What is the primary function of the Nef gene in HIV?
Rhabditiform larvae are seen in which of the following?
Which component is considered the central part of the complement pathway?
Colorado Tick fever is caused by:
Which of the following is an enrichment medium for cholera?
Aseptate hyphae is not seen in which of the following fungi?
How many flagella does Helicobacter pylori typically have?
Which of the following statements is true regarding Diphyllobothrium?
Cercariae are the infective form of which of the following parasites?
Virus quantification is done by-
NEET-PG 2012 - Microbiology NEET-PG Practice Questions and MCQs
Question 21: What is the primary function of the Nef gene in HIV?
- A. Enhancing viral pathogenesis (Correct Answer)
- B. Enhancing the expression of host genes
- C. Decreasing viral replication
- D. Promoting host cell apoptosis
Explanation: ***Enhancing viral pathogenesis*** - The **Nef protein** is critical for efficient viral replication and disease progression in HIV-infected individuals, significantly increasing **viral load** and contributing to immune evasion. - It achieves this by downregulating **CD4** and **MHC class I** molecules on the surface of infected cells, thereby preventing immune recognition and increasing viral infectivity. *Enhancing the expression of host genes* - While Nef interacts with various host proteins, its primary function is not to globally enhance the expression of host genes but rather to modulate specific host pathways to favor viral replication. - Instead, Nef often leads to **downregulation** of specific host proteins important for immune response, such as CD4 and MHC class I. *Decreasing viral replication* - Nef's role is to **increase**, not decrease, viral replication and spread within the host. - Viruses lacking a functional Nef gene show **attenuated replication** in vivo and often reduced pathogenicity. *Promoting host cell apoptosis* - While Nef can influence cellular processes, its direct and primary function is not to promote host cell apoptosis. - In fact, Nef can sometimes prevent early apoptosis of infected cells, allowing more time for virus production and release, thereby contributing to viral persistence.
Question 22: Rhabditiform larvae are seen in which of the following?
- A. Taenia solium
- B. Strongyloides stercoralis (Correct Answer)
- C. Diphyllobothrium latum
- D. Trichinella spiralis
Explanation: ***Strongyloides stercoralis*** - *Strongyloides stercoralis* is unique among intestinal nematodes in that it can produce **rhabditiform larvae** in the stool. These larvae can then mature into infective **filariform larvae** either in the soil or within the host. - The presence of **rhabditiform larvae in fresh stool samples** is a key diagnostic feature differentiating *Strongyloides* from other parasitic infections that typically shed eggs. *Taenia solium* - *Taenia solium* (pork tapeworm) is transmitted by **ingesting undercooked pork** containing cysticerci. - The parasite is diagnosed by finding **eggs or proglottids in stool**, not rhabditiform larvae. *Diphyllobothrium latum* - *Diphyllobothrium latum* (fish tapeworm) infects humans upon consumption of **undercooked or raw freshwater fish**. - Diagnosis is made by identifying characteristic **operculated eggs in stool samples**, which do not contain rhabditiform larvae. *Trichinella spiralis* - *Trichinella spiralis* causes trichinosis, usually acquired by eating **undercooked meat infected with encysted larvae**. - This parasite is typically diagnosed by **muscle biopsy** showing encysted larvae or serological tests, as it does not produce rhabditiform larvae in stool.
Question 23: Which component is considered the central part of the complement pathway?
- A. C1 (complement component 1)
- B. C3 (complement component 3) (Correct Answer)
- C. C2 (complement component 2)
- D. C5 (complement component 5)
Explanation: ***C3*** - **C3** is considered the central component because all three major pathways of complement activation (classical, alternative, and lectin) converge at the point of **C3 activation**. - Its cleavage product, **C3b**, is crucial for opsonization, formation of the C5 convertase, and initiating the assembly of the **membrane attack complex (MAC)**. *C1 (complement component 1)* - **C1** is the initial component of the **classical complement pathway** but does not play a direct role in the alternative or lectin pathways. - Its primary function is to bind to **antibody-antigen complexes** or directly to pathogens to activate C4 and C2. *C2 (complement component 2)* - **C2** is a component of the **classical** and **lectin pathways**, acting as a substrate for C1s and MASP to form the C3 convertase. - It is not involved in the initial activation of the **alternative pathway**. *C5 (complement component 5)* - **C5** is activated downstream of C3 and is a key component in the formation of the **membrane attack complex (MAC)**. - While critical for pathogen lysis, its activation is dependent on the prior cleavage of **C3** into C3b.
