Biochemistry
1 questionsWhich of the following is a 17β-OH steroid?
NEET-PG 2012 - Biochemistry NEET-PG Practice Questions and MCQs
Question 1191: Which of the following is a 17β-OH steroid?
- A. Estrogen
- B. Androgen (Correct Answer)
- C. Progesterone
- D. None of the options
Explanation: ***Androgen*** - **Testosterone** is the classic example of a **17β-hydroxysteroid**, containing a hydroxyl group (-OH) at the **17β-position** of its steroid nucleus. - Other androgens like **androstenediol** and **dehydroepiandrosterone (DHEA)** derivatives also possess the **17β-OH configuration**. - This structural feature is essential for **androgen receptor binding** and biological activity in target tissues. - The 17β-hydroxyl group distinguishes active androgens from their inactive 17-ketosteroid metabolites. *Estrogen* - **Estradiol**, the primary estrogen, also contains a **17β-hydroxyl group**, making it technically a 17β-OH steroid. - However, in the context of steroid chemistry and clinical biochemistry, **testosterone** (androgen) is more commonly referenced as the prototypical **17β-hydroxysteroid**. - Both androgens and estrogens can be 17β-OH steroids, but androgens are the primary class associated with this terminology in medical literature. *Progesterone* - **Progesterone** is a C21 steroid with a **ketone group at C3 and C20**, not a hydroxyl group. - At position 17, progesterone has an **acetyl side chain** (CH3CO-), not a hydroxyl group. - It lacks the 17β-OH configuration that characterizes androgenic and estrogenic steroids. *None of the options* - This is incorrect because **androgen** (specifically testosterone) is a well-established **17β-hydroxysteroid**. - The measurement of **17-ketosteroids** (oxidized metabolites of 17β-OH steroids) in urine was historically used to assess androgen production.
Community Medicine
2 questionsWhich of the following studies has given coronary risk factors?
Best for Incineration of infectious waste?
NEET-PG 2012 - Community Medicine NEET-PG Practice Questions and MCQs
Question 1191: Which of the following studies has given coronary risk factors?
- A. Framingham (Correct Answer)
- B. Stanford study
- C. MONICA
- D. North Karelia
Explanation: ***Framingham*** - The **Framingham Heart Study** is a landmark prospective cohort study that has identified many of the well-known **risk factors for cardiovascular disease**, including hypertension, high cholesterol, smoking, and diabetes. - This ongoing study, started in 1948, has been instrumental in shaping our understanding of **coronary artery disease** development and prevention strategies. *North Karelia* - The **North Karelia Project** was a comprehensive community-based prevention program in Finland that successfully reduced cardiovascular disease risk factors. - While influential in demonstrating how to **implement prevention strategies**, it applied already-known risk factors rather than discovering new ones. - The program focused on reducing smoking, cholesterol, and blood pressure in the population. *Stanford study* - While Stanford University has conducted numerous influential medical studies, there isn't a single "Stanford study" primarily recognized for giving us the comprehensive list of coronary risk factors. - Many institutions contribute to medical knowledge, but the **Framingham Heart Study** stands out for this specific contribution. *MONICA* - The **MONICA (Monitoring Trends and Determinants in Cardiovascular Disease)** Project was a multinational WHO project that aimed to monitor cardiovascular disease trends and determinants. - While it provided valuable data on the **epidemiology of cardiovascular disease** and its risk factors, it primarily assessed trends in established risk factors rather than initially identifying them.
Question 1192: Best for Incineration of infectious waste?
- A. Triple - chamber
- B. Single - chamber
- C. Double - chamber (Correct Answer)
- D. None of the options
Explanation: ***Correct: Double-chamber*** - **Double-chamber incinerators** are considered the best for infectious waste as they allow for complete combustion in two stages. - The first chamber burns the waste at a lower temperature (800°C), while the second chamber burns the remaining gases at a higher temperature (>1050°C), ensuring destruction of pathogens and minimizing emissions. - They are the standard recommendation under **Biomedical Waste Management Rules** for infectious waste disposal. *Incorrect: Triple-chamber* - While more advanced, **triple-chamber incinerators** are often overkill for standard infectious waste and are typically used for more complex or hazardous waste streams, or for very large volumes. - Their additional complexity and cost may not be justified for routine infectious waste disposal compared to double-chamber units. *Incorrect: Single-chamber* - **Single-chamber incinerators** are less efficient in burning infectious waste completely due to inadequate temperature control and gas retention time. - They tend to produce more harmful emissions and ash, making them unsuitable for effective and safe disposal of infectious materials. *Incorrect: None of the options* - This option is incorrect because **double-chamber incinerators** are specifically designed and widely recommended for the effective and safe incineration of infectious waste.
Forensic Medicine
1 questionsWhich section of the Indian Penal Code deals with sexual intercourse by a public servant with a woman in his custody?
