What is the role of p24 in HIV?
Which cells are known to cause rosette formation with sheep red blood cells?
Which disease is classified as 'multibacillary'?
Who discovered the malarial parasite?
How many flagella does Helicobacter pylori typically have?
Most common bacterial cause of acute parotitis -
Acute Infective Endocarditis with abscess formation is most commonly associated with
An 18-year-old girl presents with watery diarrhea. Most likely causative agent -
Ehrlichia chaffeensis is the causative agent of -
Hanging drop method is used for:
NEET-PG 2012 - Microbiology NEET-PG Practice Questions and MCQs
Question 61: What is the role of p24 in HIV?
- A. Envelope antigen in HIV
- B. Genome of HIV
- C. Shell antigen
- D. Core antigen of HIV (Correct Answer)
Explanation: ***Core antigen of HIV*** - **p24** is a **structural protein** that forms the viral capsid, which is the shell enclosing the genetic material of the virus. - Due to its abundance and immunogenicity, **p24** serves as a crucial **biomarker** for initial **HIV infection** and is targeted in diagnostic tests. *Envelop antigen in HIV* - The **envelope antigens** of HIV are typically **glycoproteins** like **gp120** and **gp41**, which are involved in viral attachment and entry into host cells. - These envelope proteins are distinct from **p24**, which is an internal core protein. *Genome of HIV* - The **genome of HIV** consists of **two copies of single-stranded RNA**, not a protein. - This **RNA genome** is contained within the viral capsid, which is primarily composed of **p24 protein**. *Shell antigen* - While **p24** does form a "shell" (the capsid) around the viral genome, the term **shell antigen** is not a standard specific classification in virology for p24. - The more precise term for its location and function is **core antigen**.
Question 62: Which cells are known to cause rosette formation with sheep red blood cells?
- A. Monocytes
- B. T cells (Correct Answer)
- C. NK cells
- D. All types of T cells
Explanation: ***T cells*** - **T cells** are the classic cells known to form rosettes with sheep red blood cells, a phenomenon called **E-rosette formation** - This interaction is mediated by the **CD2 receptor** on human T cells binding to **CD58 (LFA-3)** on sheep red blood cells - E-rosette formation was historically used as a diagnostic test to identify and enumerate T cells before the advent of flow cytometry - This is a characteristic feature of **mature T cells** and was widely used in immunology laboratories *NK cells* - **NK cells** do NOT typically form rosettes with sheep red blood cells - NK cells lack the specific CD2-mediated interaction required for classical E-rosette formation - NK cells are identified by other markers such as CD16 and CD56, and by their ability to kill target cells without prior sensitization *Monocytes* - **Monocytes** do not form rosettes with sheep red blood cells - Their primary functions include phagocytosis, antigen presentation, and cytokine production - They are identified by surface markers like **CD14** and their characteristic morphology (large size, kidney-shaped nucleus) *All types of T cells* - While this option is technically correct since all mature T cells express CD2 and can form E-rosettes, the more conventional answer is simply **"T cells"** - Both CD4+ helper T cells and CD8+ cytotoxic T cells possess the CD2 receptor and can participate in rosette formation - The distinction between "T cells" and "All types of T cells" is subtle, but "T cells" is the standard textbook answer
Question 63: Which disease is classified as 'multibacillary'?
- A. Leprosy (Correct Answer)
- B. Tuberculosis
- C. Trachoma
- D. Tetanus
Explanation: **Leprosy** - Leprosy, caused by *Mycobacterium leprae*, is classified by the **WHO** into **paucibacillary (PB)** and **multibacillary (MB)** forms based on bacterial load and number of skin lesions. - **Multibacillary leprosy** is defined as having more than 5 skin lesions with positive skin smears, requiring a longer treatment regimen (12 months of multidrug therapy with rifampicin, dapsone, and clofazimine). - This classification is specific to **leprosy** and is crucial for determining appropriate treatment duration and drug combinations. *Tuberculosis* - Tuberculosis is classified by **anatomical location** (pulmonary vs. extrapulmonary), **drug susceptibility** (drug-sensitive vs. drug-resistant), or **smear status** (smear-positive vs. smear-negative). - The term **'multibacillary'** is not used in TB classification, making this an incorrect option. *Trachoma* - Trachoma is a chronic **keratoconjunctivitis** caused by *Chlamydia trachomatis*, classified by **clinical stages** (TF, TI, TS, TT, CO) according to the WHO simplified grading system. - The paucibacillary/multibacillary classification does **not apply** to trachoma. *Tetanus* - Tetanus is a **toxin-mediated disease** caused by *Clostridium tetani*, manifesting as muscle spasms and lockjaw. - Classification is based on **clinical severity** (localized, generalized, cephalic, neonatal), not bacterial load, making the term 'multibacillary' inapplicable.
