Anatomy
4 questionsWhat is the outer layer of the blastocyst called?
Which of the following is an operculated sulcus ?
Risorius is a muscle of?
From which ribs does the spleen extend?
NEET-PG 2012 - Anatomy NEET-PG Practice Questions and MCQs
Question 261: What is the outer layer of the blastocyst called?
- A. Embryo proper
- B. Trophoblast (Correct Answer)
- C. Primitive streak
- D. Yolk sac
Explanation: ***Trophoblast*** - The **trophoblast** is the outer layer of cells of the blastocyst, which goes on to form the **placenta** and other extraembryonic tissues [1]. - It plays a crucial role in the **implantation** of the blastocyst into the uterine wall and in producing hormones [1]. *Primitive streak* - The **primitive streak** is a structure that forms during **gastrulation**, much later than the initial blastocyst stage. - It establishes the **anterior-posterior axis** and initiates the formation of the three germ layers. *Yolk sac* - The **yolk sac** is an extraembryonic membrane that forms within the blastocyst cavity, but it is not the outermost layer of the entire structure. - It is involved in early **nutrient transfer** and **blood cell formation** before the placenta is fully functional. *Embryo proper* - The **embryo proper**, derived from the **inner cell mass (ICM)**, is the part of the blastocyst that will develop into the actual embryo [2]. - It is located *inside* the trophoblast layer, not forming the outer boundary of the blastocyst [2].
Question 262: Which of the following is an operculated sulcus ?
- A. Lunate
- B. Calcarine
- C. Central
- D. Sylvian fissure (lateral sulcus) (Correct Answer)
Explanation: ***Sylvian fissure (lateral sulcus)*** - The **lateral sulcus**, also known as the Sylvian fissure, is a deep groove on the lateral surface of the brain that **separates the frontal and parietal lobes from the temporal lobe**. - It is considered an **operculated sulcus** because its banks contain the insula, which is a buried part of the cerebral cortex covered by the surrounding cortical folds called opercula. *Calcarine* - The **calcarine sulcus** is located on the medial surface of the occipital lobe, forming the primary visual cortex, and is not an operculated sulcus. - It delineates the **upper and lower banks of the visual cortex** and does not involve overlying cortical structures. *Lunate* - The **lunate sulcus** is found on the posterior part of the occipital lobe and is not typically described as an operculated sulcus. - It represents a boundary in the visual cortex, but its banks do not hide a buried cortical region like the insula. *Central* - The **central sulcus** (Rolandic fissure) separates the frontal lobe from the parietal lobe and is a prominent sulcus, but it is not operculated. - Its banks contain the **precentral gyrus** (primary motor cortex) and **postcentral gyrus** (primary somatosensory cortex) directly facing each other.
Question 263: Risorius is a muscle of?
- A. Mastication
- B. Deglutition
- C. Facial expression (Correct Answer)
- D. Eye movement
Explanation: Facial expression - The **risorius muscle** retracts the **corner of the mouth** laterally, contributing to smiling or grimacing. - It falls under the category of **mimetic muscles**, all of which are innervated by the **facial nerve (cranial nerve VII)**. *Mastication* - Muscles of mastication, such as the **masseter**, **temporalis**, and **pterygoids**, are primarily involved in **chewing** and moving the mandible. - These muscles are innervated by the **trigeminal nerve (cranial nerve V)**, not the facial nerve. *Deglutition* - Deglutition refers to the process of **swallowing**, involving muscles of the **pharynx** and **larynx**. - Examples include the **palatoglossus**, **stylopharyngeus**, and **superior pharyngeal constrictor**. *Eye movement* - Muscles responsible for eye movement are the **extrinsic ocular muscles**, such as the **recti** and **oblique muscles** [1]. - These muscles are innervated by the **oculomotor (III)**, **trochlear (IV)**, and **abducens (VI)** cranial nerves. *Note: No provided references mention the risorius muscle, mimetic muscles, or muscles of mastication; citations are applied only to supported sub-topics.*
Question 264: From which ribs does the spleen extend?
- A. 5th to 9th rib
- B. 2nd to 5th rib
- C. 11th to 12th rib
- D. 9th to 11th rib (Correct Answer)
Explanation: ***9th to 11th rib*** - The **spleen** is located in the **left upper quadrant** of the abdomen, deep to the 9th, 10th, and 11th ribs. - Its protected position beneath these ribs makes it vulnerable to injury from trauma to the left lower chest or upper abdomen. *5th to 9th rib* - This range primarily covers the location of the **heart** and the upper part of the **lungs**. - While the spleen is superior to other abdominal organs, it does not extend as high as the 5th rib. *2nd to 5th rib* - This region is mainly associated with the **upper lobes of the lungs** and the **superior mediastinum**. - The spleen is an abdominal organ and is situated much lower in the thoracic cavity. *11th to 12th rib* - This range is too low and posterior for the typical position of the spleen, especially for its superior border. - The 12th rib primarily overlies the **kidneys** and the more inferior aspects of the diaphragm.