NEET-PG 2012 - Forensic Medicine NEET-PG Practice Questions and MCQs
Question 1191: Which section of the Indian Penal Code deals with sexual intercourse by a public servant with a woman in his custody?
- A. 376A
- B. 375A
- C. 375B
- D. 376B (Correct Answer)
Explanation: ***376B*** - This section specifically addresses **sexual intercourse by a public servant** with a woman who is in his **custody**, or in the custody of a public authority or institution subordinate to him. - It prescribes **rigorous imprisonment for a term of 5 to 10 years and fine** for such acts, recognizing the **power imbalance** and breach of trust involved when a public servant exploits their position. - The law recognizes that consent is vitiated when there is a position of authority and custody involved. *376A* - This section deals with **punishment for causing death or persistent vegetative state of the victim** during commission of rape or gang rape. - It prescribes **rigorous imprisonment for a term not less than 20 years** which may extend to life imprisonment or death penalty. - This is distinct from the custody-based offense in 376B. *375A* - There is **no such section** as 375A in the Indian Penal Code. - Section 375 defines rape and its circumstances, but it does not have a subsection 375A. *375B* - There is **no such section** as 375B in the Indian Penal Code. - Section 375 defines rape and its circumstances, but it does not have a subsection 375B.
Internal Medicine
1 questionsNeurofibromatosis true all, except-
NEET-PG 2012 - Internal Medicine NEET-PG Practice Questions and MCQs
Question 1191: Neurofibromatosis true all, except-
- A. Associated with cataract
- B. Multiple fibroma
- C. Autosomal recessive (Correct Answer)
- D. Scoliosis
Explanation: Autosomal recessive - Neurofibromatosis types 1 and 2 are autosomal dominant disorders, not autosomal recessive. - This indicates that only one copy of the mutated gene is sufficient to cause the condition, and it can be passed from one affected parent to their children with a 50% probability. Associated with cataract - Juvenile posterior subcapsular cataracts are a known ocular manifestation, particularly in Neurofibromatosis type 2 (NF2). - This is a common finding and one of the diagnostic criteria for NF2. Multiple fibroma - Neurofibromas (benign tumors of peripheral nerves) are characteristic features of Neurofibromatosis type 1 (NF1). - These can be cutaneous, subcutaneous, or plexiform and are often numerous. Scoliosis - Scoliosis (curvature of the spine) is a common musculoskeletal complication associated with Neurofibromatosis, especially NF1. - It can be dystrophic or non-dystrophic and may require surgical intervention in severe cases.
Obstetrics and Gynecology
1 questionsWhich of the following cannot be treated by laparoscopy?
NEET-PG 2012 - Obstetrics and Gynecology NEET-PG Practice Questions and MCQs
Question 1191: Which of the following cannot be treated by laparoscopy?
- A. Non descent of uterus
- B. Ectopic pregnancy
- C. Sterilization
- D. Genital prolapse (Correct Answer)
Explanation: ***Genital prolapse*** - Among the options listed, **genital prolapse** is the condition LEAST suited for complete laparoscopic management, particularly in the context of this examination question. - While **laparoscopic sacrocolpopexy** and **sacral hysteropexy** exist for vault prolapse and uterine prolapse respectively, these procedures were less established at the time of this exam (2012) and require advanced laparoscopic skills. - Most cases of **genital prolapse**, especially complete pelvic organ prolapse, traditionally require **vaginal surgical approaches** or **open abdominal procedures** for comprehensive repair of multiple compartment defects. - The complex anatomical reconstruction needed for severe prolapse (anterior, posterior, and apical compartments) is more challenging via laparoscopy compared to the other listed conditions. *Non descent of uterus* - **Non-descent vaginal hysterectomy** can be performed with **laparoscopic assistance (LAVH/LDVH)** or as **total laparoscopic hysterectomy (TLH)**. - Laparoscopy facilitates dissection of uterine attachments, ligation of vessels, and removal of the uterus with minimal morbidity. *Ectopic pregnancy* - **Ectopic pregnancy** is a standard indication for laparoscopic surgery, performed routinely worldwide. - Procedures include **laparoscopic salpingectomy** (removal of affected tube) or **salpingostomy** (conservative surgery preserving the tube). - Offers advantages of minimal invasiveness, reduced recovery time, and excellent visualization. *Sterilization* - **Laparoscopic tubal sterilization** is one of the most common laparoscopic procedures performed. - Methods include application of **Filshie clips, Falope rings**, or **electrocautery** to occlude fallopian tubes. - Gold standard for permanent contraception with minimal morbidity.
