Biochemistry
2 questionsDiagnosis of carcinoid tumour is done by urinary estimation of:
In which of the following conditions is a Barr body absent in females?
NEET-PG 2012 - Biochemistry NEET-PG Practice Questions and MCQs
Question 1011: Diagnosis of carcinoid tumour is done by urinary estimation of:
- A. VMA
- B. Metanephrines
- C. Catecholamines
- D. 5HIAA (Correct Answer)
Explanation: ***5HIAA*** - The urinary estimate of **5-hydroxyindoleacetic acid (5HIAA)** is the primary diagnostic test for **carcinoid tumors** [1], particularly those secreting serotonin. - Elevated levels of **5HIAA** in urine indicate excessive serotonin production, which is characteristic of these tumors. *VMA* - **Vanillylmandelic acid (VMA)** is a metabolite of catecholamines and is primarily used in diagnosing **neuroblastoma** or **pheochromocytoma**, not carcinoid tumors. - Although it indicates catecholamine secretion, it does not correlate with **serotonin** levels associated with carcinoid tumors. *Metanephrines* - **Metanephrines** represent metabolites of catecholamines and are mainly evaluated for **pheochromocytoma**. - They do not provide information on serotonin metabolism or carcinoid tumor activity. *Catecholamines* - Catecholamines such as **epinephrine and norepinephrine** are not specifically related to carcinoid tumors and often indicate other neuroendocrine tumors. - Their levels do not correlate with serotonin or its metabolite, **5HIAA**, used for carcinoid diagnosis. **References:** [1] Cross SS. Underwood's Pathology: A Clinical Approach. 6th ed. (Basic Pathology) introduces the student to key general principles of pathology, both as a medical science and as a clinical activity with a vital role in patient care. Part 2 (Disease Mechanisms) provides fundamental knowledge about the cellular and molecular processes involved in diseases, providing the rationale for their treatment. Part 3 (Systematic Pathology) deals in detail with specific diseases, with emphasis on the clinically important aspects., pp. 12-15.
Question 1012: In which of the following conditions is a Barr body absent in females?
- A. 46 XX genome
- B. 45 X0 genome (Correct Answer)
- C. 47 XXX
- D. None of the options
Explanation: ***45 X0 genome*** - A Barr body is a **condensed, inactivated X chromosome** found in somatic cells of females with at least two X chromosomes. - Individuals with a **45 X0 genome** (Turner Syndrome) have only one X chromosome, therefore no Barr body is formed. *46 XX genome* - Individuals with a **46 XX genome** are typical females and will have one Barr body per somatic cell, as one of the two X chromosomes is inactivated. - This is the normal female karyotype. *47 XXX* - Individuals with a **47 XXX genome** (triple X syndrome) have two Barr bodies per somatic cell, as two of their three X chromosomes are inactivated. - The number of Barr bodies is typically one less than the number of X chromosomes. *None of the options* - This option is incorrect because the 45 X0 genome indeed leads to the absence of a Barr body in females. - There is a specific condition listed among the options where a Barr body is absent.
Dermatology
1 questionsRichner-Hanhart syndrome is characterized by which of the following?
NEET-PG 2012 - Dermatology NEET-PG Practice Questions and MCQs
Question 1011: Richner-Hanhart syndrome is characterized by which of the following?
