Cercariae are the infective form of which of the following parasites?
Flame cells are primarily associated with which of the following organisms?
Which of the following is a primary cell line?
Virus quantification is done by-
Which of the following is an enveloped virus?
Which of the following statements about p24 is false?
What is the correct order of application of reagents in the complete Gram staining procedure?
Which of the following statements about Haemophilus influenzae is true?
Which complement proteins are formed in the liver?
Which of the following statements is true regarding Diphyllobothrium?
NEET-PG 2012 - Microbiology NEET-PG Practice Questions and MCQs
Question 51: Cercariae are the infective form of which of the following parasites?
- A. Schistosoma hematobium (Correct Answer)
- B. Paragonimus westermani
- C. Fasciola hepatica
- D. Taenia solium
Explanation: ***Schistosoma hematobium*** - **Cercariae** are the motile, free-swimming larval stage of **Schistosoma** species, including *S. hematobium* - They **actively penetrate human skin** to initiate infection, making cercariae the infective form for humans *Paragonimus westermani* - The infective form for humans is **metacercariae**, which are ingested by consuming insufficiently cooked **crabs or crayfish** - Cercariae develop into metacercariae in secondary intermediate hosts (crustaceans) *Fasciola hepatica* - Humans are infected by ingesting **metacercariae** present on aquatic vegetation, such as **watercress** - Cercariae encyst on plants to form metacercariae, not directly infective *Taenia solium* - The infective forms are **cysticerci** in undercooked pork (for adult tapeworm) or **embryonated eggs** (causing cysticercosis) - This cestode has a different life cycle and does **not** involve cercariae
Question 52: Flame cells are primarily associated with which of the following organisms?
- A. Protozoa
- B. Nematodes
- C. Trematodes (Correct Answer)
- D. None of the options
Explanation: ***Correct: Trematodes*** - **Flame cells** are specialized **excretory/osmoregulatory structures** found in **Platyhelminthes (flatworms)**, which include **Trematodes** (flukes) and Cestodes (tapeworms). - These cells have a **tuft of cilia** that beat in a flickering motion (resembling a flame), driving fluid through tubules for waste removal and osmoregulation. - **Trematodes** are the most appropriate answer among the given options as they are medically important flatworms with flame cells. *Incorrect: Protozoa* - Protozoa are **single-celled organisms** that use **contractile vacuoles** for osmoregulation, not flame cells. - Examples include Entamoeba, Giardia, and Plasmodium species. *Incorrect: Nematodes* - **Nematodes** (roundworms) belong to phylum Nematoda and possess a distinct excretory system with **renette cells** or **H-shaped/tubular excretory canals**, not flame cells. - Examples include Ascaris, Enterobius, and hookworms. *Incorrect: None of the options* - This is incorrect because **Trematodes** do possess flame cells and is the correct answer among the choices provided.
Question 53: Which of the following is a primary cell line?
- A. Chick embryo fibroblasts (Correct Answer)
- B. Hela cells
- C. Vero cells
- D. WI-38
Explanation: ***Chick embryo fibroblasts*** - Primary cell lines are directly derived from **tissues** and have a limited lifespan in culture before undergoing senescence. - **Chick embryo fibroblasts** are isolated directly from chick embryos and propagated for a limited number of passages, making them a true primary cell culture. *Hela cells* - HeLa cells are a well-known example of a **continuous cell line**, meaning they can be cultured indefinitely. - They were originally derived from a cervical cancer patient and are considered **immortalized**. *Vero cells* - Vero cells are an **immortalized cell line** derived from the kidney of an African green monkey. - They are used extensively in virology and vaccine production due to their ability to be propagated for many passages. *WI-38* - WI-38 is a **diploid human cell strain** derived from lung tissue. - While they have a finite lifespan similar to primary cells, they represent a **cell strain** that has been subcultured and characterized, with more homogeneous growth characteristics than fresh primary cultures.
Question 54: Virus quantification is done by-
- A. Plaque assay (Correct Answer)
- B. Studying virus-cell interactions
- C. Visualizing virus particles
- D. Virus isolation using eggs
Explanation: ***Plaque assay*** - The **plaque assay** is a widely used and quantitative method to determine the number of **infectious viral particles** in a sample. - It involves infecting a monolayer of host cells with serially diluted virus samples, leading to the formation of visible **plaques** (zones of lysed cells), which are then counted. *Studying virus-cell interactions* - Studying **virus-cell interactions** helps understand the mechanisms of viral entry, replication, and egress but does not directly quantify the number of viral particles. - While critical for understanding viral pathogenesis, this approach is qualitative rather than quantitative in nature. *Visualizing virus particles* - **Visualizing virus particles** (e.g., using electron microscopy) allows for counting individual virions, but it quantifies both infectious and non-infectious particles. - This method provides a total particle count rather than a measure of infectivity. *Virus isolation using eggs* - **Virus isolation using eggs** (e.g., embryonated chicken eggs) is a method for propagating and isolating certain viruses, particularly influenza. - While it can be optimized for relative comparisons, it is not primarily a direct quantitative method like the plaque assay for determining infectious viral titers.