Biochemistry
1 questionsWhat cofactor is required for the proper functioning of glucose-6-phosphate dehydrogenase?
NEET-PG 2012 - Biochemistry NEET-PG Practice Questions and MCQs
Question 261: What cofactor is required for the proper functioning of glucose-6-phosphate dehydrogenase?
- A. NAD
- B. NADP (Correct Answer)
- C. FAD
- D. FMN
Explanation: ***NADP*** - **NADP+** (nicotinamide adenine dinucleotide phosphate) acts as the **electron acceptor** in the **glucose-6-phosphate dehydrogenase (G6PD)** reaction, becoming **NADPH**. - **NADPH** is crucial for maintaining the **redox balance** in cells, particularly in red blood cells, by reducing **oxidative stress**. *NAD* - **NAD+** (nicotinamide adenine dinucleotide) is a primary cofactor for many **dehydrogenase reactions** in catabolic pathways like **glycolysis** and the **Krebs cycle**. - It primarily functions as an electron acceptor in pathways that generate **ATP**, distinct from the role of **NADPH** in reductive biosynthesis and antioxidant defense. *FAD* - **FAD** (flavin adenine dinucleotide) is a coenzyme derived from **riboflavin (vitamin B2)** that is involved in various redox reactions, often in the form of **flavoproteins**. - Enzymes like **succinate dehydrogenase** in the electron transport chain utilize **FAD** as an electron acceptor, which is not the case for G6PD. *FMN* - **FMN** (flavin mononucleotide) is another coenzyme derived from **riboflavin**, structurally similar to FAD but lacking the additional adenosine monophosphate. - It participates in electron transfer reactions, particularly within **complex I** of the **electron transport chain**, but is not a cofactor for G6PD.
Internal Medicine
1 questionsProgressive distal-to-proximal motor recovery following nerve regeneration is most characteristic of which type of nerve injury?
NEET-PG 2012 - Internal Medicine NEET-PG Practice Questions and MCQs
Question 261: Progressive distal-to-proximal motor recovery following nerve regeneration is most characteristic of which type of nerve injury?
- A. Axonotmesis (Correct Answer)
- B. Neurotmesis
- C. Neuropraxia
- D. Nerve injury
Explanation: ***Axonotmesis*** - Involves damage to the **axon** and myelin sheath, while the surrounding **epineurium** remains intact. - This preservation of the connective tissue allows for guided **regeneration** of axons from distal to proximal, leading to a good prognosis for recovery [1]. *Neurotmesis* - Refers to the **complete transection** of the nerve, including the axon, myelin, and all connective tissue sheaths. - Recovery is often **incomplete** or requires surgical repair, as significant misdirection of regenerating axons is common. *Neuropraxia* - Characterized by a **temporary block** in nerve conduction, typically due to **demyelination**, with the axon remaining intact. - Recovery is usually **rapid** and complete, occurring within days to weeks, as no axonal regeneration is needed. *Nerve injury* - This is a **general term** that encompasses all types of nerve damage, from mild to severe. - It does not specify a particular mechanism or pattern of recovery, making it less precise than the more specific classifications.
Physiology
4 questionsWhat is the fixed length of a myosin filament?
What happens to the concentration of inulin as fluid passes through the Proximal Convoluted Tubule (PCT)?
Gastric secretions are essential for absorption of -
What is the difference between the amount of Oxygen consumed and Carbon Dioxide produced per minute at rest?
NEET-PG 2012 - Physiology NEET-PG Practice Questions and MCQs
Question 261: What is the fixed length of a myosin filament?
- A. 0.16 nm
- B. 1.6 micrometers (Correct Answer)
- C. 16 nm
- D. 1.6 mm
Explanation: ***1.6 micrometers*** - Myosin filaments, also known as **thick filaments**, are integral components of muscle contraction and have a characteristic fixed length. This length is precisely **1.6 micrometers** in mammalian skeletal muscle. - This consistent length is crucial for the **sliding filament model** of muscle contraction, ensuring proper overlap with actin filaments and efficient force generation. *0.16 nm* - This value is significantly too small; **nanometers (nm)** are typically used for atomic or molecular distances, not for entire protein filaments like myosin. - A myosin filament is composed of hundreds of myosin molecules, making its overall length much larger than a fraction of a nanometer. *16 nm* - While nanometers are used for molecular structures, 16 nm is still too small for a myosin filament. The entire filament is roughly **100 times larger** than this value. - This dimension might be more appropriate for the diameter of a single myosin molecule's head region, but not the entire filament's length. *1.6 mm* - This value is significantly too large; **millimeters (mm)** are visible to the naked eye and represent macroscopic objects. - Muscle filaments are microscopic structures, and a length of 1.6 mm would imply they are many times longer than an entire muscle cell.
