NEET-PG 2012

1213 Questions — Page 11 of 122

Anatomy

3 questions

Q101

Which of the following is an operculated sulcus ?

Q102

Coronary sinus develops from?

Q103

What anatomical structures are involved in the closure of the fossa ovalis?

NEET-PG 2012 - Anatomy NEET-PG Practice Questions and MCQs

Question 101: Which of the following is an operculated sulcus ?

A. Lunate
B. Calcarine
C. Central
D. Sylvian fissure (lateral sulcus) (Correct Answer)

Explanation: ***Sylvian fissure (lateral sulcus)*** - The **lateral sulcus**, also known as the Sylvian fissure, is a deep groove on the lateral surface of the brain that **separates the frontal and parietal lobes from the temporal lobe**. - It is considered an **operculated sulcus** because its banks contain the insula, which is a buried part of the cerebral cortex covered by the surrounding cortical folds called opercula. *Calcarine* - The **calcarine sulcus** is located on the medial surface of the occipital lobe, forming the primary visual cortex, and is not an operculated sulcus. - It delineates the **upper and lower banks of the visual cortex** and does not involve overlying cortical structures. *Lunate* - The **lunate sulcus** is found on the posterior part of the occipital lobe and is not typically described as an operculated sulcus. - It represents a boundary in the visual cortex, but its banks do not hide a buried cortical region like the insula. *Central* - The **central sulcus** (Rolandic fissure) separates the frontal lobe from the parietal lobe and is a prominent sulcus, but it is not operculated. - Its banks contain the **precentral gyrus** (primary motor cortex) and **postcentral gyrus** (primary somatosensory cortex) directly facing each other.

Question 102: Coronary sinus develops from?

A. Truncus arteriosus
B. Conus
C. Sinus venosus (Correct Answer)
D. AV canal

Explanation: Sinus venosus - The sinus venosus is a primordial cardiac chamber that receives venous blood from the body and placenta in the early embryonic heart. - The left horn of the sinus venosus loses its connection with the systemic venous circulation and becomes the coronary sinus, which drains most of the cardiac veins into the right atrium [1, 4]. Truncus arteriosus - The truncus arteriosus is the embryonic precursor to the ascending aorta and pulmonary trunk. - It does not contribute to the development of the coronary sinus. Conus - The conus (or conus cordis) is the outflow portion of the primitive ventricle and differentiates into the outflow tracts of the right (infundibulum) and left (aortic vestibule) ventricles. - It is not involved in the formation of the coronary sinus. AV canal - The atrioventricular (AV) canal connects the primitive atrium and ventricle and is crucial for the formation of the AV valves and septation of the heart chambers. - It does not directly develop into the coronary sinus.

Question 103: What anatomical structures are involved in the closure of the fossa ovalis?

A. Septum primum + Endocardial cushion
B. Septum primum + Septum secundum (Correct Answer)
C. Endocardial cushions + Septum secundum
D. None of the options

Explanation: The septum primum acts as a valve, closing against the septum secundum postnatally due to changes in atrial pressure. This fusion effectively closes the foramen ovale, leading to the formation of the fossa ovalis. The endocardial cushions are important for the formation of the atrial and ventricular septa, as well as the AV valves, but not directly for the closure of the fossa ovalis. The septum primum is directly involved, but its apposition with the endocardial cushions doesn't close the foramen ovale. While both structures contribute to heart development, their direct interaction is not responsible for the closure of the fossa ovalis. The septum secundum forms the muscular rim of the fossa ovalis, and the endocardial cushions are critical for atrial septation, but not the final closure here. This option is incorrect because the specific combination of septum primum and septum secundum is indeed responsible for the closure of the fossa ovalis.

Biochemistry

2 questions

Q101

Enzyme causing covalent bond cleavage without hydrolysis ?

Q102

How do enzymes function in biochemical reactions?

NEET-PG 2012 - Biochemistry NEET-PG Practice Questions and MCQs

Question 101: Enzyme causing covalent bond cleavage without hydrolysis ?

