NEET-PG 2012 Practice Questions

Q: Which of the following conditions is most commonly associated with resorption of the distal phalanx?

Scleroderma. ***Scleroderma*** - **Scleroderma** (systemic sclerosis) can cause characteristic changes in the distal phalanges, specifically **acro-osteolysis**, leading to resorption of the **distal tufts** [1]. - This is often associated with **Raynaud's phenomenon**, **digital ischemia**, and **calcinosis**, leading to severe circulatory compromise in the digits [1]. *Hyperparathyroidism* - **Primary hyperparathyroidism** causes bone resorption due to increased parathyroid hormone, primarily affecting the **subperiosteal bone** (especially in the radial aspect of the middle phalanges), leading to a "lace-like" appearance on X-ray. - While it causes bone resorption, **distal phalanx tuft resorption** is not its most common or prominent skeletal feature compared to scleroderma. *Reiter's syndrome* - **Reiter's syndrome** (now known as reactive arthritis) is an inflammatory arthropathy usually involving large joints of the lower extremities in an **asymmetric** pattern. - It does not typically cause **resorption of the distal phalanx**; instead, it's associated with enthesitis, dactylitis, and periostitis. *Osteitis deformans (Paget's disease)* - **Paget's disease** is characterized by abnormal bone remodeling, leading to enlarged, deformed bones that are prone to fracture, predominantly affecting the **pelvis, spine, skull, and long bones**. - It causes areas of localized bone destruction and excessive bone formation, but **distal phalanx resorption** is not a feature of this condition.

Q: Least common presentation of twins?

Both transverse. ***Correct: Both transverse*** - A **transverse lie** means both fetuses are positioned horizontally across the uterus - This is the **rarest twin presentation**, occurring in approximately **0.5% of twin pregnancies** - The limited uterine space and natural tendency of fetuses to settle into longitudinal positions makes this presentation exceptionally uncommon - **Management**: Requires cesarean delivery due to impossibility of vaginal birth with both twins transverse *Incorrect: Both breech* - **Breech presentation** (feet or buttocks first) is more common in twin pregnancies than in singletons - Occurs in approximately **5-10% of twin pregnancies** - While complicated, both twins being breech is **significantly more common** than both transverse *Incorrect: First vertex and 2nd transverse* - The **first twin being cephalic (vertex)** is the most favorable and common position - The **second twin presenting transversely** can occur after delivery of the first twin when increased intrauterine space allows position change - This combination is **more common than both transverse** but requires careful management of the second twin *Incorrect: Both vertex* - **Vertex presentation for both twins** (both head-down) is the **most common presentation**, occurring in **40-45% of twin pregnancies** - This is the **optimal presentation for vaginal delivery** - Offers the best outcomes with lowest intervention rates

Q: Which drug is known to cause placental abruption?

Cocaine. **Cocaine** - **Cocaine** use during pregnancy is strongly associated with an increased risk of **placental abruption** due to its vasoconstrictive effects on uterine blood vessels. - Its potent **vasoconstrictive properties** lead to uterine ischemia and contractions, which can cause the placenta to detach prematurely from the uterine wall. *Methadone* - While methadone use during pregnancy is associated with risks such as **neonatal abstinence syndrome**, it is not a primary cause of **placental abruption**. - It is often used as a maintenance therapy for opioid-dependent pregnant women to avoid the fluctuating levels of illicit drug use, which can have more severe consequences. *Amphetamine* - Amphetamine use can lead to adverse pregnancy outcomes like **preterm birth** and **low birth weight** due to its stimulant effects. - Although it causes vasoconstriction, its association with **placental abruption** is less direct and less pronounced compared to cocaine. *Fluoxetine* - Fluoxetine, an **SSRI antidepressant**, generally has a relatively safe profile in pregnancy, although some studies suggest a small increased risk of persistent **pulmonary hypertension** in neonates. - It is not known to be a cause of **placental abruption**.

Q: Which of the following statements about the contraction stress test (CST) is MOST accurate?

Negative test is associated with good fetal outcome. ***Negative test is associated with good fetal outcome*** - A **negative CST** indicates that there are no late or significant variable decelerations in response to uterine contractions, suggesting the fetus can tolerate labor. - This finding is strongly correlated with **fetal well-being** and a low likelihood of fetal distress in the near future, with a **negative predictive value of approximately 99%**. *Invasive method* - The CST is considered a **non-invasive test**, as it involves external monitoring of fetal heart rate and uterine contractions. - No instruments are inserted into the body, differentiating it from truly invasive procedures like **amniocentesis**. *Detects fetal well being* - While the CST provides valuable information, it specifically assesses **uteroplacental function and fetal oxygenation reserve** during the stress of contractions, rather than comprehensive fetal well-being. - It identifies fetuses at risk for **uteroplacental insufficiency** but does not evaluate other parameters of fetal health. - Other tests like the **biophysical profile** offer a more comprehensive assessment of fetal well-being, including parameters like fetal breathing, movement, tone, and amniotic fluid volume. *Oxytocin is never used in the test* - **Oxytocin** is frequently used to induce uterine contractions if spontaneous contractions are insufficient for the test (oxytocin challenge test or OCT). - Alternatively, **nipple stimulation** can be used to achieve adequate contractions for the CST.

