Biochemistry
1 questionsSelenium deficiency is seen in -
NEET-PG 2012 - Biochemistry NEET-PG Practice Questions and MCQs
Question 1051: Selenium deficiency is seen in -
- A. Keshan disease (Correct Answer)
- B. Wilson disease
- C. Acrodermatitis enteropathica
- D. None of the options
Explanation: ***Keshan disease*** - **Keshan disease** is a form of **cardiomyopathy** caused by **selenium deficiency**, particularly prevalent in regions with selenium-poor soil. - It presents with **heart failure**, arrhythmias, and cardiac enlargement. *Wilson disease* - **Wilson disease** is a disorder of **copper metabolism**, leading to excessive copper accumulation in organs, primarily the liver and brain. - It is not related to selenium deficiency. *Acrodermatitis enteropathica* - **Acrodermatitis enteropathica** is a genetic disorder of **zinc deficiency**, characterized by dermatitis, diarrhea, and alopecia. - It does not involve selenium deficiency. *None of the options* - This option is incorrect because Keshan disease is directly linked to selenium deficiency.
Dental
2 questionsWhat is the first permanent tooth to erupt?
Which of the following conditions is NOT associated with delayed dentition?
NEET-PG 2012 - Dental NEET-PG Practice Questions and MCQs
Question 1051: What is the first permanent tooth to erupt?
- A. First premolar
- B. Second premolar
- C. First molar (Correct Answer)
- D. Second molar
Explanation: ***First molar*** - The **first molars** are typically the first permanent teeth to erupt, usually around **6 years of age**. - They erupt distal to the primary second molars and are not preceded by primary teeth, making them crucial for establishing the **occlusion**. *First premolar* - **First premolars** typically erupt later, between **10 and 11 years of age**, replacing the primary first molars. - Their eruption is part of the **exchange of primary teeth** for permanent successors. *Second premolar* - The **second premolars** erupt even later, usually between **11 and 12 years of age**, replacing the primary second molars. - They are also involved in the **replacement of primary teeth**, not the initial permanent eruption. *Second molar* - **Second molars** erupt much later than the first molars, typically between **11 and 13 years of age**, distal to the first molars. - They are part of the **later stages of permanent dentition development**.
Question 1052: Which of the following conditions is NOT associated with delayed dentition?
- A. Down syndrome
- B. Cystic fibrosis (Correct Answer)
- C. Congenital hypothyroidism
- D. Rickets
Explanation: ***Cystic fibrosis*** - **Cystic fibrosis** primarily affects exocrine glands, leading to issues in the respiratory and digestive systems, and does not directly impact tooth development or eruption timing. - While patients with cystic fibrosis may have other oral health concerns due to medications or nutritional deficiencies, **delayed dentition** is not a characteristic feature of the condition itself. *Down syndrome* - Children with **Down syndrome** often experience generalized developmental delays, including delayed eruption of both primary and permanent teeth. - Other common oral manifestations in Down syndrome include **microdontia**, **taurodontism**, and a higher incidence of **periodontal disease**. *Congenital hypothyroidism* - **Congenital hypothyroidism** is associated with significant developmental delays, including skeletal maturation and delayed tooth eruption. - The reduced metabolic rate due to thyroid hormone deficiency impacts bone and tooth development. *Rickets* - **Rickets**, caused by a deficiency in vitamin D, calcium, or phosphate, leads to inadequate mineralization of bone and cartilage, which can affect tooth development and eruption. - Oral manifestations of rickets include **delayed tooth eruption**, enamel hypoplasia, and a higher susceptibility to dental caries.
Internal Medicine
1 questionsWhat is the most common complication of a large Patent Ductus Arteriosus (PDA)?
NEET-PG 2012 - Internal Medicine NEET-PG Practice Questions and MCQs
Question 1051: What is the most common complication of a large Patent Ductus Arteriosus (PDA)?
- A. Eisenmenger syndrome
- B. Congestive Heart Failure (CHF) (Correct Answer)
- C. Infective endocarditis
- D. None of the options
Explanation: ***Congestive Heart Failure (CHF)*** - A large PDA results in a significant **left-to-right shunt**, increasing pulmonary blood flow and leading to **pulmonary overcirculation**. [1] - This increased workload on the heart, particularly the left atrium and ventricle, can lead to **ventricular dysfunction** and ultimately CHF. [1] *Eisenmenger syndrome* - While a severe complication of an untreated large PDA, it represents a **late stage** where the left-to-right shunt has reversed due to **pulmonary hypertension**. [1] - It is not the *most common* initial complication, as CHF often develops earlier in the disease progression. *Infective endocarditis* - This is a potential long-term complication of a PDA, especially if untreated, due to the **turbulent blood flow** across the ductus. - However, it is less common than CHF, which results directly from the hemodynamic burden imposed by a large shunt. *None of the options* - This option is incorrect because **Congestive Heart Failure** is indeed a very common and significant complication of a large Patent Ductus Arteriosus.