Question 24: Colorado Tick fever is caused by:
- A. Coronaviridae
- B. Filoviridae
- C. Caliciviridae
- D. Reoviridae (Correct Answer)
Explanation: ***Reoviridae*** - Colorado Tick Fever (CTF) is caused by the **Colorado Tick Fever Virus (CTFV)**, which belongs to the genus **Coltivirus** within the family **Reoviridae**. - Reoviridae viruses are **non-enveloped**, double-stranded RNA viruses. *Filoviridae* - This family includes viruses like **Ebola virus** and **Marburg virus**, which cause severe hemorrhagic fevers. - They are **enveloped**, negative-sense single-stranded RNA viruses, distinct from the CTFV. *Coronaviridae* - This family includes viruses like **SARS-CoV-2 (COVID-19)** and SARS-CoV, which cause respiratory illnesses. - They are **enveloped**, positive-sense single-stranded RNA viruses, structurally different from CTFV. *Caliciviridae* - This family includes viruses like **Norovirus**, a common cause of acute gastroenteritis (viral stomach flu). - They are **non-enveloped**, positive-sense single-stranded RNA viruses and do not cause tick-borne illnesses.
Question 25: Which of the following is an enrichment medium for cholera?
- A. TCBS medium
- B. Cary-Blair medium
- C. Alkaline peptone water (Correct Answer)
- D. MacConkey agar
Explanation: ***Alkaline peptone water*** - This is a commonly used **enrichment broth** for *Vibrio cholerae* due to its **high pH (around 8.6)**, which selectively suppresses the growth of most other intestinal flora. - The alkaline environment provides a favorable condition for the rapid multiplication of *Vibrio cholerae* before subculturing onto selective media. *TCBS medium* - **Thiosulfate citrate bile salts sucrose (TCBS) agar** is a **selective and differential medium** used for the isolation of *Vibrio cholerae*, not an enrichment medium. - It differentiates *Vibrio cholerae* (yellow colonies) from most other *Vibrio* species (blue-green colonies) and inhibits the growth of most non-Vibrio bacteria. *Cary-Blair medium* - This is a **transport medium** designed to maintain the viability of enteric bacterial pathogens, including *Vibrio cholerae*, for extended periods at ambient temperatures. - It prevents overgrowth of commensals and helps preserve the pathogen's concentration, but it does not promote growth. *MacConkey agar* - **MacConkey agar** is a **selective and differential medium** primarily used for the isolation and differentiation of gram-negative enteric bacilli. - It is not specifically designed for *Vibrio cholerae* and its selective properties (bile salts and crystal violet) and differential properties (lactose fermentation) are less optimal for *Vibrio* isolation compared to specialized media.
Question 26: Aseptate hyphae is not seen in which of the following fungi?
- A. Rhizopus
- B. Mucor
- C. Aspergillus (Correct Answer)
- D. Penicillium
Explanation: ***Correct: Aspergillus*** - *Aspergillus* species are characterized by **septate hyphae** and **acute angle branching**, distinguishing them from zygomycetes. - They cause diseases such as **allergic bronchopulmonary aspergillosis (ABPA)**, aspergilloma, and invasive aspergillosis. - Since Aspergillus has septate hyphae, **aseptate hyphae are NOT seen** in Aspergillus. *Incorrect: Rhizopus* - *Rhizopus* is a zygomycete with **broad, ribbon-like, aseptate hyphae** and **right-angle/irregular branching**. - Common cause of **mucormycosis (zygomycosis)**, especially in immunocompromised individuals. *Incorrect: Mucor* - *Mucor* is another zygomycete with **aseptate hyphae** and **wide-angle branching**. - Causes mucormycosis, leading to severe infections primarily in patients with **diabetic ketoacidosis** or **hematologic malignancies**. *Incorrect: Penicillium* - *Penicillium* species possess **septate hyphae** with characteristic **brush-like (penicillus-shaped)** fruiting bodies. - While some produce antibiotics, certain species like *Talaromyces marneffei* can cause systemic infections in immunocompromised patients.
Question 27: How many flagella does Helicobacter pylori typically have?