Pediatrics
1 questionsExanthema subitum is caused by -
NEET-PG 2012 - Pediatrics NEET-PG Practice Questions and MCQs
Question 1191: Exanthema subitum is caused by -
- A. HIV
- B. HCV
- C. HPV
- D. HHV (Correct Answer)
Explanation: ***HHV*** - **Exanthema subitum**, also known as **roseola infantum**, is most commonly caused by **Human Herpesvirus 6 (HHV-6)** and sometimes **Human Herpesvirus 7 (HHV-7)**. - It is characterized by high fever followed by a **maculopapular rash** once the fever subsides. *HIV* - **Human Immunodeficiency Virus (HIV)** causes **Acquired Immunodeficiency Syndrome (AIDS)**, leading to a weakened immune system. - While HIV can cause various skin manifestations, **exanthema subitum** is not one of its primary or characteristic presentations. *HCV* - **Hepatitis C Virus (HCV)** primarily causes **hepatitis**, infecting the liver and potentially leading to chronic liver disease. - HCV is not known to cause **exanthema subitum** or similar childhood exanthems. *HPV* - **Human Papillomavirus (HPV)** is responsible for **warts** and certain **cancers**, particularly cervical cancer. - HPV does not cause **exanthema subitum**; its manifestations are typically localized to skin and mucous membranes as proliferative lesions.
Physiology
3 questionsWhich of the following is true about NREM sleep?
Hypothalamus increases release of all hormones from the pituitary except ?
What primarily causes vasoconstriction in skin?
NEET-PG 2012 - Physiology NEET-PG Practice Questions and MCQs
Question 1191: Which of the following is true about NREM sleep?
- A. Narcolepsy
- B. Teeth grinding (Correct Answer)
- C. Nightmares
- D. Sleep paralysis
Explanation: ***Teeth grinding*** - **Bruxism** (teeth grinding) commonly occurs during **NREM sleep stages**, particularly stage N2. - It is an **involuntary motor activity** that can lead to dental issues and jaw pain. *Narcolepsy* - Narcolepsy is a neurological condition characterized by overwhelming daytime sleepiness and involves dysregulation of **REM sleep**. - Patients often experience **sudden REM sleep onset** during waking hours, not typically an NREM sleep phenomenon. *Nightmares* - Nightmares are generally vivid, disturbing dreams that occur during **REM sleep**. - While other sleep disturbances can occur in NREM, classic nightmares are a **REM-related parasomnia**. *Sleep paralysis* - Sleep paralysis is a temporary inability to move or speak that occurs when waking up or falling asleep, often associated with **REM sleep**. - It involves the persistence of **REM atonia** into the waking state.
Question 1192: Hypothalamus increases release of all hormones from the pituitary except ?
- A. ACTH
- B. TSH
- C. FSH
- D. Prolactin (Correct Answer)
Explanation: ***Prolactin*** - The hypothalamus primarily **inhibits prolactin release** from the anterior pituitary via **dopamine** (prolactin-inhibiting hormone). - All other hormones listed (ACTH, TSH, FSH/LH, GH) are stimulated by their respective hypothalamic releasing hormones. *ACTH* - The hypothalamus **increases ACTH release** by secreting **corticotropin-releasing hormone (CRH)**, which acts on the anterior pituitary. - CRH stimulates corticotrophs to synthesize and release ACTH, which then acts on the adrenal glands. *TSH* - The hypothalamus **increases TSH release** by secreting **thyrotropin-releasing hormone (TRH)**, which stimulates thyrotrophs in the anterior pituitary. - TRH also has a minor stimulatory effect on prolactin release, but its primary role is TSH stimulation. *FSH* - The hypothalamus **increases FSH release** (along with LH) by secreting **gonadotropin-releasing hormone (GnRH)** in a pulsatile manner. - GnRH stimulates gonadotrophs in the anterior pituitary to produce and secrete both FSH and LH.
Question 1193: What primarily causes vasoconstriction in skin?
- A. Warm climate
- B. Wheal and flare
- C. Sympathetic (Correct Answer)
- D. Parasympathetic
Explanation: ***Sympathetic*** - The **sympathetic nervous system** primarily controls vasoconstriction in the skin via **adrenergic receptors** on vascular smooth muscle. - Activation of these nerves releases **norepinephrine**, leading to the contraction of smooth muscle and thus narrowing of blood vessels. *Warm climate* - A warm climate typically causes **vasodilation** in the skin, allowing for increased blood flow to the surface to facilitate heat loss. - This is a physiological response to prevent **overheating**, not to vasoconstrict. *Wheal and flare* - A **wheal and flare reaction** is a localized immune response, often to allergens, characterized by histamine release causing **vasodilation** (flare) and edema (wheal). - This reaction involves localized vasodilation, not systemic or primary vasoconstriction. *Parasympathetic* - The **parasympathetic nervous system** generally has minimal direct control over cutaneous vascular tone, especially regarding vasoconstriction. - Its primary role in the skin is related to **glandular secretions**, such as sweat production.