- A. Autosomal dominant
- B. Associated with abnormality in lipid metabolism
- C. Ocular and cutaneous features (Correct Answer)
- D. Never associated with neurological involvement
Explanation: ***Ocular and cutaneous features*** - **Richner-Hanhart syndrome**, also known as **Tyrosinemia type II**, is characterized by the classic triad of **painful hyperkeratotic plaques** on the palms and soles (cutaneous features), **corneal ulcers** or **dendritic keratitis** (ocular features), and **variable neurological involvement**. - These features arise from the accumulation of **tyrosine** due to a deficiency of the enzyme **hepatic tyrosine aminotransferase (TAT)**. - The **ocular and cutaneous manifestations** are the hallmark features that define this syndrome. *Autosomal dominant* - Richner-Hanhart syndrome is inherited in an **autosomal recessive** pattern, meaning two copies of the defective gene (TAT gene on chromosome 16) are required for the condition to manifest. - An **autosomal dominant** inheritance pattern would mean only one copy of the defective gene is sufficient to cause the disorder. *Associated with abnormality in lipid metabolism* - The syndrome is an inborn error of **amino acid metabolism**, specifically involving **tyrosine**, not lipid metabolism. - Diseases associated with abnormality in **lipid metabolism** include conditions like Gaucher disease, Niemann-Pick disease, or Fabry disease. *Never associated with neurological involvement* - This is **incorrect**. **Neurological involvement** including intellectual disability, developmental delay, seizures, and behavioral problems occurs in **30-50% of cases**. - The accumulation of **tyrosine** and its metabolites (particularly tyrosine crystals) can be **neurotoxic**, leading to varying degrees of neurological impairment. - Early dietary restriction of tyrosine and phenylalanine can prevent or minimize neurological complications.
Internal Medicine
1 questionsWhat is the initial treatment of choice for managing secondary hyperparathyroidism in patients with renal osteodystrophy?
NEET-PG 2012 - Internal Medicine NEET-PG Practice Questions and MCQs
Question 1011: What is the initial treatment of choice for managing secondary hyperparathyroidism in patients with renal osteodystrophy?
- A. Cinacalcet
- B. Bisphosphonates
- C. Calcium restriction
- D. Phosphate binders (Correct Answer)
Explanation: ***Phosphate binders*** - **Phosphate binders** are the initial treatment because **hyperphosphatemia** is the primary driver of secondary hyperparathyroidism in renal disease, triggering parathyroid hormone (PTH) release [1]. - They work by binding dietary phosphate in the gastrointestinal tract, preventing its absorption and thus lowering serum phosphate levels [1]. *Cinacalcet* - **Cinacalcet** is a calcimimetic that increases the sensitivity of calcium-sensing receptors on the parathyroid gland, reducing **PTH secretion** [1]. - It is often used if **phosphate binders** and **vitamin D analogs** are insufficient in controlling PTH, making it a second-line treatment [1]. *Bisphosphonates* - **Bisphosphonates** are used to treat osteoporosis by inhibiting osteoclast activity and reducing bone resorption. - They are generally contraindicated in advanced renal osteodystrophy due to concerns about adynamic bone disease and are not an initial treatment for **secondary hyperparathyroidism**. *Calcium restriction* - While restricting dietary calcium might seem intuitive, **hypocalcemia** is often a problem in renal disease due to impaired vitamin D activation [1]. - Overly restricting calcium can worsen hypocalcemia, which would further stimulate PTH release, thus it is not an initial treatment for **secondary hyperparathyroidism**.
Obstetrics and Gynecology
1 questionsWhat is thelarche?
NEET-PG 2012 - Obstetrics and Gynecology NEET-PG Practice Questions and MCQs
Question 1011: What is thelarche?
- A. Breast development in boys during puberty
- B. Breast enlargement during pregnancy
- C. Breast enlargement due to hormonal therapy in postmenopausal women
- D. Hormone-related breast development in girls (Correct Answer)
Explanation: ***Hormone-related breast enlargement in girls*** - **Thelarche** specifically refers to the first sign of puberty in girls, which is the **onset of breast development**. - This development is primarily driven by the action of **estrogen** on breast tissue. *Breast development in boys during puberty* - This condition is known as **gynecomastia**, which is distinguishable from thelarche observed in girls. - While also hormone-related, **gynecomastia** often involves an imbalance between estrogen and androgens. *Breast enlargement during pregnancy* - Breast enlargement during pregnancy is a normal physiological change in preparation for lactation, driven by a surge in various hormones like **estrogen, progesterone, and prolactin**. - It is distinct from the initial, puberty-related breast development in girls. *Breast enlargement due to hormonal therapy in postmenopausal women* - This is an induced effect of **exogenous hormones** (e.g., hormone replacement therapy) and not a natural developmental stage like thelarche. - It is a side effect of medication, not the start of puberty.