- A. 4-6 (Correct Answer)
- B. 3
- C. 2
- D. 1
Explanation: ***4-6*** - *Helicobacter pylori* is characterized by having **multiple flagella** (typically 4-6) at one pole, which are crucial for its motility. - These flagella allow the bacterium to move through the viscous gastric mucus layer and colonize the gastric epithelium. *1* - While some bacteria, like *Vibrio cholerae*, may possess a single polar flagellum, this is not characteristic of *Helicobacter pylori*. - A single flagellum would provide less efficient motility in the challenging environment of the stomach. *2* - Having two flagella is not the typical configuration for *Helicobacter pylori*. - Many bacteria have varied flagellar arrangements, but two is not representative of this particular bacterium. *3* - Three flagella is an insufficient number for the characteristic motility and colonization strategy of *Helicobacter pylori*. - **Lophotrichous** flagella typically refers to a tuft of multiple flagella, consistent with 4-6.
Question 28: Which of the following statements is true regarding Diphyllobothrium?
- A. Humans are the only definitive host
- B. Vitamin B12 deficiency always occurs in infection
- C. Fish are definitive hosts
- D. The operculated egg is a diagnostic feature (Correct Answer)
Explanation: ***The operculated egg is a diagnostic feature*** - *Diphyllobothrium latum*, also known as the **fish tapeworm**, produces characteristic **operculated eggs** that are oval-shaped with an operculum (cap) at one end and a small knob at the other. - The presence of these **unembryonated eggs** in stool samples is the primary diagnostic method for diphyllobothriasis. *Humans are the only definitive host* - While humans are common definitive hosts, other **fish-eating mammals** such as bears, dogs, and cats can also serve as definitive hosts for *Diphyllobothrium latum*. - The definitive host is where the **adult worm resides** and reproduces sexually. *Vitamin B12 deficiency always occurs in infection* - **Vitamin B12 deficiency (megaloblastic anemia)** is a known complication of *Diphyllobothrium latum* infection, as the worm competes for B12 in the host's intestine. - However, it does **not occur in all infected individuals**; it is estimated to affect a significant minority, typically those with heavy worm burdens or prolonged infection, and can be influenced by dietary intake. *Fish are definitive hosts* - Fish (specifically freshwater fish like pike, perch, and salmon) act as **second intermediate hosts** for *Diphyllobothrium latum*, carrying the **plerocercoid larvae**. - **Humans and other fish-eating mammals** are the definitive hosts, where the plerocercoid larvae mature into adult tapeworms in the small intestine.
Question 29: Cercariae are the infective form of which of the following parasites?
- A. Schistosoma hematobium (Correct Answer)
- B. Paragonimus westermani
- C. Fasciola hepatica
- D. Taenia solium
Explanation: ***Schistosoma hematobium*** - **Cercariae** are the motile, free-swimming larval stage of **Schistosoma** species, including *S. hematobium* - They **actively penetrate human skin** to initiate infection, making cercariae the infective form for humans *Paragonimus westermani* - The infective form for humans is **metacercariae**, which are ingested by consuming insufficiently cooked **crabs or crayfish** - Cercariae develop into metacercariae in secondary intermediate hosts (crustaceans) *Fasciola hepatica* - Humans are infected by ingesting **metacercariae** present on aquatic vegetation, such as **watercress** - Cercariae encyst on plants to form metacercariae, not directly infective *Taenia solium* - The infective forms are **cysticerci** in undercooked pork (for adult tapeworm) or **embryonated eggs** (causing cysticercosis) - This cestode has a different life cycle and does **not** involve cercariae
Question 30: Virus quantification is done by-
- A. Plaque assay (Correct Answer)
- B. Studying virus-cell interactions
- C. Visualizing virus particles
- D. Virus isolation using eggs
Explanation: ***Plaque assay*** - The **plaque assay** is a widely used and quantitative method to determine the number of **infectious viral particles** in a sample. - It involves infecting a monolayer of host cells with serially diluted virus samples, leading to the formation of visible **plaques** (zones of lysed cells), which are then counted. *Studying virus-cell interactions* - Studying **virus-cell interactions** helps understand the mechanisms of viral entry, replication, and egress but does not directly quantify the number of viral particles. - While critical for understanding viral pathogenesis, this approach is qualitative rather than quantitative in nature. *Visualizing virus particles* - **Visualizing virus particles** (e.g., using electron microscopy) allows for counting individual virions, but it quantifies both infectious and non-infectious particles. - This method provides a total particle count rather than a measure of infectivity. *Virus isolation using eggs* - **Virus isolation using eggs** (e.g., embryonated chicken eggs) is a method for propagating and isolating certain viruses, particularly influenza. - While it can be optimized for relative comparisons, it is not primarily a direct quantitative method like the plaque assay for determining infectious viral titers.