A. Lyase (Correct Answer)
B. Ligase
C. Hydrolase
D. Transferase

Explanation: ***Lyase*** - **Lyases** are enzymes that catalyze the cleavage of **covalent bonds** (C-C, C-O, C-N, and others) by means other than hydrolysis or oxidation, often creating a new double bond or a ring structure. - They remove groups from substrates to form double bonds, or conversely, add groups to double bonds. - **Examples:** Aldolase (cleaves C-C bonds in glycolysis), carbonic anhydrase (reversible cleavage of C-O bond), fumarase (C-C bond cleavage in TCA cycle). *Ligase* - **Ligases** are enzymes that join two large molecules by forming a new chemical bond, usually accompanied by the **hydrolysis of ATP**. - They are involved in synthesis reactions, not the cleavage of bonds. *Hydrolase* - **Hydrolases** specifically catalyze the hydrolysis of a chemical bond, involving the **addition of water** across the bond. - They break down large molecules into smaller ones using water - this is the key difference from lyases. *Transferase* - **Transferases** catalyze the transfer of a **functional group** from one molecule (the donor) to another (the acceptor). - They do not cause covalent bond cleavage without hydrolysis but rather move existing groups between molecules.

Question 102: How do enzymes function in biochemical reactions?

A. Increase in activation energy
B. Decrease in activation energy (Correct Answer)
C. Shift equilibrium constant
D. Provide energy to the reaction

Explanation: ***Decrease in activation energy*** - Enzymes act as **biological catalysts** by providing an alternative reaction pathway with a lower **transition state energy**. - This reduction in the **activation energy** allows a higher proportion of reactant molecules to overcome the energy barrier and react, thereby increasing the reaction rate. *Increase in activation energy* - This statement is incorrect as increasing activation energy would slow down the reaction rate, which is contrary to the function of enzymes. - Enzymes are designed to accelerate reactions, not inhibit them, by making them energetically more favorable to proceed. *Shift equilibrium constant* - Enzymes catalyze both the forward and reverse reactions equally, meaning they accelerate the rate at which equilibrium is reached but **do not alter the equilibrium constant (Keq)** of a reaction. - The equilibrium constant is determined by the difference in free energy between reactants and products, which enzymes do not change. *Provide energy to the reaction* - This statement is incorrect because enzymes do **not provide energy** to reactions; they only lower the activation energy barrier. - Enzymes facilitate reactions by stabilizing the transition state, not by adding energy to the system, which would violate thermodynamic principles.

Internal Medicine

1 questions

Q101

Progressive distal-to-proximal motor recovery following nerve regeneration is most characteristic of which type of nerve injury?

Physiology

4 questions

Q101

What is the average daily volume of pancreatic secretion in humans?

Q102

What is the duration of the second heart sound (S2)?

Q103

What happens to the concentration of inulin as fluid passes through the Proximal Convoluted Tubule (PCT)?

Q104

Which of the following hormones does not mediate its action through cAMP?

NEET-PG 2012 - Physiology NEET-PG Practice Questions and MCQs

Question 101: What is the average daily volume of pancreatic secretion in humans?

A. 5.0 L
B. 10 L
C. 1.5 L (Correct Answer)
D. 2.5 L

Explanation: ***1.5 L*** - The **pancreas** produces approximately **1.5 liters (1200-1500 mL) of pancreatic juice** daily in humans. - This secretion is rich in **digestive enzymes** (amylase, lipase, proteases) and **bicarbonate** for neutralization of gastric acid in the duodenum. - This is the standard value cited in **major physiology textbooks** (Ganong, Guyton & Hall). *2.5 L* - **2.5 liters** overestimates the typical daily pancreatic secretion volume. - This value may represent **combined secretions** from multiple sources or confuse pancreatic output with total upper GI secretions. - Normal pancreatic secretion ranges from **1-2 liters**, making 2.5 L above the physiological range. *5.0 L* - **5.0 liters** represents an abnormally high volume for daily pancreatic secretion alone. - This volume is closer to the **total daily secretions** from stomach, pancreas, and bile combined. - Not consistent with **normal pancreatic physiology**. *10 L* - **10 liters** is grossly excessive for pancreatic secretion and represents approximately the **total volume of all gastrointestinal secretions** (saliva, gastric, pancreatic, bile, intestinal) combined daily. - This is **not physiologically realistic** for pancreatic output alone.

Question 102: What is the duration of the second heart sound (S2)?