Q: Rubella is known to cause all of the following conditions except:

Glaucoma. ***Glaucoma*** - While rubella can cause **ocular defects** such as **cataracts** and **pigmentary retinopathy**, glaucoma is not a typical congenital manifestation of rubella syndrome. - **Congenital glaucoma** is more commonly associated with other genetic syndromes or developmental anomalies. *Microcephaly* - **Microcephaly** is a recognized neurological complication of congenital rubella syndrome, resulting from impaired brain development due to viral infection. - The rubella virus can interfere with the **proliferation and migration** of neuronal cells during fetal development. *VSD* - **Ventricular septal defect (VSD)** is a common congenital heart defect associated with congenital rubella syndrome. - Other cardiac anomalies seen include **patent ductus arteriosus (PDA)** and **pulmonary artery stenosis**. *Conduction defects* - **Conduction defects** and other **cardiac arrhythmias** can occur in congenital rubella syndrome due to direct viral damage to the developing cardiac conduction system. - This can manifest as **bradyarrhythmias** or various degrees of **heart block**.

Q: What is the effect of adding epinephrine to lignocaine (a local anesthetic)?

Decreases absorption of local anesthetic. ***Decreases absorption of local anesthetic*** - Epinephrine causes **vasoconstriction** at the site of injection, which reduces the rate at which the local anesthetic is absorbed into the systemic circulation. - This slower absorption leads to a **higher concentration of the anesthetic** at the nerve fibers, prolonging its effect and reducing systemic toxicity. - This is the primary mechanism by which epinephrine enhances local anesthetic efficacy. *Increases distribution of local anesthetic* - The primary effect of epinephrine is to **localize the anesthetic** by reducing its systemic distribution. - This localization is achieved through **vasoconstriction**, which keeps the drug at the desired site rather than allowing it to distribute widely. *Decreases duration of local anesthetic* - By slowing absorption, epinephrine effectively **increases the duration of action** of the local anesthetic. - The anesthetic remains at the site of action for a longer period, providing **extended pain relief**. *Increases metabolism of local anesthetic* - Epinephrine does not directly affect the **metabolic rate** of local anesthetics. - The primary mechanism of metabolism for amides like lignocaine is in the **liver** by cytochrome P450 enzymes.

Q: What is the most common complication of a felon?

Osteomyelitis. ***Osteomyelitis*** - A **felon** is a severe infection of the **distal pulp space** of the fingertip, which has numerous fibrous septa. - The tightly compartmentalized nature of this space can lead to increased pressure, compromising blood supply and facilitating the spread of infection to the underlying **phalanx bone**, causing **osteomyelitis**. *Subungual hematoma* - A **subungual hematoma** is a collection of blood under the nail, usually resulting from direct trauma. - It is not a complication of an infection like a felon, but rather a separate traumatic injury. *Infective arthritis* - **Infective arthritis** involves the joint space, typically resulting from direct inoculation, hematogenous spread, or spread from adjacent soft tissue infection. - While possible, it is less common for a felon to directly spread to the **distal interphalangeal joint** compared to the more immediate risk of bone involvement. *No complications* - A **felon** is a serious infection that, if left untreated, almost always leads to complications due to the unique anatomy of the fingertip pulp space. - The high pressure within the compartments of the distal pulp makes it prone to necrosis and spread of infection to adjacent structures.

Q: The term 'raspberry tumor' is most commonly associated with which of the following conditions?

Umbilical granuloma. ***Umbilical granuloma*** - An **umbilical granuloma** is a common condition in newborns, presenting as a soft, red, moist growth at the umbilicus after the umbilical cord detaches. - Its characteristic appearance, resembling a small red berry, has led to the descriptive term "**raspberry tumor**." *Umbilical fistula* - An **umbilical fistula** is an abnormal connection that can occur between the intestine or bladder and the umbilicus, leading to the discharge of stool or urine from the umbilicus. - It does not present as a fleshy, raspberry-like growth, but rather as an opening with discharge. *Meckel’s diverticulum* - **Meckel's diverticulum** is a remnant of the **vitelline duct**, typically found on the anti-mesenteric border of the ileum, and is a congenital anomaly of the small intestine. - It is an internal structure and does not manifest externally at the umbilicus as a "raspberry tumor." *Umbilical adenoma* - An **umbilical adenoma** is a rare tumor of the umbilicus, often a remnant of the **vitelline duct** or **urachus**, which can present as a reddish mass. - While it can be a reddish mass, the specific term "raspberry tumor" is not commonly associated with umbilical adenoma but rather with umbilical granuloma due to its very distinct granular appearance.

