Internal Medicine
2 questionsIn axillary nerve paralysis, which of the following statements is false?
Tuberculosis of the spine; what is the most common site affected?
NEET-PG 2012 - Internal Medicine NEET-PG Practice Questions and MCQs
Question 1121: In axillary nerve paralysis, which of the following statements is false?
- A. Extension of shoulder with arm abducted to 90 degrees is impossible (Correct Answer)
- B. Deltoid muscle is wasted
- C. Small area of numbness is present over the shoulder region
- D. Patient cannot initiate abduction
Explanation: Extension of shoulder with arm abducted to 90 degrees is impossible - The **axillary nerve** primarily innervates the **deltoid** and **teres minor muscles**. [2] - While axillary nerve paralysis would affect abduction and external rotation, the ability to *extend* the shoulder from an abducted position is mainly a function of muscles like the **posterior deltoid** (also innervated by axillary nerve to varying degrees) and latissimus dorsi, and its impossibility is not a definitive and exclusive sign of axillary nerve paralysis, as other muscles contribute to extension. *Deltoid muscle is wasted* - The **deltoid muscle** is the principal muscle supplied by the **axillary nerve**. [2] - Paralysis leads to **denervation atrophy**, causing visible wasting and weakness of the deltoid. [1] *Small area of numbness is present over the shoulder region* - The **axillary nerve** gives rise to the **upper lateral cutaneous nerve of the arm**. - Damage to the nerve results in sensory loss in a small, circumscribed area over the **deltoid insertion**. [2] *Patient cannot initiate abduction* - The **deltoid muscle**, innervated by the **axillary nerve**, is the primary abductor of the arm after the initial 0-15 degrees (supraspinatus). [2] - Paralysis of the deltoid significantly impairs or prevents the initiation and execution of **shoulder abduction**.
Question 1122: Tuberculosis of the spine; what is the most common site affected?
- A. Sacral
- B. Dorsolumbar (Correct Answer)
- C. Lumbosacral
- D. Cervical
Explanation: ***94ed055d-c7da-4d18-a2fd-52720dfe8b6e*** - The **dorsolumbar (thoracolumbar)** region is the most common site of **spinal tuberculosis (Pott's disease)** [1] due to its high vascularity, facilitating hematogenous spread. - **Spinal tuberculosis** typically affects the vertebral bodies, leading to their destruction, kyphosis (angular deformity), and potentially neurological deficits [1]. *aebdfe6c-98dc-4073-892f-bb24d047bab4* - The **sacral** region can be affected by **tuberculosis**, but it is considerably less common than the thoracolumbar region. - Involvement of the sacrum is often associated with **direct extension** from adjacent structures, such as the sacroiliac joint, rather than primary vertebral involvement. *15c1feef-e3ca-496f-a180-127d52b77bfa* - **Cervical spine tuberculosis** is relatively rare, accounting for a small percentage of all spinal tuberculosis cases. - While possible, it presents with specific challenges due to the proximity of vital neurological and vascular structures. *d05d4d13-bb83-4f26-aa2d-c9c0203d299c* - The **lumbosacral region** (L5-S1) can be involved in **tuberculosis**, but it is less frequently affected than the thoracolumbar region. - While the lumbar spine is a common site, the entire lumbosacral region as a single entity is not the most common spot for spinal TB.
Obstetrics and Gynecology
1 questionsWhich of the following is associated with macrosomia?
NEET-PG 2012 - Obstetrics and Gynecology NEET-PG Practice Questions and MCQs
Question 1121: Which of the following is associated with macrosomia?
- A. None of the options
- B. Gestational diabetes mellitus (Correct Answer)
- C. Hypothyroidism
- D. Maternal anemia
Explanation: ***Gestational diabetes mellitus*** - **Gestational diabetes mellitus (GDM)** is a common cause of macrosomia because high maternal glucose levels lead to increased fetal insulin production, which promotes growth and fat deposition. - The **hyperglycemic environment** in GDM stimulates fetal overgrowth, resulting in larger-than-average babies. *Hypothyroidism* - **Maternal hypothyroidism** is typically associated with **fetal growth restriction** and lower birth weight, not macrosomia. - Undiagnosed or poorly controlled hypothyroidism can lead to complications such as **preterm labor** and **preeclampsia**, but not increased fetal size. *None of the options* - This option is incorrect because **gestational diabetes mellitus** is directly associated with macrosomia. - There is a clear and well-documented link between maternal hyperglycemia and increased fetal growth. *Maternal anemia* - **Maternal anemia**, especially severe anemia, is generally associated with an **increased risk of fetal growth restriction** and **low birth weight**. - Anemia limits oxygen and nutrient delivery to the fetus, thereby hindering optimal growth.
Orthopaedics
5 questionsProximal humerus fracture which has maximum chances of avascular necrosis
What is a Pulled Elbow?