Question 262: What happens to the concentration of inulin as fluid passes through the Proximal Convoluted Tubule (PCT)?
- A. Concentration of inulin increases (Correct Answer)
- B. Concentration of urea remains constant
- C. Concentration of HCO3- increases
- D. Concentration of Na+ decreases
Explanation: ***Concentration of inulin increases*** - Inulin is **freely filtered** at the glomerulus and is neither reabsorbed nor secreted along the renal tubule, making it an excellent marker for **glomerular filtration rate (GFR)**. - As water is reabsorbed from the PCT, the volume of tubular fluid decreases, causing the concentration of **unreabsorbed solutes**, like inulin, to increase. *Concentration of urea remains constant* - Urea is **reabsorbed** along the tubule, though passively; its concentration typically **increases** initially in the PCT due to water reabsorption, but then decreases as some is reabsorbed. - The statement is incorrect because urea concentration changes significantly throughout the nephron, particularly increasing as water is reabsorbed and then decreasing with some reabsorption. *Concentration of HCO3- increases* - The majority (approximately 80-90%) of **bicarbonate (HCO3-)** is reabsorbed in the PCT, primarily through its conversion to CO2 within the tubular lumen and then back to HCO3- intracellularly. - Therefore, the concentration of HCO3- in the tubular fluid actually **decreases** significantly as fluid passes through the PCT. *Concentration of Na+ decreases* - **Sodium (Na+)** is actively reabsorbed along the entire nephron, with about 65-70% reabsorbed in the PCT. - While Na+ is reabsorbed, water follows passively, so its concentration in the tubular fluid remains relatively **iso-osmotic** with plasma, meaning its concentration does not significantly decrease as fluid passes through the PCT, remaining fairly constant.
Question 263: Gastric secretions are essential for absorption of -
- A. Cobalamin (Correct Answer)
- B. Fat
- C. Thiamine
- D. Folic acid
Explanation: ***Cobalamin*** - **Intrinsic factor**, secreted by gastric parietal cells, is crucial for the absorption of **vitamin B12 (cobalamin)** in the terminal ileum [1]. - Without sufficient intrinsic factor, **pernicious anemia** can develop due to impaired B12 absorption [2]. *Fat* - Fat digestion primarily occurs in the **small intestine** with the help of **bile salts** and **pancreatic lipases**. - While gastric lipase begins some fat digestion, it's not essential for overall fat absorption. *Thiamine* - **Thiamine (vitamin B1)** is absorbed in the jejunum and ileum, primarily via **active transport** and passive diffusion. - Gastric secretions do not play a direct, essential role in its absorption. *Folic acid* - **Folic acid** is absorbed in the **duodenum and jejunum** as monoglutamates after being deconjugated from polyglutamate forms. - This process is not directly dependent on gastric secretions [2].
Question 264: What is the difference between the amount of Oxygen consumed and Carbon Dioxide produced per minute at rest?
- A. 20 ml/min
- B. 50 ml/min (Correct Answer)
- C. 75 ml/min
- D. 100 ml/min
Explanation: ***50 ml/min*** - The body typically consumes about **250 ml/min of oxygen** at rest and produces approximately **200 ml/min of carbon dioxide**. - The difference between oxygen consumed and carbon dioxide produced is therefore **50 ml/min** (250 - 200 = 50). - This difference exists because the **respiratory quotient (RQ)** is approximately **0.8** (200/250), meaning less CO2 is produced than O2 consumed on a molar basis. *20 ml/min* - This value is **too low** and underestimates the physiological difference between oxygen consumption and carbon dioxide production. - With typical O2 consumption of 250 ml/min and RQ of 0.8, the difference cannot be this small. *75 ml/min* - This value represents an **overestimation** of the difference between oxygen consumption and carbon dioxide production under normal resting conditions. - This would imply an RQ of approximately 0.7, which is lower than the typical mixed diet RQ of 0.8. *100 ml/min* - This value is a significant **overestimation** of the physiological difference. - This would suggest an RQ of 0.6, which is not physiologically normal for resting conditions on a mixed diet.