Orthopaedics
2 questionsCommonest ligament injured in ankle injury ?
Which of the following is NOT a symptom of carpal tunnel syndrome?
NEET-PG 2012 - Orthopaedics NEET-PG Practice Questions and MCQs
Question 1051: Commonest ligament injured in ankle injury ?
- A. Anterior talofibular ligament (Correct Answer)
- B. Calcaneofibular ligament
- C. Posterior talofibular ligament
- D. Spring ligament
Explanation: ***Anterior talofibular ligament*** - The **anterior talofibular ligament (ATFL)** is the **most frequently injured ligament** in ankle sprains because it is the weakest and most commonly stretched during **inversion injuries**. - Its position makes it vulnerable during movements where the foot rolls inward, a common mechanism for ankle sprains. *Calcaneofibular ligament* - The **calcaneofibular ligament (CFL)** is stronger than the ATFL and is typically injured with more severe inversion forces, often in conjunction with ATFL rupture. - While it plays a crucial role in ankle stability, it is not the *most* commonly injured ligament. *Posterior talofibular ligament* - The **posterior talofibular ligament (PTFL)** is the strongest of the lateral ankle ligaments and is rarely injured in isolated ankle sprains. - Its injury usually signifies a **severe ankle sprain** with significant talar displacement or dislocation. *Spring ligament* - The **spring ligament**, also known as the **plantar calcaneonavicular ligament**, is located on the medial side of the foot and supports the medial longitudinal arch. - It is not directly involved in typical ankle sprains, which primarily affect the lateral collateral ligaments.
Question 1052: Which of the following is NOT a symptom of carpal tunnel syndrome?
- A. Phalen's sign
- B. Pain & paraesthesia of wrist
- C. Tinel sign
- D. Ulnar nerve dysfunction (Correct Answer)
Explanation: ***Ulnar nerve dysfunction*** - Carpal tunnel syndrome specifically involves compression of the **median nerve**, not the ulnar nerve. - Symptoms related to the median nerve include numbness and tingling in the **thumb, index, middle, and radial half of the ring finger**, along with **thenar muscle wasting**. *Tinel sign* - The **Tinel sign** is a common physical examination finding in carpal tunnel syndrome, elicited by tapping over the **median nerve** at the wrist. - A positive sign involves tingling or electric shock-like sensations in the **median nerve distribution**. *Phalen's sign* - **Phalen's sign** is another classic physical maneuver used to diagnose carpal tunnel syndrome, where exaggerated wrist flexion for 60 seconds reproduces symptoms. - This maneuver increases pressure within the **carpal tunnel**, exacerbating median nerve compression. *Pain & paraesthesia of wrist* - **Pain and paraesthesia (numbness and tingling)** in the wrist and hand are hallmark symptoms of carpal tunnel syndrome. - These symptoms are often worse at night or with repetitive hand movements, reflecting **median nerve irritation**.
Pediatrics
3 questionsWhat is the threshold for hyperglycemia in neonates?
What is the most common cause of conjugated hyperbilirubinemia in infants?
Which of the following cancers has the highest cure rate?
NEET-PG 2012 - Pediatrics NEET-PG Practice Questions and MCQs
Question 1051: What is the threshold for hyperglycemia in neonates?
- A. 150 mg/dl (Correct Answer)
- B. 180 mg/dl
- C. 100 mg/dl
- D. 125 mg/dl
Explanation: ***150 mg/dl*** - A blood glucose level greater than **150 mg/dL** is the **standard threshold** most commonly taught and used for defining **hyperglycemia** in neonates. - This value is widely accepted in clinical practice and guides decisions regarding **glucose management** and potential **insulin therapy** in this population. - This threshold is particularly relevant for term and late preterm neonates. *125 mg/dl* - While **125 mg/dL** represents an elevated glucose level and some newer guidelines consider this as a threshold (especially >7 mmol/L), it is **not the standard taught threshold** of 150 mg/dL. - For examination purposes, **150 mg/dL** remains the recognized standard definition. *180 mg/dl* - A blood glucose level of **180 mg/dL** indicates **severe hyperglycemia** rather than the initial threshold for defining hyperglycemia. - While some protocols for extremely preterm infants may use higher cutoffs, this exceeds the standard diagnostic threshold. - Intervention is typically initiated well before reaching this level to prevent complications. *100 mg/dl* - A blood glucose level of **100 mg/dL** in a neonate falls within the **normal range**, not hyperglycemia. - This level is desirable for proper brain development and metabolic function. - Normal neonatal glucose ranges from approximately **40-100 mg/dL** in the first days of life.
