Anesthesiology
1 questionsThe inducing agent of choice in shock -
NEET-PG 2012 - Anesthesiology NEET-PG Practice Questions and MCQs
Question 1201: The inducing agent of choice in shock -
- A. Isoflurane
- B. Ketamine (Correct Answer)
- C. Desflurane
- D. Thiopentone
Explanation: **Ketamine** * **Ketamine** is preferred in shock due to its sympathomimetic properties, which maintain or increase blood pressure and heart rate, thus preserving **cardiovascular stability**. * It also has minimal respiratory depression and bronchodilatory effects, making it safer for patients with compromised respiratory function. * The cardiovascular stimulating effects of ketamine helps maintain haemodynamic stability in shocked patients. It maintains cerebral autoregulation and perfusion of vital organs. *Isoflurane* * **Isoflurane** is an inhaled anesthetic that typically causes **dose-dependent myocardial depression** and **vasodilation**, which can worsen hypotension in a shock state. * It can significantly decrease systemic vascular resistance, thereby exacerbating the already compromised cardiovascular status of a shock patient. *Desflurane* * **Desflurane** is an inhaled anesthetic known for its rapid onset and offset but can cause a **significant increase in heart rate and blood pressure** upon rapid concentration changes, which may be detrimental in an unstable patient. * Like isoflurane, it also causes dose-dependent peripheral vasodilation and myocardial depression, which can worsen hypotension in patients in shock. *Thiopentone* * **Thiopentone** is a barbiturate that causes significant **myocardial depression** and **peripheral vasodilation**, leading to a substantial drop in blood pressure. * Its use in shock would further compromise cardiovascular stability and is generally contraindicated due to its potent hemodynamic depressant effects.
Community Medicine
2 questionsThe arthropod vector BEST KNOWN for transovarian transmission of multiple pathogens is -
The population norm for a trained health aide is:
NEET-PG 2012 - Community Medicine NEET-PG Practice Questions and MCQs
Question 1201: The arthropod vector BEST KNOWN for transovarian transmission of multiple pathogens is -
- A. Fleas
- B. Ticks (Correct Answer)
- C. Sandfly
- D. Mosquitoes
Explanation: ***Ticks*** - Ticks are well-known for their diverse modes of pathogen transmission, including **transovarian transmission**, where pathogens are passed from an infected female tick to her offspring through the eggs. - This mechanism is crucial for the maintenance and spread of several tick-borne diseases, such as **Rocky Mountain spotted fever (caused by *Rickettsia rickettsii*)** and **Babesiosis** (caused by *Babesia* species). *Fleas* - Fleas are primarily known for transmitting pathogens such as *Yersinia pestis* (causing **plague**) and *Rickettsia typhi* (causing **murine typhus**) through their bites, but transovarian transmission is not their primary mode. - They typically transmit pathogens through **regurgitation** during feeding or by their **feces** being rubbed into the bite wound. *Sandfly* - Sandflies are vectors for diseases like **leishmaniasis**, caused by parasitic protozoa of the genus *Leishmania*. - They transmit these pathogens through **saliva** during blood meals, but transovarian transmission is not a significant feature of their lifecycle. *Mosquitoes* - Mosquitoes are vectors for a wide range of diseases, including **malaria**, **dengue**, **Zika**, and **West Nile virus**, primarily through the **injection of saliva** during blood feeding. - While some arboviruses can exhibit transovarian transmission in mosquitoes, it is not as prominent or broadly impactful across multiple pathogens as it is in ticks.
Question 1202: The population norm for a trained health aide is:
- A. 5000
- B. 100000
- C. 1000 (Correct Answer)
- D. 30000
Explanation: ***1000*** - According to public health guidelines, a single **trained health aide** is typically designated to serve a population of approximately **1,000 individuals**. - This staffing level allows for effective outreach, basic health services, and community engagement in primary healthcare. *5000* - A population of **5,000** would generally require multiple health aides or a more comprehensive primary health unit with a larger staff. - This ratio is too high for a single health aide to provide adequate care and coverage. *100000* - A population of **100,000** is far too large for a single trained health aide to manage, requiring an extensive healthcare system with numerous professionals. - This number represents a district or sub-district level population, not the responsibility of one aide. *30000* - Serving **30,000** people would be an impossible task for one health aide, as it far exceeds the standard allocation for community-level health services. - This population size usually necessitates a full-fledged primary health center or hospital.
