Anesthesiology
1 questionsWhich of the following statements about halothane is false?
NEET-PG 2012 - Anesthesiology NEET-PG Practice Questions and MCQs
Question 1021: Which of the following statements about halothane is false?
- A. Volatile liquid with sweet odour
- B. Constricts bronchii (Correct Answer)
- C. Causes malignant hyperthermia
- D. Sensitises heart to adrenaline
Explanation: ***Constricts bronchii*** - Halothane is a **bronchodilator** that relaxes bronchial smooth muscle, making it useful in patients with asthma or COPD. - The statement that it constricts bronchi is **false**. *Volatile liquid with sweet odour* - **Halothane** is a **volatile liquid** and is known for its characteristic **sweet, non-pungent odour**. - This property makes it well-tolerated during induction of anesthesia, particularly in pediatric patients. *Sensitises heart to adrenaline* - Halothane **sensitizes the myocardium** to the effects of **catecholamines**, including adrenaline (epinephrine). - This can lead to the development of **cardiac arrhythmias**, especially ventricular arrhythmias, when adrenaline is administered or endogenous levels are high. *Causes malignant hyperthermia* - Halothane is a potent trigger for **malignant hyperthermia**, a rare but life-threatening pharmacogenetic disorder. - This condition is characterized by a rapid and severe increase in body temperature, muscle rigidity, and metabolic derangements due to uncontrolled release of calcium from the sarcoplasmic reticulum.
Orthopaedics
4 questionsAfter chronic use of steroids severe pain in right hip with immobility is due to
In elbow, osteochondritis usually involves
What is a common complication of joint tuberculosis?
In the context of bone metastasis, which of the following bones is least likely to be a site of metastasis?
NEET-PG 2012 - Orthopaedics NEET-PG Practice Questions and MCQs
Question 1021: After chronic use of steroids severe pain in right hip with immobility is due to
- A. Avascular necrosis (Correct Answer)
- B. Perthes disease
- C. Hip dislocation
- D. Osteoarthritis
Explanation: ***Avascular necrosis*** - Chronic **steroid use** is a major risk factor for avascular necrosis (AVN), particularly affecting the **femoral head** of the hip. - Reduced blood supply leads to bone death, resulting in severe pain and impaired mobility. *Perthes disease* - This is a condition of idiopathic **avascular necrosis of the femoral head** occurring in **children**, primarily between ages 4-10. - It is not associated with steroid use and typically presents in a different age group. *Hip dislocation* - Hip dislocation presents with **acute, severe pain** and an inability to bear weight or move the hip, often due to significant trauma. - While it causes immobility, it is an **acute traumatic event** rather than a chronic consequence of steroid use. *Osteoarthritis* - Osteoarthritis is a degenerative joint disease characterized by **cartilage breakdown** and joint pain that typically **worsens with activity** and improves with rest. - While chronic hip pain can be due to osteoarthritis, its direct link to steroid use for severe pain and immobility as described is less prominent than AVN.
Question 1022: In elbow, osteochondritis usually involves
- A. Olecranon
- B. Trochlea
- C. Radial head
- D. Capitulum (Correct Answer)
Explanation: ***Capitulum*** - The **capitulum** of the humerus is the most common site for **osteochondritis dissecans (OCD)** in the elbow, especially in throwing athletes and gymnasts. - This condition involves an avascular necrosis of the subchondral bone leading to a detachment of a cartilage fragment. *Olecranon* - The **olecranon** is part of the ulna and is more commonly affected by **stress fractures** or **bursitis**, not typically osteochondritis. - While it articulates with the trochlea, it does not bear the primary compressive forces that lead to osteochondritis in the same way the capitulum does. *Trochlea* - The **trochlea** of the humerus articulates with the trochlear notch of the ulna and is less frequently involved in primary osteochondritis compared to the capitulum. - Pathologies here are more likely related to **instability** or **fractures**. *Radial head* - The **radial head** articulates with the capitulum and is more prone to **fractures** or degenerative changes like **osteoarthritis**. - While it can be affected by **osteochondral lesions**, the capitulum is the classic site for elbow osteochondritis dissecans.
Question 1023: What is a common complication of joint tuberculosis?