Ophthalmology
1 questionsWhat is a potential ocular complication caused by alkali exposure?
NEET-PG 2012 - Ophthalmology NEET-PG Practice Questions and MCQs
Question 1011: What is a potential ocular complication caused by alkali exposure?
- A. Symblepharon (Correct Answer)
- B. Papilloedema
- C. Optic neuritis
- D. Retinal detachment
Explanation: ***Symblepharon*** - **Symblepharon** is the **adhesion of the palpebral conjunctiva to the bulbar conjunctiva**. It is a common long-term complication of severe alkali burns to the eye, reflecting significant tissue damage and cicatrization. - Alkali causes **liquefactive necrosis**, deeply penetrating ocular tissues and leading to extensive inflammation, scarring, and subsequent adhesion formation due to the destruction of the conjunctival surface. *Papilloedema* - **Papilloedema** refers to **optic disc swelling due to increased intracranial pressure**, not a direct result of ocular surface trauma or chemical exposure. - While systemic conditions can cause papilloedema, it is unrelated to the local effects of an **alkali burn**. *Optic neuritis* - **Optic neuritis** is an **inflammation of the optic nerve**, often associated with demyelinating diseases like multiple sclerosis. - It results in **vision loss** and pain with eye movement but is not a complication of external ocular chemical burns. *Retinal detachment* - **Retinal detachment** occurs when the **retina separates from the underlying retinal pigment epithelium**, leading to significant vision loss. - This condition is typically caused by trauma, vitreous traction, or retinal tears, and is not a direct consequence of an **alkali burn to the anterior segment of the eye**.
Pediatrics
3 questionsA child presents with recurrent pulmonary infections and hemoptysis due to associated bronchiectasis. Imaging shows unilateral loss of lung volume with hyperlucency on chest radiograph and reduced vascularity on CT scan of the chest. The abdominal organs are normally placed. What is the most likely cause?
The recommended ambient temperature for NICU is
Maximum concentration of dextrose that can be given through peripheral vascular line in neonate?
NEET-PG 2012 - Pediatrics NEET-PG Practice Questions and MCQs
Question 1011: A child presents with recurrent pulmonary infections and hemoptysis due to associated bronchiectasis. Imaging shows unilateral loss of lung volume with hyperlucency on chest radiograph and reduced vascularity on CT scan of the chest. The abdominal organs are normally placed. What is the most likely cause?
- A. Swyer-James-MacLeod syndrome (Correct Answer)
- B. Immotile cilia syndrome
- C. Kartagener syndrome
- D. Mendelson syndrome
Explanation: ***Swyer-James-MacLeod syndrome*** - This syndrome presents with **unilateral hyperlucent lung**, reduced vascularity, and bronchiectasis, often following a severe childhood respiratory infection, leading to air trapping and recurrent infections. - The imaging findings of **unilateral loss of lung volume**, hyperlucency, and reduced vascularity are classic for Swyer-James-MacLeod syndrome, which is also known as unilateral emphysema. *Immotile cilia syndrome* - This is a broader term that encompasses conditions like Kartagener syndrome, characterized by ciliary dysfunction leading to **recurrent sinopulmonary infections**; however, it does not typically present with unilateral hyperlucent lung or reduced vascularity. - While it causes bronchiectasis, the specific imaging findings described (unilateral hyperlucency) are not characteristic of isolated immotile cilia syndrome. *Kartagener syndrome* - This is a subgroup of primary ciliary dyskinesia that includes the classic triad of **situs inversus**, bronchiectasis, and sinusitis. The patient in the prompt has normally placed abdominal organs, ruling out situs inversus. - Although it involves recurrent pulmonary infections and bronchiectasis, the presence of **normally placed abdominal organs** and unilateral hyperlucency on imaging makes Kartagener syndrome less likely. *Mendelson syndrome* - This refers to **chemical pneumonitis** caused by the aspiration of gastric contents, typically during anesthesia or in patients with impaired consciousness. - It presents acutely with respiratory distress, hypoxemia, and diffuse infiltrates on imaging, which is inconsistent with the chronic presentation of recurrent infections and unilateral hyperlucency described.