Question 1052: What is the most common cause of conjugated hyperbilirubinemia in infants?
- A. Rotor syndrome
- B. Crigler Najjar syndrome
- C. Dubin-Johnson syndrome
- D. Biliary atresia (Correct Answer)
Explanation: ***Rotor syndrome*** - Characterized by **conjugated hyperbilirubinemia** due to a defect in hepatic uptake and storage of bilirubin [1]. - This condition can lead to elevated levels of **direct (conjugated) bilirubin** without significant liver damage. *Crigler Najjar* - This condition primarily causes **unconjugated hyperbilirubinemia** due to a deficiency of the enzyme **uridine diphosphate glucuronyl transferase** [1]. - It typically presents with **kernicterus** in newborns rather than conjugated bilirubin elevation. *Breast milk jaundice* - Mainly leads to **unconjugated hyperbilirubinemia** due to substances in breast milk that inhibit bilirubin conjugation. - Generally occurs in **breastfed infants** after the first week of life, not presenting with increased conjugated bilirubin. *Gilbert syndrome* - This syndrome is associated with **unconjugated hyperbilirubinemia** due to a genetic defect in bilirubin conjugation [1]. - Typically benign, it does not cause **increased conjugated bilirubin** levels as seen in Rotor syndrome. **References:** [1] Kumar V, Abbas AK, et al.. Robbins and Cotran Pathologic Basis of Disease. 9th ed. Liver and Gallbladder, p. 860.
Question 1053: Which of the following cancers has the highest cure rate?
- A. Wilm's Tumor
- B. Retinoblastoma (Correct Answer)
- C. Rhabdomyosarcoma
- D. All of the options
Explanation: ***Retinoblastoma*** - This **childhood eye cancer** has an excellent prognosis, with a reported cure rate of **over 95%** when diagnosed early and treated promptly. - Treatment options like **chemotherapy**, **radiation**, **laser therapy**, and **enucleation** contribute to its high survival rate. *Wilm's Tumor* - While **Wilm's tumor** (nephroblastoma) also has a high cure rate in children, typically **around 90%**, it is slightly lower than that of retinoblastoma. - It is a **kidney cancer** primarily affecting children and is highly responsive to treatment. *Rhabdomyosarcoma* - The cure rate for **rhabdomyosarcoma**, a rare and aggressive cancer of the soft tissues, varies significantly based on factors like **tumor location**, **stage**, and **histology**. - Overall survival rates are generally lower than for retinoblastoma and Wilm's tumor, often ranging from **60-70%**. *All of the options* - This option is incorrect because while all three cancers listed have good prognoses, **retinoblastoma** specifically stands out with the highest cure rate among them. - The cure rates for Wilm's tumor and rhabdomyosarcoma, while good, are not as high as that for retinoblastoma.
Surgery
1 questionsMost common organism causing infection after an open fracture?
NEET-PG 2012 - Surgery NEET-PG Practice Questions and MCQs
Question 1051: Most common organism causing infection after an open fracture?
- A. Klebsiella
- B. Pseudomonas
- C. Gonococcus
- D. Staphylococcus aureus (Correct Answer)
Explanation: ***Staphylococcus aureus*** - *Staphylococcus aureus* is the **most common organism** causing infection in **open fractures**, accounting for 30-40% of cases. - It is present on **skin flora** and readily contaminates traumatic wounds, making it the predominant pathogen in the immediate post-injury period. - **Antibiotic prophylaxis** for open fractures (cephalosporins) primarily targets *S. aureus*, reflecting its clinical importance. - It causes both **early and late infections** in open fractures and is the leading cause of **post-traumatic osteomyelitis**. *Pseudomonas* - *Pseudomonas aeruginosa* can cause infections in open fractures but is **not the most common** organism. - More frequently seen in **Type III open fractures** with extensive soft tissue damage, **nosocomial infections**, or **delayed infections** after hospitalization. - Associated with **contaminated water exposure** and **chronic wounds** rather than being the primary pathogen in acute open fractures. *Klebsiella* - *Klebsiella* species are typically associated with **nosocomial infections**, particularly **urinary tract infections** and **pneumonia**. - Rarely the primary pathogen in acute open fracture infections. - May be seen in **hospital-acquired** infections in patients with prolonged hospitalization. *Gonococcus* - **Gonococcus** (*Neisseria gonorrhoeae*) is primarily associated with **sexually transmitted infections** and can cause **septic arthritis** through hematogenous spread. - It does **not** cause infections in open fractures as it is not found in the environment or on skin. - The mode of transmission is completely unrelated to trauma or wound contamination.