Question 55: Which of the following is an enveloped virus?
- A. Dengue virus (Correct Answer)
- B. Norwalk virus
- C. Hep A virus
- D. Adenovirus
Explanation: ***Dengue virus*** - The **Dengue virus** is a member of the **Flaviviridae** family, which are known to be **enveloped viruses**. - Its outer lipid envelope, derived from the host cell, is crucial for its entry into host cells and evading the immune system. *Norwalk virus* - The **Norwalk virus**, also known as **Norovirus**, is a **non-enveloped RNA virus** belonging to the **Caliciviridae** family. - Its lack of an envelope makes it more resistant to disinfectants and environmental stresses, contributing to its high infectivity and ability to cause outbreaks of gastroenteritis. *Hep A virus* - **Hepatitis A virus (HAV)** is a **non-enveloped RNA virus** of the **Picornaviridae** family. - Its non-enveloped nature contributes to its stability in the environment and resistance to gastric acid, facilitating its fecal-oral transmission. *Adenovirus* - **Adenoviruses** are **non-enveloped DNA viruses** known for causing a variety of clinical manifestations, including respiratory infections, conjunctivitis, and gastroenteritis. - Their lack of an outer lipid envelope helps them survive in harsh environmental conditions and makes them highly stable.
Question 56: Which of the following statements about p24 is false?
- A. Cannot be detected after seroconversion (Correct Answer)
- B. Cannot be seen in the first week
- C. All of the above
- D. Can be detected after 3 weeks of infection
Explanation: ***Cannot be detected after seroconversion*** - This statement is **FALSE** and is the correct answer to this question. - **p24 antigen levels do decrease** after seroconversion due to immune complex formation with antibodies, but p24 can still be detected using modern assays. - In **advanced HIV disease** with declining CD4 counts, p24 antigen often becomes detectable again due to high viral loads. - Fourth-generation HIV tests detect both antibodies and p24 antigen throughout the infection course. *Cannot be seen in the first week* - This statement is **TRUE** (not the answer). - p24 antigen typically appears around **10-14 days** (1.5-2 weeks) after infection, which is after the first week (days 1-7). - The eclipse period (first 7-10 days) precedes p24 detection. *Can be detected after 3 weeks of infection* - This statement is **TRUE** (not the answer). - p24 antigen is consistently detectable at 3 weeks post-infection during the acute viremic phase. - Peak p24 levels occur around **2-4 weeks** after infection. *All of the above* - This is a distractor option and is incorrect since only one statement is false.
Question 57: What is the correct order of application of reagents in the complete Gram staining procedure?
- A. Gentian violet → Iodine → Alcohol/Acetone → Safranin (Correct Answer)
- B. Iodine → Gentian violet → Alcohol/Acetone → Safranin
- C. Safranin → Gentian violet → Iodine → Alcohol/Acetone
- D. Gentian violet → Alcohol/Acetone → Iodine → Safranin
Explanation: **Gentian violet → Iodine → Alcohol/Acetone → Safranin** - **Gentian violet** (or crystal violet) is the **primary stain** that colors all cells purple. - **Iodine** acts as a **mordant**, forming a crystal violet-iodine complex within the cell walls. - **Alcohol/Acetone** is the **decolorizer**, washing out the primary stain from Gram-negative cells but not from Gram-positive cells. - Finally, **Safranin** is the **counterstain** that stains decolorized Gram-negative cells pink or red. *Iodine → Gentian violet → Alcohol/Acetone → Safranin* - **Iodine** is a mordant and needs a primary stain (like gentian violet) to bind to and form a complex; applying it first would not effectively stain the cells. - The correct sequence requires the primary stain to be applied before the mordant can fix it. *Safranin → Gentian violet → Iodine → Alcohol/Acetone* - **Safranin** is a counterstain and should be applied last to stain the decolorized Gram-negative cells, not as the first reagent. - Applying reagents out of order would lead to incorrect staining results, as **safranin** is meant to provide contrast after decolorization. *Gentian violet → Alcohol/Acetone → Iodine → Safranin* - **Alcohol/Acetone** (decolorizer) is applied too early in this sequence; it should be used after the mordant (iodine) has formed a complex with the primary stain. - Applying the decolorizer before the mordant would prevent the formation of the crystal violet-iodine complex, leading to incorrect differentiation between Gram-positive and Gram-negative bacteria.
Question 58: Which of the following statements about Haemophilus influenzae is true?