- A. Fibrous ankylosis (Correct Answer)
- B. Bony ankylosis
- C. Normal healing
- D. None of the options
Explanation: ***Fibrous ankylosis*** - Joint tuberculosis commonly leads to **fibrous ankylosis** due to chronic inflammation and destruction of articular cartilage, promoting the formation of fibrous tissue that limits joint movement. - This complication results from the body's attempt to heal the persistent inflammatory process, creating a stiff and immoveable joint. *Bony ankylosis* - While possible in severe, long-standing cases, **bony ankylosis** (fusion of bones) is less common in joint tuberculosis than fibrous ankylosis. - It typically occurs in diseases like **ankylosing spondylitis** or advanced rheumatoid arthritis, where new bone formation bridges joint spaces. *Normal healing* - **Normal healing** with full restoration of joint function is rare in untreated or late-diagnosed joint tuberculosis due to the destructive nature of the infection. - The disease often causes significant damage to cartilage and bone, precluding complete recovery without sequelae. *None of the options* - This option is incorrect because **fibrous ankylosis** is a well-recognized and frequent complication of joint tuberculosis. - The chronic inflammatory response and tissue destruction inherent to the disease make complications highly probable.
Question 1024: In the context of bone metastasis, which of the following bones is least likely to be a site of metastasis?
- A. Femur
- B. Humerus
- C. Fibula (Correct Answer)
- D. Spine
Explanation: ***Fibula*** - The **fibula** is not commonly involved in **metastatic disease**, primarily due to its low blood supply compared to other bones. - While it can occasionally show metastatic lesions, it's **rare** when compared to more commonly affected sites. *Humerus* - The **humerus** can be affected by metastasis, often from lung or breast cancers [1], as it is one of the long bones involved in **hematogenous spread**. - Common presentations include **lytic or blastic lesions**, which indicate bone damage from metastatic processes. *Femur* - The **femur** is frequently involved in metastatic lesions, particularly in patients with malignancies like **prostate or breast cancer** [1]. - Symptoms may include **pain** and **pathologic fractures** due to the weakening of the bone structure from metastasis [1]. *Spine* - The **spine** is a common site for metastases, especially from cancers such as **lung, breast, and prostate** [1]. - Bone scans often reveal **vertebral body lesions**, leading to complications like **spinal cord compression** [1]. **References:** [1] Cross SS. Underwood's Pathology: A Clinical Approach. 6th ed. Common Clinical Problems From Osteoarticular And Connective Tissue Disease, pp. 674-675.
Pharmacology
1 questionsMidazolam does not cause which of the following?
NEET-PG 2012 - Pharmacology NEET-PG Practice Questions and MCQs
Question 1021: Midazolam does not cause which of the following?
- A. Anterograde amnesia
- B. Decreased cardiovascular effects as compared to propofol
- C. Causes tachyphylaxis during high dose infusions
- D. Retrograde amnesia (Correct Answer)
Explanation: ***Retrograde amnesia*** - Midazolam, a benzodiazepine, primarily causes **anterograde amnesia** [2], meaning patients have difficulty forming new memories after drug administration. - It does not significantly affect memories formed **before drug administration** (retrograde amnesia). *Anterograde amnesia* - Midazolam is well-known for its ability to induce **anterograde amnesia**, which is often a desirable effect in procedural sedation [2]. - This effect helps patients forget unpleasant or painful procedures performed while under its influence. *Causes tachyphylaxis during high dose infusions* - Prolonged or high-dose infusions of midazolam can lead to **tachyphylaxis**, requiring increased doses to achieve the same effect [1]. - This phenomenon is due to the **down-regulation or desensitization of GABA-A receptors** with continuous stimulation. *Decreased cardiovascular effects as compared to propofol* - Midazolam generally causes **less pronounced cardiovascular depression** (e.g., hypotension) compared to propofol, especially in standard sedative doses [1]. - This makes midazolam a safer option for sedation in some patients with **fragile cardiovascular statuses**.
Psychiatry
3 questionsWhich of the following diseases has the maximum Disability-Adjusted Life Years (DALY) loss?
Which of the following is a negative symptom of schizophrenia?
What type of therapy is desensitization commonly classified as?
NEET-PG 2012 - Psychiatry NEET-PG Practice Questions and MCQs
Question 1021: Which of the following diseases has the maximum Disability-Adjusted Life Years (DALY) loss?
- A. Schizophrenia (Mental Disorder)
- B. Bipolar depression (Bipolar Disorder)
- C. Mania (Bipolar Disorder Episode)
- D. Unipolar depression (Major Depressive Disorder) (Correct Answer)
Explanation: ***Unipolar depression (Major Depressive Disorder)*** - **Major Depressive Disorder (MDD)** is considered a leading cause of **disability worldwide**, contributing significantly to DALYs due to its high prevalence, chronicity, and disabling nature. - The long-term impact on daily functioning, productivity, and overall quality of life makes it the mental disorder with the largest burden of disease. *Schizophrenia (Mental Disorder)* - While **schizophrenia** causes severe disability and is highly impactful on individuals and society, its prevalence is lower than that of unipolar depression. - The DALY burden for schizophrenia is substantial, but **unipolar depression** affects a much larger proportion of the global population. *Bipolar depression (Bipolar Disorder)* - **Bipolar disorder (depressive episodes)** also contributes significantly to disability, but it is less prevalent than unipolar depression. - Although the depressive phases are often more severe than unipolar depression, the overall DALYs are lower due to its **comparatively lower incidence**. *Mania (Bipolar Disorder Episode)* - **Mania**, a component of bipolar disorder, can cause significant impairment during an episode but is typically **episodic** and less frequent than depressive states in bipolar disorder. - The DALYs attributed to manic episodes alone are generally lower than the overall burden of persistent depressive states found in unipolar depression.