Dental
1 questionsThe primary indication for enucleation in pediatric patients is:
NEET-PG 2012 - Dental NEET-PG Practice Questions and MCQs
Question 1201: The primary indication for enucleation in pediatric patients is:
- A. Panophthalmitis
- B. Acute congestive glaucoma
- C. Retinoblastoma (Correct Answer)
- D. None of the options
Explanation: ***Retinoblastoma*** - **Retinoblastoma** is a malignant tumor of the retina commonly seen in children, and **enucleation** (surgical removal of the eye) is frequently the primary treatment to prevent tumor spread and save the child's life. - The decision for enucleation is based on the tumor's size, location, and potential for dissemination, especially when other globe-sparing therapies are not feasible or fail. *Panophthalmitis* - **Panophthalmitis** is a severe infection involving all coats of the eye and orbital tissues, which can be managed with aggressive antibiotic therapy. - While enucleation might be a last resort in cases of uncontrolled infection and severe pain, it is not the primary indication, especially in pediatric patients where globe salvage is often attempted first. *Acute congestive glaucoma* - **Acute congestive glaucoma** involves a sudden, severe increase in intraocular pressure, causing pain and vision loss, but it is primarily managed with medical and surgical interventions to lower pressure. - Enucleation is not a standard treatment for acute glaucoma unless the eye is blind, painful, and unresponsive to all other treatments, and it is rarely the primary indication in children. *None of the options* - This option is incorrect because **retinoblastoma** is a well-established and common primary indication for enucleation in pediatric patients due to its life-threatening nature.
Forensic Medicine
2 questionsIn forensic examination of gunshot wounds, which of the following is NOT typically found in contact wounds from shotgun discharge?
Police inquest is NOT required in:
NEET-PG 2012 - Forensic Medicine NEET-PG Practice Questions and MCQs
Question 1201: In forensic examination of gunshot wounds, which of the following is NOT typically found in contact wounds from shotgun discharge?
- A. Stippling pattern around entry wound
- B. Powder burns on skin surface
- C. Muzzle imprint on contact wound
- D. Beveling of bone at exit wound (Correct Answer)
Explanation: ***Beveling of bone at exit wound*** - **Beveling** refers to the characteristic fracture pattern in bone caused by projectile penetration - At **entry wounds**, the inner table of bone shows a wider defect than the outer table (internal beveling) - At **exit wounds**, the outer table shows a wider defect than the inner table (external beveling) - While contact shotgun wounds to the head can cause devastating injuries with bone fragmentation, the specific question asks about features "**NOT typically found**" in the context of identifying contact wounds - Among the options, beveling at exit wounds is the least relevant to **identifying contact wound characteristics** at the entry site, which is the primary focus of forensic examination *Stippling pattern around entry wound* - **Stippling (tattooing)** consists of punctate abrasions caused by unburnt gunpowder particles striking the skin - This is characteristic of **intermediate-range wounds** (approximately 15-60 cm or 6-24 inches), NOT contact wounds - In a **contact wound**, the muzzle is pressed directly against the skin, so powder and gases are driven **into** the wound tract, not deposited **around** the entry site - **This is NOT found in contact wounds** and could be a correct answer *Powder burns on skin surface* - **Powder burns** are thermal injuries from hot gases and burning powder particles that scorch the skin surface - These indicate **close-range** discharge (within a few inches) but NOT true contact - In a **hard contact wound**, the muzzle is sealed against the skin, so hot gases enter the wound rather than causing surface burns - **This is NOT typically found in true contact wounds** and could be a correct answer *Muzzle imprint on contact wound* - A **muzzle imprint (muzzle contusion)** is an abrasion or contusion pattern matching the shape of the firearm's muzzle - This occurs when the muzzle is pressed firmly against the skin at discharge, with the explosive gases causing the skin to recoil against the muzzle end - This is a **pathognomonic sign of a contact gunshot wound** - **This IS found in contact wounds** and is therefore NOT the correct answer to this question