How is the degree of deformity in scoliosis calculated?
What is the primary pathology associated with Congenital Dislocation of the Hip (CDH)?
In neglected cases of CTEV, which joints are fused?
NEET-PG 2012 - Orthopaedics NEET-PG Practice Questions and MCQs
Question 1121: Proximal humerus fracture which has maximum chances of avascular necrosis
- A. One part
- B. Two part
- C. Three part
- D. Four part (Correct Answer)
Explanation: ***Four part fracture*** - A **four-part proximal humerus fracture** typically involves displacement of the humeral head, greater tuberosity, lesser tuberosity, and humeral shaft. - This extensive displacement significantly disrupts the **blood supply** to the humeral head, specifically the **arcuate artery** and its branches, leading to a high risk of **avascular necrosis**. *One part fracture* - A **one-part fracture** indicates that the fracture fragments are minimally displaced (<1 cm or <45° angulation). - The **blood supply** to the humeral head remains largely intact, resulting in a very low risk of avascular necrosis. *Two part fracture* - A **two-part fracture** involves displacement of one major fragment (e.g., surgical neck or tuberosity) from the humeral head. - While there is some disruption, the overall risk of **avascular necrosis** is lower compared to more complex fractures. *Three part fracture* - A **three-part fracture** involves separate displacement of the humeral head and two tuberosities. - This fracture pattern causes more significant disruption to the **vascularity** of the humeral head than two-part fractures but generally less than four-part fractures.
Question 1122: What is a Pulled Elbow?
- A. Subluxation of proximal radio ulnar joint
- B. Complete separation of the elbow joint
- C. No injury present
- D. Partial dislocation of the radial head (Correct Answer)
Explanation: ***Partial dislocation of the radial head*** - A pulled elbow, also known as **nursemaid's elbow**, specifically refers to a **subluxation of the radial head** from the annular ligament. - This injury typically occurs in young children when their arm is suddenly pulled or jerked, causing the **radial head** to slip out of the **annular ligament**. *Complete separation of the elbow joint* - A complete separation of the elbow joint would involve a **full dislocation** of the humeroulnar or humeroradial joints, a much more severe injury than a pulled elbow. - This would present with more significant deformity and instability compared to the subtle presentation of a pulled elbow. *Subluxation of proximal radio ulnar joint* - While the injury involves the radius and ulna, the specific subluxation in a pulled elbow is that of the **radial head** at the **humero-radial joint**, not primarily the proximal radio-ulnar joint itself. - The focus is on the annular ligament's integrity around the radial head, rather than direct forces acting on the proximal radio-ulnar articulation. *No injury present* - A pulled elbow is a recognized and common **pediatric orthopedic injury** requiring intervention to reduce the radial head. - The child will typically present with pain, refusal to use the affected arm, and a characteristic holding posture.
Question 1123: How is the degree of deformity in scoliosis calculated?
- A. Hamburger method
- B. Haldane method
- C. Milwaukee method
- D. Cobb's method (Correct Answer)
Explanation: ***Cobb's method*** - This is the **standard radiographic measurement** used to assess the severity of spinal curvature in scoliosis. - It involves drawing lines along the **most tilted vertebrae** at the ends of the curve and measuring the angle formed by their intersection. *Hamburger method* - This is not a recognized method for calculating the degree of deformity in scoliosis. - There is **no established medical or orthopedic technique** bearing this name for scoliosis assessment. *Haldane method* - This method is primarily used in **biochemistry** to describe **enzyme kinetics** and is unrelated to scoliosis measurement. - It describes the relationship between reaction rates and reactant concentrations in biological systems. *Milwaukee method* - The **Milwaukee brace** is a historical type of orthotic device used to treat scoliosis, but it is not a method for calculating the degree of deformity. - While it is associated with scoliosis treatment, it does not involve the measurement of the curve itself.
Question 1124: What is the primary pathology associated with Congenital Dislocation of the Hip (CDH)?
- A. Large head of femur
- B. Shallow acetabulum (Correct Answer)
- C. Excessive retroversion
- D. Coxa vara deformity
Explanation: ***Shallow acetabulum*** - A **shallow or dysplastic acetabulum** is the primary pathological feature in CDH, leading to an unstable or dislocated femoral head. - This anatomical abnormality prevents the femoral head from seating properly, causing **instability** and potential **dislocation**. *Large head of femur* - While femoral head abnormalities can occur, a **disproportionately large femoral head** is not the primary or most common pathological feature causing CDH. - The issue primarily lies with the **acetabular socket** rather than the size of the femoral head itself. *Excessive retroversion* - **Femoral retroversion** (backward twisting of the femoral neck relative to the femoral condyles) can be a contributing factor or an associated finding, but it is not the primary anatomical defect. - The principal pathology is the **inadequate containment** of the femoral head by a poorly formed acetabulum. *Coxa vara deformity* - **Coxa vara** is a deformity where the angle between the head and shaft of the femur is decreased. - While it can be associated with or contribute to hip instability in some conditions, it is not the primary or defining pathological feature of CDH.