- A. It is not capsulated
- B. Invasive strain causes severe diseases but is less common than non-invasive strains
- C. Encapsulated strains are the most common cause of severe H. influenzae diseases (Correct Answer)
- D. Typically grown on chocolate agar in CO2-enriched environment but not clinically relevant to severe diseases
Explanation: ***Encapsulated strains are the most common cause of severe H. influenzae diseases*** - **Encapsulated strains**, particularly **type b (Hib)**, are responsible for the majority of severe invasive H. influenzae infections including **meningitis**, **epiglottitis**, and **septicemia**. - While the Hib vaccine has dramatically reduced the incidence of type b disease, encapsulated strains remain the primary cause of severe H. influenzae infections when they occur. - Non-encapsulated (nontypeable) strains more commonly cause **mucosal infections** like otitis media and bronchitis, but rarely cause severe invasive disease. *It is not capsulated* - This is incorrect. H. influenzae exists in both **encapsulated** (types a-f) and **non-encapsulated (nontypeable)** forms. - The **encapsulated strains**, especially **type b**, are most virulent and cause severe invasive diseases. *Typically grown on chocolate agar in CO2-enriched environment but not clinically relevant to severe diseases* - While the growth requirements are correct (H. influenzae requires **X factor (hemin)** and **V factor (NAD+)** found in chocolate agar), the second part is completely false. - H. influenzae is highly clinically relevant and causes severe diseases including meningitis and epiglottitis. *Invasive strain causes severe diseases but is less common than non-invasive strains* - While this statement is epidemiologically true (nontypeable strains are more prevalent than encapsulated strains), it doesn't address which type causes severe diseases most commonly. - The question asks which statement is true, not which strain type is more prevalent in the general population.
Question 59: Which complement proteins are formed in the liver?
- A. C3, C6
- B. C2, C4 (Correct Answer)
- C. C5, C8
- D. C1
Explanation: ***C2, C4*** - While **all complement proteins (C1-C9) are primarily synthesized in the liver**, this question (NEET PG 2012) expects this as the answer based on the context of **classical pathway activation**. - **C2** and **C4** are essential components of the **C3 convertase (C4b2a)** in both the classical and lectin pathways. - These proteins work together in the early activation steps of complement-mediated immunity. - **Clinical relevance:** Deficiencies in C2 or C4 lead to increased susceptibility to **autoimmune diseases** (especially SLE) and **recurrent infections**. *C3, C6* - **C3** is the most abundant complement protein and central to all three pathways (classical, alternative, lectin). - **C6** is part of the membrane attack complex (MAC: C5b-C6-C7-C8-C9). - Both are indeed synthesized in the liver, but this was not the expected answer for this examination question. *C5, C8* - Both **C5** and **C8** are synthesized in the liver and are crucial components of the **membrane attack complex (MAC)**. - C5 is cleaved into C5a (potent anaphylatoxin) and C5b (initiates MAC formation). - C8 binds to the C5b-C7 complex and recruits C9 for membrane pore formation. *C1* - The **C1 complex** (C1q, C1r, C1s) is synthesized in the liver and initiates the classical complement pathway. - C1q recognizes antibody-antigen complexes (IgG or IgM bound to antigen). - **C1 deficiency** is associated with severe **SLE-like syndromes** and recurrent infections. **Note:** From a purely biochemical standpoint, all major complement components are produced primarily by hepatocytes in the liver, though some can also be synthesized by macrophages and other cells. This question reflects the specific context of the original examination.
Question 60: Which of the following statements is true regarding Diphyllobothrium?
- A. Humans are the only definitive host
- B. Vitamin B12 deficiency always occurs in infection
- C. Fish are definitive hosts
- D. The operculated egg is a diagnostic feature (Correct Answer)
Explanation: ***The operculated egg is a diagnostic feature*** - *Diphyllobothrium latum*, also known as the **fish tapeworm**, produces characteristic **operculated eggs** that are oval-shaped with an operculum (cap) at one end and a small knob at the other. - The presence of these **unembryonated eggs** in stool samples is the primary diagnostic method for diphyllobothriasis. *Humans are the only definitive host* - While humans are common definitive hosts, other **fish-eating mammals** such as bears, dogs, and cats can also serve as definitive hosts for *Diphyllobothrium latum*. - The definitive host is where the **adult worm resides** and reproduces sexually. *Vitamin B12 deficiency always occurs in infection* - **Vitamin B12 deficiency (megaloblastic anemia)** is a known complication of *Diphyllobothrium latum* infection, as the worm competes for B12 in the host's intestine. - However, it does **not occur in all infected individuals**; it is estimated to affect a significant minority, typically those with heavy worm burdens or prolonged infection, and can be influenced by dietary intake. *Fish are definitive hosts* - Fish (specifically freshwater fish like pike, perch, and salmon) act as **second intermediate hosts** for *Diphyllobothrium latum*, carrying the **plerocercoid larvae**. - **Humans and other fish-eating mammals** are the definitive hosts, where the plerocercoid larvae mature into adult tapeworms in the small intestine.