Question 64: Who discovered the malarial parasite?
- A. Ronald Ross
- B. Paul Muller
- C. Charles Louis Alphonse Laveran (Correct Answer)
- D. Pampania
Explanation: ***Charles Louis Alphonse Laveran*** - **Charles Louis Alphonse Laveran** was a French physician who, in **1880**, observed parasites in the blood of a malaria patient. - He was awarded the **Nobel Prize in Physiology or Medicine in 1907** for his discovery of the role of protozoa in causing diseases, specifically recognizing the malarial parasite. *Ronald Ross* - **Ronald Ross** was a British physician who, in **1897**, demonstrated that **malaria is transmitted by mosquitoes**. - While he elucidated the **transmission cycle**, it was Laveran who first identified the parasite itself in human blood. - He received the **Nobel Prize in 1902** for this work. *Paul Muller* - **Paul Muller** was a Swiss chemist who was awarded the **Nobel Prize in Physiology or Medicine in 1948** for his discovery of the insecticidal properties of **DDT (dichlorodiphenyltrichloroethane)**. - His work was significant in combating insect-borne diseases like malaria, but he was not involved in the discovery of the malarial parasite. *Pampania* - This name does not correspond to any recognized figure in the discovery of the malarial parasite or its transmission. - This is a distractor option in the original examination question.
Question 65: How many flagella does Helicobacter pylori typically have?
- A. 4-6 (Correct Answer)
- B. 3
- C. 2
- D. 1
Explanation: ***4-6*** - *Helicobacter pylori* is characterized by having **multiple flagella** (typically 4-6) at one pole, which are crucial for its motility. - These flagella allow the bacterium to move through the viscous gastric mucus layer and colonize the gastric epithelium. *1* - While some bacteria, like *Vibrio cholerae*, may possess a single polar flagellum, this is not characteristic of *Helicobacter pylori*. - A single flagellum would provide less efficient motility in the challenging environment of the stomach. *2* - Having two flagella is not the typical configuration for *Helicobacter pylori*. - Many bacteria have varied flagellar arrangements, but two is not representative of this particular bacterium. *3* - Three flagella is an insufficient number for the characteristic motility and colonization strategy of *Helicobacter pylori*. - **Lophotrichous** flagella typically refers to a tuft of multiple flagella, consistent with 4-6.
Question 66: Most common bacterial cause of acute parotitis -
- A. Staphylococcus Aureus (Correct Answer)
- B. Klebsiella
- C. Streptococcus Viridans
- D. Streptococcus Pneumoniae
Explanation: ***Staphylococcus Aureus*** - **_Staphylococcus aureus_** is the most frequent bacterial pathogen isolated in cases of **acute bacterial parotitis**. [2] - It often causes ascending infection from the oral cavity, leading to inflammation and suppuration of the parotid gland. [1] *Streptococcus Pneumonia* - While **_Streptococcus pneumoniae_** can cause various infections, it is not the primary cause of acute bacterial parotitis. - Its infections more commonly manifest as **pneumonia**, otitis media, or meningitis. *Klebsiella* - **_Klebsiella_** species are typically associated with **nosocomial infections**, particularly urinary tract infections and pneumonia. - They are a relatively uncommon cause of acute parotitis compared to _S. aureus_. *Streptococcus Viridans* - **_Streptococcus viridans_** group bacteria are common commensal organisms of the oral cavity and are often implicated in **dental caries** and **endocarditis**. - They are not a usual cause of acute bacterial parotitis.