Q: What is the first step to be taken in the management of a cervical spine injury?

Immobilization of spine. ***Immobilization of spine*** - In the context of **isolated cervical spine injury management**, **spinal immobilization** is the primary intervention to prevent further neurological damage. - This is typically achieved using a **cervical collar** and **backboard** to maintain in-line spinal stabilization. - **Note**: In actual trauma scenarios following **ATLS protocols**, airway management and cervical spine immobilization occur **simultaneously** as the first priority (Airway with C-spine protection). *Turn head* - **Turning the head** is absolutely contraindicated as it can exacerbate a cervical spine injury, leading to further compression or damage to the **spinal cord**. - Maintaining a **neutral, in-line position** is critical to avoid neurological deterioration. *Maintain airway* - In comprehensive trauma management per **ATLS guidelines**, **airway management with simultaneous cervical spine protection** is the first priority in the ABC sequence. - Airway is maintained using methods that do not compromise spinal stability, such as a **jaw thrust maneuver** or **endotracheal intubation with manual in-line stabilization**. - The distinction here is that this question focuses on the specific step for **spinal injury management** rather than overall trauma priorities. *None of the options* - This option is incorrect because **immobilization of the spine** is a definitive priority in managing a suspected cervical spine injury. - Both spinal immobilization and airway management are critical interventions that should occur together in actual practice.

Q: What does the term 'gastrotomy' refer to?

Making an incision into the stomach. ***Making an incision into the stomach*** - The suffix **-otomy** specifically refers to the **surgical creation of an incision** or a cutting open of an organ or structure. - In this context, **gastr-** refers to the **stomach**, thus "gastrotomy" means cutting into the stomach. *Closing the stomach after tube insertion* - While a gastrotomy might precede tube insertion, "closing" the stomach is distinct and typically part of the **wound closure** rather than the incision itself. - The term for surgical closure is generally **-rrhaphy**, not -otomy. *Removing a part of the stomach* - The surgical removal of a part of an organ is indicated by the suffix **-ectomy**, such as in **gastrectomy**. - Gastrotomy only implies making an incision, not the resection of tissue. *Resecting the upper part of the stomach* - This describes a **partial gastrectomy** or **fundectomy**, which involves the removal of tissue. - Gastrotomy is a simpler procedure involving only an incision, without tissue removal.

Question 1

Which of the following conditions is most commonly associated with resorption of the distal phalanx?

Accepted Answer

Scleroderma

Answer

Hyperparathyroidism

Answer

Reiter's syndrome

Answer

Osteitis deformans (Paget's disease)

Question 2

Least common presentation of twins?

Accepted Answer

Both transverse

Answer

Both breech

Answer

First vertex and 2nd transverse

Answer

Both vertex

Question 3

Which drug is known to cause placental abruption?

Accepted Answer

Cocaine

Answer

Amphetamine

Answer

Fluoxetine

Answer

Methadone

Question 4

Which of the following statements about the contraction stress test (CST) is MOST accurate?

Accepted Answer

Negative test is associated with good fetal outcome

Answer

Invasive method

Answer

Detects fetal well being

Answer

Oxytocin is never used in the test

Question 5

Rubella is known to cause all of the following conditions except:

Accepted Answer

Glaucoma

Answer

Conduction defects

Answer

VSD

Answer

Microcephaly

Question 6

What is the effect of adding epinephrine to lignocaine (a local anesthetic)?

Accepted Answer

Decreases absorption of local anesthetic

Answer

Increases distribution of local anesthetic

Answer

Decreases duration of local anesthetic

Answer

Increases metabolism of local anesthetic

Question 7

What is the most common complication of a felon?

Accepted Answer

Osteomyelitis

Answer

Subungual hematoma

Answer

Infective arthritis

Answer

No complications

Question 8

The term 'raspberry tumor' is most commonly associated with which of the following conditions?

Accepted Answer

Umbilical granuloma

Answer

Umbilical fistula

Answer

Meckel’s diverticulum

Answer

Umbilical adenoma

Question 9

What is the first step to be taken in the management of a cervical spine injury?

Accepted Answer

Immobilization of spine

Answer

Turn head

Answer

None of the options

Answer

Maintain airway

Question 10

What does the term 'gastrotomy' refer to?

Accepted Answer

Making an incision into the stomach

Answer

Closing the stomach after tube insertion

Answer

Removing a part of the stomach

Answer

Resecting the upper part of the stomach

NEET-PG 2012

Internal Medicine

Obstetrics and Gynecology

Pediatrics

Pharmacology

Surgery