A. 0.15 sec
B. 0.1 sec
C. 0.12 sec
D. 0.08 sec (Correct Answer)

Explanation: ***0.08 sec*** - The second heart sound (S2) is composed of two components: A2 (aortic valve closure) and P2 (pulmonic valve closure). The normal duration of S2, encompassing both components, is approximately **0.08 seconds**. - This short duration reflects the rapid closure of the aortic and pulmonic valves at the beginning of **diastole**. *0.15sec* - A duration of **0.15 seconds** for S2 is significantly longer than normal, which could indicate abnormal valve function or conditions causing delayed valve closure. - Such prolonged duration might be observed in conditions like **severe pulmonic stenosis** or **pulmonic hypertension**, which are not the typical duration of a healthy S2. *0.12 sec* - A duration of **0.12 seconds** is also longer than the typical normal range for S2. - While still shorter than 0.15 seconds, it could suggest subtle delays in valve closure or splitting that exceeds the usual physiological splitting. *0.1 sec* - A duration of **0.1 seconds** is slightly prolonged but generally falls within a range that might be considered borderline or indicative of minimal physiological variations. - However, in typical healthy individuals, the S2 duration is closer to 0.08 seconds, making 0.1 seconds less precise for the most common duration.

Question 103: What happens to the concentration of inulin as fluid passes through the Proximal Convoluted Tubule (PCT)?

A. Concentration of inulin increases (Correct Answer)
B. Concentration of urea remains constant
C. Concentration of HCO3- increases
D. Concentration of Na+ decreases

Explanation: ***Concentration of inulin increases*** - Inulin is **freely filtered** at the glomerulus and is neither reabsorbed nor secreted along the renal tubule, making it an excellent marker for **glomerular filtration rate (GFR)**. - As water is reabsorbed from the PCT, the volume of tubular fluid decreases, causing the concentration of **unreabsorbed solutes**, like inulin, to increase. *Concentration of urea remains constant* - Urea is **reabsorbed** along the tubule, though passively; its concentration typically **increases** initially in the PCT due to water reabsorption, but then decreases as some is reabsorbed. - The statement is incorrect because urea concentration changes significantly throughout the nephron, particularly increasing as water is reabsorbed and then decreasing with some reabsorption. *Concentration of HCO3- increases* - The majority (approximately 80-90%) of **bicarbonate (HCO3-)** is reabsorbed in the PCT, primarily through its conversion to CO2 within the tubular lumen and then back to HCO3- intracellularly. - Therefore, the concentration of HCO3- in the tubular fluid actually **decreases** significantly as fluid passes through the PCT. *Concentration of Na+ decreases* - **Sodium (Na+)** is actively reabsorbed along the entire nephron, with about 65-70% reabsorbed in the PCT. - While Na+ is reabsorbed, water follows passively, so its concentration in the tubular fluid remains relatively **iso-osmotic** with plasma, meaning its concentration does not significantly decrease as fluid passes through the PCT, remaining fairly constant.

Question 104: Which of the following hormones does not mediate its action through cAMP?

A. Glucagon
B. Follicle stimulating hormone
C. Estrogen (Correct Answer)
D. Luteinizing hormone

Explanation: ***Estrogen*** - **Estrogen** is a **steroid hormone** that mediates its action by binding to intracellular receptors, forming a complex that directly influences gene transcription. - Steroid hormones, due to their **lipophilicity**, can cross the cell membrane and do not typically rely on cell surface receptors or second messengers like cAMP. *Glucagon* - **Glucagon** acts on a **G protein-coupled receptor (GPCR)**, specifically a Gs-coupled receptor, leading to the activation of adenylyl cyclase. - This activation increases the intracellular concentration of **cAMP**, which then activates protein kinase A to mediate its effects, primarily on glucose metabolism. *Follicle stimulating hormone* - **FSH** binds to a **GPCR** on target cells, activating the Gs protein pathway. - This activation stimulates **adenylyl cyclase** and increases intracellular **cAMP** levels, which are critical for its role in gamete development. *Luteinizing hormone* - **LH**, like FSH, binds to a cell surface **GPCR** that activates the Gs protein. - This leads to the stimulation of **adenylyl cyclase** and an increase in **cAMP**, mediating its effects on steroidogenesis and ovulation.