Question 67: Acute Infective Endocarditis with abscess formation is most commonly associated with
- A. Listeria
- B. Staphylococcus (Correct Answer)
- C. Streptococcus
- D. Enterococcus
Explanation: ***Staphylococcus*** - **_Staphylococcus aureus_** is the most common cause of **acute infective endocarditis (AIE)** and is particularly virulent, leading to rapid valve destruction and **abscess formation**. - Its ability to adhere to damaged endothelium and produce various toxins contributes to its high pathogenicity and propensity for complicated infections. *Listeria* - **_Listeria monocytogenes_** is a gram-positive rod known to cause meningitis and gastrointestinal infections, especially in immunocompromised individuals. - While it can rarely cause endocarditis, it is not typically associated with the majority of AIE cases or abscess formation. *Streptococcus* - **_Streptococcus_ species**, particularly **_Viridans streptococci_**, are commonly associated with **subacute infective endocarditis (SIE)** on previously damaged valves. - They generally cause a more indolent course and are less frequently linked to rapid valve destruction or abscess formation compared to _Staphylococcus aureus_. *Enterococcus* - **_Enterococcus_ species** are a common cause of endocarditis, especially in older patients, those with healthcare-associated infections, or urinary tract procedures. - While they can cause serious infections, **_Staphylococcus aureus_** remains the predominant pathogen for acute infective endocarditis with abscess formation.
Question 68: An 18-year-old girl presents with watery diarrhea. Most likely causative agent -
- A. Rotavirus
- B. V. cholerae (Correct Answer)
- C. Salmonella
- D. Shigella
Explanation: ***V. cholerae*** - *Vibrio cholerae* is a classic cause of **acute, severe watery diarrhea** that can lead to rapid dehydration. - While other agents can cause watery diarrhea, *V. cholerae* is primarily associated with large-scale outbreaks of this symptom. *Rota virus* - While rotavirus causes **watery diarrhea**, it primarily affects **infants and young children** and is less common as the most likely cause in an 18-year-old in many settings due to widespread vaccination programs. - The diarrhea, though watery, is often accompanied by **fever and vomiting**. *Salmonella* - *Salmonella* typically causes **inflammatory diarrhea** (dysentery-like symptoms with blood/mucus in stool) or **food poisoning**, with diarrhea that may be watery but is often not as profuse or severe as cholera. - It is more commonly associated with **fever and abdominal cramps**. *Shigella* - *Shigella* causes **bacillary dysentery**, characterized by **bloody, mucoid stools**, abdominal cramps, and fever. - It is not typically associated with solely profuse watery diarrhea.
Question 69: Ehrlichia chaffeensis is the causative agent of -
- A. HME (Correct Answer)
- B. Glandular fever
- C. HGE
- D. None of the options
Explanation: ***HME (Human Monocytic Ehrlichiosis)*** - **Ehrlichia chaffeensis** is the primary causative agent of **Human Monocytic Ehrlichiosis**, a tick-borne illness. - This bacterium primarily infects **monocytes** and macrophages, leading to characteristic intracellular inclusions called **morulae**. *Glandular fever* - Glandular fever, also known as **infectious mononucleosis**, is predominantly caused by the **Epstein-Barr virus (EBV)**. - It is characterized by fever, sore throat, lymphadenopathy, and fatigue, and is not caused by bacteria. *HGE (Human Granulocytic Ehrlichiosis)* - **Human Granulocytic Ehrlichiosis (HGE)** is caused by **Anaplasma phagocytophilum**, not *Ehrlichia chaffeensis*. - HGE primarily targets **neutrophils** (granulocytes), differentiating it from HME which targets monocytes. *None of the options* - This option is incorrect because *Ehrlichia chaffeensis* is indeed the causative agent of HME, as described above.
Question 70: Hanging drop method is used for:
- A. Toxoplasma
- B. Cryptosporidium
- C. Trichomonas (Correct Answer)
- D. Plasmodium
Explanation: ***Trichomonas*** - The **hanging drop method** is a highly effective technique for visualizing the characteristic **motility** of *Trichomonas vaginalis*. - This method allows for the observation of living, unstained organisms directly from clinical samples, making it valuable for rapid diagnosis. *Toxoplasma* - **Toxoplasma gondii** is an intracellular parasite best identified through serological tests for **antibodies** or molecular diagnostics like **PCR**. - It does not exhibit characteristic motility in a hanging drop preparation that would aid in its direct identification. *Cryptosporidium* - **Cryptosporidium** species are typically identified by detecting **oocysts** in stool samples, often using **acid-fast staining** or **immunofluorescence assays**. - Their small size and lack of distinctive motility under a hanging drop method make this technique unsuitable for their diagnosis. *Plasmodium* - **Plasmodium** species, the causative agents of malaria, are diagnosed by visualizing **parasites within red blood cells** on **Giemsa-stained blood smears**. - The hanging drop method would not effectively identify these intracellular parasites for malaria diagnosis.