Question 1202: Police inquest is NOT required in:
- A. Suicide
- B. Murder
- C. Death in police custody
- D. Natural death due to disease in elderly person at home (Correct Answer)
Explanation: ***Natural death due to disease in elderly person at home*** - Police inquest is **NOT required** for natural deaths occurring at home with a known medical condition - A registered medical practitioner who has been attending the deceased can issue a death certificate - No suspicion of foul play or unnatural circumstances exists - This is the only scenario among the options where police involvement is not mandated *Death in police custody* - Police inquest is **absolutely required** under **Section 176 CrPC** (mandatory magisterial inquiry) - Custodial deaths are considered highly sensitive and require thorough investigation - Ensures accountability and rules out torture, negligence, or human rights violations - Automatic judicial oversight is mandated by law *Suicide* - Police inquest is **required** as suicide is classified as an **unnatural death** - Investigation needed to confirm manner of death and rule out homicide - Section 174 CrPC mandates police investigation for all unnatural deaths - Documentation required for legal and insurance purposes *Murder* - Police inquest is **absolutely required** as murder is a **criminal homicide** - Section 174 CrPC mandates immediate police investigation - Crime scene examination, evidence collection, and suspect identification are essential - Forms the basis for criminal prosecution under IPC Section 302
Internal Medicine
1 questionsWhich of the following provide protection against malaria except
NEET-PG 2012 - Internal Medicine NEET-PG Practice Questions and MCQs
Question 1201: Which of the following provide protection against malaria except
- A. Thalassemia
- B. PNH (Correct Answer)
- C. Sickle cell anemia
- D. Duffy blood group
Explanation: ***PNH*** - **Paroxysmal nocturnal hemoglobinuria (PNH)** is a rare, acquired clonal disorder of hematopoietic stem cells characterized by complement-mediated hemolysis. - It does not offer any known protective advantage against malaria infection; in fact, chronic hemolysis could potentially complicate malaria diagnosis or management. *Thalassemia* - Individuals with **thalassemia traits (heterozygotes)**, particularly alpha-thalassemia, have red blood cells that are more resistant to malarial parasite invasion and growth [1]. - This protection is thought to arise from altered red cell morphology, reduced parasite multiplication, and enhanced clearance of infected cells. *Sickle cell anemia* - The **heterozygous state (sickle cell trait)** provides significant protection against severe malaria, as the altered hemoglobin S in red blood cells inhibits parasite growth and promotes early clearance of infected cells [1], [2]. - Although the homozygous state (sickle cell anemia) can be severe, even carriers benefit from reduced malaria susceptibility. *Duffy blood group* - Absence of the **Duffy antigen on red blood cells**, common in West African populations, provides complete protection against infection with **Plasmodium vivax** malaria. - The Duffy antigen receptor is essential for *P. vivax* to invade human red blood cells.
Obstetrics and Gynecology
1 questionsClassical cesarean section is specifically indicated in which of the following conditions?
NEET-PG 2012 - Obstetrics and Gynecology NEET-PG Practice Questions and MCQs
Question 1201: Classical cesarean section is specifically indicated in which of the following conditions?