Question 1022: Which of the following is a negative symptom of schizophrenia?
- A. Hallucination
- B. Delusion
- C. Motor hyperactivity
- D. Alogia (poverty of speech) (Correct Answer)
Explanation: ***Alogia (poverty of speech)*** - **Alogia** refers to a reduction in the **fluency and productivity of speech**, which is a classic **negative symptom** of schizophrenia indicating a *loss* or *absence* of normal functions. - Negative symptoms are characterized by deficits in normal emotional responses or other thought processes. *Hallucination* - **Hallucinations** are perceptual experiences that occur in the absence of an external stimulus, most commonly **auditory** in schizophrenia. - They are considered **positive symptoms** because they represent an *addition* or *distortion* of normal functions. *Delusion* - A **delusion** is a fixed, false belief that is not amenable to change in light of conflicting evidence, such as **persecutory** or **grandiose delusions**. - Delusions are also categorized as **positive symptoms** as they involve an *exaggeration* or *distortion* of normal thought content. *Motor hyperactivity* - **Motor hyperactivity** involves excessive or uncontrolled body movements and is not a typical symptom of schizophrenia. - While schizophrenia can involve **psychomotor agitation**, this is distinct from generalized hyperactivity and is not a core negative symptom.
Question 1023: What type of therapy is desensitization commonly classified as?
- A. Psychotherapy
- B. Psychoanalysis
- C. Behavioral therapy (Correct Answer)
- D. Not applicable
Explanation: ***Behavioral therapy*** - Desensitization techniques, such as **systematic desensitization**, are a cornerstone of **behavioral therapy** due to their focus on changing learned dysfunctional responses. - This approach aims to reduce anxiety or phobic reactions by gradually exposing individuals to feared stimuli in a controlled manner. *Psychotherapy* - This is a very **broad category** that encompasses many types of talking therapies, including behavioral therapy. - While desensitization is a *type* of psychotherapy, **behavioral therapy** is a more specific and accurate classification. *Psychoanalysis* - This therapeutic approach, developed by Sigmund Freud, focuses on uncovering **unconscious conflicts** and past experiences, often through techniques like **free association** and dream analysis. - Desensitization does not primarily deal with unconscious drives or early childhood experiences as its core mechanism. *Not applicable* - This option is incorrect because desensitization is a well-established and recognized therapeutic technique that fits within a standard classification of psychotherapies. - It clearly has a defined application and theoretical framework.
Radiology
1 questions"Sunray appearance" on X-rays is suggestive of:
NEET-PG 2012 - Radiology NEET-PG Practice Questions and MCQs
Question 1021: "Sunray appearance" on X-rays is suggestive of:
- A. A metastatic tumour in the bone
- B. An Osteogenic sarcoma (Correct Answer)
- C. An Ewing's sarcoma
- D. A type of bone cancer that can show various radiographic appearances
Explanation: ***An Osteogenic sarcoma*** - The **"sunray appearance" (or sunburst)** on X-rays is a classic radiographic finding pathognomonic for **osteosarcoma**, especially in adults and adolescents. - This appearance is due to the **periosteal new bone formation** that grows perpendicular to the bone surface, creating a radiating spicule pattern. *A type of bone cancer that can show various radiographic appearances* - While true that bone cancers can show various appearances, the "sunray appearance" is specific enough to strongly point to a particular type, rather than just a general category. - This option is too broad and does not provide the most precise diagnosis indicated by the specific radiographic sign. *A metastatic tumour in the bone* - Metastatic bone lesions typically present with **lytic (bone destruction)** or **blastic (bone formation)** patterns, or a mixed pattern, but rarely produce the periosteal "sunray" appearance. - The characteristic radiographic finding for metastasis would often involve multiple lesions and different periosteal reactions, such as an **onion skin appearance** in some aggressive cases, but not typically sunray. *An Ewing's sarcoma* - Ewing's sarcoma commonly presents with an **"onion skin" periosteal reaction** due to multiple layers of new bone formation. - While both are primary bone tumors, the radiographic findings are distinctly different, allowing for differentiation.