Question 1012: The recommended ambient temperature for NICU is
- A. 20-22° C
- B. 22-26° C (Correct Answer)
- C. 26-30° C
- D. 30-35° C
Explanation: ***22-26° C*** - Maintaining an ambient temperature of **22-26°C** in the NICU is crucial for preventing **cold stress** in neonates. - This temperature range helps to maintain the baby's **core body temperature**, reducing metabolic demands and ensuring optimal thermal regulation. *20-22° C* - While this might be a comfortable room temperature for adults, it is generally **too cold** for newborns in the NICU. - Temperatures below the recommended range can lead to significant **cold stress**, increasing oxygen consumption and metabolic rate in vulnerable infants. *26-30° C* - This temperature range is generally **too warm** for a NICU environment. - Excessive warmth can lead to **hyperthermia** and sweating, which increases fluid loss and can be detrimental to a neonate's health. *30-35°C* - This temperature is **dangerously high** for neonates in the NICU. - Such high temperatures would significantly increase the risk of **hyperthermia, dehydration**, and other severe complications, compromising the infant's well-being.
Question 1013: Maximum concentration of dextrose that can be given through peripheral vascular line in neonate?
- A. 5%
- B. 10%
- C. 12.5% (Correct Answer)
- D. 25%
Explanation: ***12.5%*** - A maximum dextrose concentration of **12.5%** can typically be administered safely via a **peripheral intravenous line** in neonates. - Higher concentrations risk causing **osmotic damage** to the peripheral vein, leading to **phlebitis** and **thrombosis**. *5%* - While safe, a **5% dextrose** solution may not provide adequate caloric support for many neonates, especially those requiring significant nutritional intake. - It is used for basic hydration and to prevent hypoglycemia but often needs supplementation or higher concentrations for sustained feeding. *10%* - A **10% dextrose** solution is commonly used in neonates via peripheral lines, but concentrations up to 12.5% are generally considered the safe upper limit for extended use. - Exceeding 10% can increase the risk of phlebitis, although it is less severe than with 25%. *25%* - A **25% dextrose** concentration is highly hypertonic and should **never be administered through a peripheral line** in neonates due to the high risk of severe **phlebitis**, **vein damage**, and even **tissue necrosis** if extravasation occurs. - Such high concentrations require a **central venous catheter**.
Pharmacology
1 questionsWhich drug is used as a treatment for sickle cell anemia by promoting fetal hemoglobin production?
NEET-PG 2012 - Pharmacology NEET-PG Practice Questions and MCQs
Question 1011: Which drug is used as a treatment for sickle cell anemia by promoting fetal hemoglobin production?
- A. Trypsin
- B. Hydroxyurea (Correct Answer)
- C. L-glutamine
- D. Glucose 6-phosphate dehydrogenase
Explanation: ***Hydroxyurea*** - **Hydroxyurea** is the primary drug used to treat sickle cell anemia by promoting **fetal hemoglobin (HbF)** production - It is a **ribonucleotide reductase inhibitor** that increases HbF levels, which reduces sickling of red blood cells - Clinical benefits include reduced frequency of **vaso-occlusive crises**, decreased need for transfusions, and improved survival - Mechanism: Increases **HbF** production, which dilutes the abnormal **HbS** and prevents polymerization *Trypsin* - **Trypsin** is a **proteolytic enzyme** involved in protein digestion in the gastrointestinal tract - It has no role in the treatment of **sickle cell anemia** or in promoting **fetal hemoglobin** production *L-glutamine* - **L-glutamine** is an **amino acid** (not a drug that promotes HbF) approved for sickle cell disease - Its mechanism involves reducing **oxidative stress** by increasing NAD+ levels and improving red blood cell energy metabolism - It reduces complications but does not primarily work by increasing **fetal hemoglobin** production *Glucose 6-phosphate dehydrogenase* - **G6PD** is an **enzyme** in the **pentose phosphate pathway**, not a therapeutic agent - **G6PD deficiency** causes hemolytic anemia but is unrelated to sickle cell disease treatment or fetal hemoglobin production