birth. *Polymastia (supernumerary breasts)* - **Polymastia** is a **congenital condition** where additional breast tissue develops along the **milk line**. - This condition is present at birth and results from *embryological development anomalies*, not acquired later in life. *Polythelia (extra nipples)* - **Polythelia** refers to the presence of **accessory nipples** along the embryonic milk line and is a **congenital anomaly**. - Like polymastia, it is present from birth due to *developmental errors* and is not an acquired condition. *Amastia (absence of breast tissue)* - **Amastia** is a rare **congenital anomaly** characterized by the complete absence of breast tissue, nipple, and areola. - It is a **birth defect**, meaning it is present from birth and not an acquired condition.
Obstetrics and Gynecology
1 questionsWhich structure do cytotrophoblasts invade during implantation?
NEET-PG 2012 - Obstetrics and Gynecology NEET-PG Practice Questions and MCQs
Question 281: Which structure do cytotrophoblasts invade during implantation?
- A. Decidua capsularis
- B. Decidua vera
- C. Decidua basalis (Correct Answer)
- D. Decidua parietalis
Explanation: ***Decidua basalis*** - The **cytotrophoblasts** invade the maternal **decidua basalis**, which is the portion of the **endometrium** directly underlying the implanted embryo, forming the maternal component of the **placenta**. - This invasion is crucial for establishing the **placenta** and allowing for nutrient and waste exchange between the mother and the fetus. *Decidua parietalis* - The **decidua parietalis** is the portion of the **endometrium** lining the rest of the **uterine cavity**, not directly involved in the immediate implantation site. - It plays a role later in pregnancy, fusing with the **decidua capsularis** as the **embryo** grows. *Decidua capsularis* - The **decidua capsularis** is the portion of the endometrium that overlies the implanted embryo, separating it from the uterine lumen. - It does not undergo invasion by the **cytotrophoblasts** in the same way the **decidua basalis** does. *Decidua vera* - The **decidua vera** is another term for the **decidua parietalis**, referring to the endometrial lining of the uterine cavity that is not involved in the implantation site. - It is not directly invaded by **cytotrophoblasts** during implantation.
Orthopaedics
1 questionsWhich of the following conditions can cause locking of the knee joint?
NEET-PG 2012 - Orthopaedics NEET-PG Practice Questions and MCQs
Question 281: Which of the following conditions can cause locking of the knee joint?
- A. Osgood Schlatter
- B. Tuberculosis of knee
- C. a and b both
- D. Loose body in knee joint (Correct Answer)
Explanation: ***Loose body in knee joint*** - A **loose body** (e.g., a fragment of cartilage or bone) can get trapped between the articular surfaces of the knee joint, mechanically obstructing its movement and causing sudden, painful **locking**. - This mechanical impingement prevents full extension or flexion of the knee until the loose body shifts, leading to episodic locking symptoms. *Osgood Schlatter* - This condition involves inflammation and potential avulsion of the **tibial tuberosity** where the patellar tendon inserts. - It primarily causes pain and swelling below the kneecap, especially during physical activity, but does not typically result in true mechanical locking of the joint. *Tuberculosis of knee* - **Tuberculosis of the knee joint** is an infectious arthritis that causes chronic pain, swelling, and gradual destruction of articular cartilage and bone. - While it can lead to pain and limited range of motion, it usually does not present with the sudden, intermittent mechanical locking characteristic of a loose body. *a and b both* - Neither **Osgood Schlatter** nor **Tuberculosis of the knee** typically cause the characteristic mechanical locking sensation described for a loose body in the joint. - Each of these conditions has distinct pathophysiological mechanisms and clinical presentations that do not involve a physical obstruction causing locking.
Physiology
1 questionsHaploid number of chromosomes is first seen in?
NEET-PG 2012 - Physiology NEET-PG Practice Questions and MCQs
Question 281: Haploid number of chromosomes is first seen in?
- A. Spermatogonia
- B. Primary spermatocytes
- C. Secondary spermatocyte (Correct Answer)
- D. Spermatids
Explanation: ***Secondary spermatocyte*** - A secondary spermatocyte is formed after **meiosis I**, where the homologous chromosomes are separated, resulting in a cell with a **haploid number of chromosomes (n)**, although each chromosome still consists of two sister chromatids. - This is the **first stage** where haploidy is achieved in spermatogenesis. - These cells are transient and quickly undergo meiosis II to form spermatids. *Spermatogonia* - Spermatogonia are **diploid (2n)** germline stem cells that undergo mitosis to produce more spermatogonia or differentiate into primary spermatocytes. - They contain the full complement of chromosomes found in somatic cells. *Primary spermatocytes* - Primary spermatocytes are also **diploid (2n)** cells that enter meiosis I. - Before meiosis I, DNA replication occurs, so each chromosome consists of two sister chromatids, but the cell still maintains a diploid chromosome number. *Spermatids* - Spermatids are formed after **meiosis II** from secondary spermatocytes and are also **haploid (n)**. - However, secondary spermatocytes become haploid **earlier** in the process, immediately following the reductional division of meiosis I.
Surgery
1 questionsIVC filter is used in the following situations except -
NEET-PG 2012 - Surgery NEET-PG Practice Questions and MCQs
Question 281: IVC filter is used in the following situations except -
- A. To reduce symptoms
- B. As primary treatment for acute DVT (Correct Answer)
- C. Negligible size of emboli
- D. To prevent progress of native blood vessel disease
Explanation: ***As primary treatment for acute DVT*** - The **primary treatment** for **acute deep vein thrombosis (DVT)** is **anticoagulation therapy** (heparin, warfarin, or DOACs) to prevent clot propagation and embolization. - An **IVC filter** is **NOT primary therapy**—it is reserved for specific situations and does not treat the underlying thrombosis. - **Indications for IVC filter include:** - Absolute **contraindication to anticoagulation** (active bleeding, recent hemorrhagic stroke) - **Recurrent PE despite adequate anticoagulation** - Complications from anticoagulation therapy - Therefore, using IVC filter as primary treatment for acute DVT is **incorrect and not indicated**. *Negligible size of emboli* - While IVC filters trap **large emboli**, the concept of "negligible size emboli" is not a standard clinical consideration for filter placement. - IVC filters are indicated based on **risk of PE** and **contraindications to anticoagulation**, not based on emboli size assessment. *To reduce symptoms* - **IVC filters** do not reduce symptoms of DVT such as pain, swelling, or discomfort. - They function as a **mechanical barrier** to prevent emboli from reaching pulmonary circulation. - Symptom management requires anticoagulation, compression therapy, and leg elevation. *To prevent progress of native blood vessel disease* - IVC filters do not influence progression of underlying **vascular disease** such as atherosclerosis or chronic venous insufficiency. - Their sole function is **mechanical prevention of PE**, not disease modification.