Question 1125: In neglected cases of CTEV, which joints are fused?
- A. Calcaneocuboid, talonavicular, and talocalcaneal joints (Correct Answer)
- B. Tibiotalar, calcaneocuboid, and talonavicular joints
- C. None of the above joints
- D. Ankle joint, calcaneocuboid, and talonavicular joints
Explanation: ***Calcaneocuboid, talonavicular, and talocalcaneal joints*** - In neglected cases of **clubfoot (CTEV)**, a **triple arthrodesis** is performed to correct the deformity. - This procedure involves the fusion of the **subtalar (talocalcaneal)**, **talonavicular**, and **calcaneocuboid joints** to provide a stable, plantigrade foot. *Tibiotalar, calcaneocuboid, and talonavicular joints* - The **tibiotalar joint (ankle joint)** is generally preserved in triple arthrodesis for CTEV to maintain ankle motion. - Fusing the tibiotalar joint would significantly **reduce ankle dorsiflexion and plantarflexion**, leading to a stiff ankle. *None of the above joints* - This option is incorrect because the fusion of specific joints is a recognized surgical treatment for severe, neglected CTEV. - **Triple arthrodesis** is a well-established procedure for correcting rigid foot deformities. *Ankle joint, calcaneocuboid, and talonavicular joints* - As mentioned, fusion of the **ankle joint (tibiotalar joint)** is generally avoided in triple arthrodesis for CTEV to preserve functional ankle motion. - The goal is to stabilize the foot while retaining as much articulation as possible in the ankle itself.
Radiology
1 questionsWhich of the following conditions is least likely to cause posterior scalloping of the vertebrae?
NEET-PG 2012 - Radiology NEET-PG Practice Questions and MCQs
Question 1121: Which of the following conditions is least likely to cause posterior scalloping of the vertebrae?
- A. Astrocytoma
- B. Neurofibromatosis
- C. Ependymoma
- D. Aortic aneurysm (Correct Answer)
Explanation: ***Aortic aneurysm*** - An **aortic aneurysm** is located **anterior to the vertebral column** and primarily affects the anterior aspect of the vertebral bodies, causing **anterior scalloping** due to chronic pulsatile erosion, not posterior scalloping. - Posterior scalloping requires intraspinal pathology that expands the spinal canal from within; an aortic aneurysm is extraspinal and anterior, making it the **least likely** cause of posterior scalloping. *Neurofibromatosis* - **Neurofibromatosis** commonly causes posterior vertebral scalloping due to **dural ectasia** (widening of the dural sac) and pressure erosion from expanding neurofibromas within the spinal canal. - This condition is also associated with paraspinal masses, posterior vertebral body erosion, and scoliosis. *Astrocytoma* - An **intramedullary astrocytoma** within the spinal cord can lead to expansion of the cord that causes chronic pressure on the posterior vertebral bodies from within the spinal canal. - This slow-growing intraspinal tumor gradually remodels the bone, causing posterior scalloping. *Ependymoma* - Similar to astrocytoma, an **intramedullary ependymoma** (the most common primary intramedullary tumor in adults) can enlarge the spinal cord, leading to pressure erosion on the posterior vertebral bodies. - This is a characteristic feature of slowly growing intraspinal masses, which cause remodeling of the bony spinal canal.
Surgery
1 questionsIn Congenital Diaphragmatic Hernia (CDH), the most commonly associated anomaly affects the
NEET-PG 2012 - Surgery NEET-PG Practice Questions and MCQs
Question 1121: In Congenital Diaphragmatic Hernia (CDH), the most commonly associated anomaly affects the
- A. Congenital heart defects (Correct Answer)
- B. Anomalies of the urinary tract
- C. Anomalies of the skull
- D. Craniofacial anomalies
Explanation: ***Congenital heart defects*** - **Congenital diaphragmatic hernia (CDH)** is frequently associated with other congenital anomalies. - **Cardiac malformations** are the most common co-occurring defects, affecting a significant proportion of CDH patients. *Anomalies of the urinary tract* - While **urogenital anomalies** can occur with CDH, they are less prevalent than congenital heart defects. - These typically include conditions like **renal agenesis** or **hydronephrosis**. *Anomalies of the skull* - **Skull anomalies** are not a primary or common association with congenital diaphragmatic hernia. - Genetic syndromes associated with both CDH and skull anomalies are relatively rare. *Craniofacial anomalies* - **Craniofacial anomalies**, such as **cleft lip/palate**, can occur with CDH but are less common than cardiac anomalies. - These are often seen within the context of specific genetic syndromes.