- A. Transverse lie with back down
- B. Placenta previa with anterior placenta accreta
- C. Cervical cancer involving lower uterine segment (Correct Answer)
- D. Previous two cesarean sections
Explanation: ***Cervical cancer involving lower uterine segment*** - A classical cesarean section, involving a **vertical incision into the upper uterine segment**, allows for delivery of the fetus without disturbing the cancerous cervix and lower uterine segment. - This approach minimizes the risk of **tumor dissemination** and excessive bleeding, which would be high with a low transverse incision. *Transverse lie with back down* - A **low transverse cesarean section** is generally preferred for a transverse lie presentation as it aligns better with the uterine architecture and is associated with fewer future uterine rupture risks. - A classical incision is typically reserved for extreme cases of transverse lie (e.g., morbidly obese patient making access difficult or fetal anomaly) or when the **lower uterine segment is not adequately formed**. *Placenta previa with anterior placenta accreta* - This condition typically necessitates a **low transverse cesarean section**, often combined with a **hysterectomy**, due to the abnormal placental adherence to the anterior lower uterine segment. - A classical incision would likely lead to **significant hemorrhage** and may not effectively manage the adherent placenta. *Previous two cesarean sections* - While a previous cesarean section increases the risk of uterine rupture in subsequent pregnancies, it does not automatically indicate a classical cesarean section for the third delivery. - A repeat **low transverse cesarean section** is usually performed as it carries a lower risk of rupture in future pregnancies compared to a classical incision scar.
Pediatrics
1 questionsA child with fever with abdominal cramps & pus in stools, causative organism is ?
NEET-PG 2012 - Pediatrics NEET-PG Practice Questions and MCQs
Question 1201: A child with fever with abdominal cramps & pus in stools, causative organism is ?
- A. EHEC
- B. ETEC
- C. EAEC (Correct Answer)
- D. EPEC
Explanation: ***EAEC (Enteroaggregative E. coli)*** - Among the E. coli strains listed, EAEC is the answer for this question, though **this is an atypical presentation**. - EAEC classically causes **persistent watery diarrhea** (>14 days) in children, often with **low-grade fever** and **abdominal pain**. - While EAEC primarily causes non-bloody diarrhea, it can occasionally produce **mucoid stools** with inflammatory cells due to mucosal inflammation from biofilm formation. - **Note:** The classic organism for fever + cramps + pus in stools would be **Shigella**, **Campylobacter**, or **EIEC (Enteroinvasive E. coli)** - not listed here. *EHEC (Enterohemorrhagic E. coli)* - EHEC (O157:H7) causes **hemorrhagic colitis** with bloody diarrhea due to **Shiga toxins**. - Can lead to **hemolytic uremic syndrome (HUS)** in children. - Characterized by **blood** rather than pus in stools, distinguishing it from typical dysentery. *ETEC (Enterotoxigenic E. coli)* - Most common cause of **traveler's diarrhea** and watery diarrhea in developing countries. - Produces **heat-labile (LT)** and **heat-stable (ST)** enterotoxins causing secretory diarrhea. - Results in profuse **watery stools without inflammation, blood, or pus**. *EPEC (Enteropathogenic E. coli)* - Leading cause of infantile diarrhea in developing countries. - Causes **attaching and effacing** lesions on intestinal mucosa. - Results in **watery diarrhea without significant inflammatory cells or pus** in stools.
Radiology
1 questionsThe longest half life is that of:
NEET-PG 2012 - Radiology NEET-PG Practice Questions and MCQs
Question 1201: The longest half life is that of:
- A. Radon
- B. Uranium (Correct Answer)
- C. Cesium
- D. Radium
Explanation: ***Uranium*** - **Uranium-238**, a common isotope, has an incredibly long half-life of approximately **4.468 billion years**, which is comparable to the age of the Earth. - This extremely long half-life is due to its slow **alpha decay**, making it a very stable radioactive element. *Radon* - **Radon-222** has a relatively short half-life of about **3.8 days**. - Its short half-life makes it a significant indoor air pollutant as it rapidly decays into other radioactive isotopes. *Cesium* - **Cesium-137**, a product of nuclear fission, has a half-life of approximately **30 years**. - While longer than radon, its half-life is much shorter compared to uranium, meaning it decays significantly faster. *Radium* - **Radium-226**, a decay product of uranium, has a half-life of approximately **1,600 years**. - Although much longer than radon and cesium, it is still orders of magnitude shorter than the half-life of uranium-238.