Lipogenesis is stimulated by?
In which condition is the utilization of pyruvate in tissues decreased?
Which of the following is not a component of a nucleotide?
The Central Dogma of molecular biology includes all except?
At which step in glycolysis is NADH produced during the oxidation of glyceraldehyde-3-phosphate?
Which enzyme is required for cutting the DNA strand during synthesis?
DNA microarrays allow detection of gene mutations through which process?
Protein glycosylation occurs in:
Which isoform of LDH is raised in Anemia ?
Which of the following is not affected in Abetalipoproteinemia ?
NEET-PG 2012 - Biochemistry NEET-PG Practice Questions and MCQs
Question 91: Lipogenesis is stimulated by?
- A. Insulin (Correct Answer)
- B. Glucagon
- C. Epinephrine
- D. Corticosteroids
Explanation: ***Insulin*** - **Insulin** is a key anabolic hormone that promotes the synthesis and storage of fat (lipogenesis) by increasing the uptake of glucose into adipose tissue and stimulating enzymes involved in fatty acid synthesis. - It enhances the conversion of excess carbohydrates into **triglycerides** for storage. *Glucagon* - **Glucagon** is a catabolic hormone that primarily promotes the breakdown of glycogen (glycogenolysis) and fat (lipolysis) to release glucose and fatty acids into the bloodstream, especially during fasting. - It generally **inhibits** lipogenesis and stimulates **gluconeogenesis**. *Epinephrine* - **Epinephrine** (adrenaline) is a stress hormone that promotes the breakdown of fat (lipolysis) to provide energy during acute stress or exercise. - It would **inhibit** lipogenesis, as its primary role is to mobilize energy stores. *Corticosteroids* - While **corticosteroids** can influence fat metabolism, their effect on lipogenesis is complex and often indirect. High levels can lead to fat redistribution (e.g., central obesity) rather than direct stimulation of overall lipogenesis. - Corticosteroids generally promote **lipolysis** in the extremities and can contribute to insulin resistance, which would hinder lipogenesis in some tissues.
Question 92: In which condition is the utilization of pyruvate in tissues decreased?
- A. Pernicious anemia
- B. Scurvy
- C. Beriberi (Correct Answer)
- D. Pellagra
Explanation: ***Beriberi*** - Beriberi is caused by **thiamine (vitamin B1) deficiency**, which is a crucial cofactor for the **pyruvate dehydrogenase complex (PDH)**. - A dysfunctional PDH enzyme leads to a decreased conversion of **pyruvate to acetyl-CoA**, thus **decreasing pyruvate utilization** and causing its accumulation. *Pernicious anemia* - This condition is caused by a deficiency in **vitamin B12 (cobalamin)**, typically due to a lack of intrinsic factor, leading to **megaloblastic anemia**. - While vitamin B12 is essential for various metabolic pathways, it does not directly impair the utilization of **pyruvate** by PDH. *Scurvy* - Scurvy results from **vitamin C (ascorbic acid) deficiency**, which is essential for collagen synthesis and acts as an antioxidant. - Vitamin C deficiency does not directly impact the activity of the **pyruvate dehydrogenase complex** or the utilization of pyruvate. *Pellagra* - Pellagra is caused by a deficiency in **niacin (vitamin B3)**, or its precursor, tryptophan. - Niacin is a component of **NAD+ and NADP+**, which are crucial coenzymes in many metabolic reactions, but its deficiency does not primarily manifest as decreased **pyruvate utilization**.
Question 93: Which of the following is not a component of a nucleotide?
- A. Sugar
- B. Fatty acid (Correct Answer)
- C. Base
- D. Phosphate
Explanation: ***Fatty acid*** - A **fatty acid** is a component of **lipids**, such as triglycerides and phospholipids, which are structurally and functionally distinct from **nucleotides**. - **Nucleotides** are the building blocks of nucleic acids (DNA and RNA), whereas fatty acids are essential for cell membranes and energy storage. *Sugar* - A **pentose sugar** (either **deoxyribose** in DNA or **ribose** in RNA) is a fundamental component of every nucleotide. - This sugar forms the backbone of the nucleic acid strand, covalently linked to the phosphate group and the nitrogenous base. *Phosphate* - A **phosphate group** is a crucial component of a nucleotide, providing the negative charge and forming the phosphodiester bonds that link nucleotides together into a nucleic acid chain. - The number of phosphate groups (mono-, di-, or triphosphate) determines the nucleotide's energy state and function. *Base* - A **nitrogenous base** (adenine, guanine, cytosine, thymine, or uracil) is an essential component of a nucleotide, responsible for genetic information storage and pairing. - This base is attached to the pentose sugar and determines the specific identity of the nucleotide within the DNA or RNA sequence.
Question 94: The Central Dogma of molecular biology includes all except?
- A. Reverse transcription (Correct Answer)
- B. Transcription
- C. RNA replication
- D. Translation
Explanation: ***Reverse transcription*** - The **original Central Dogma** as proposed by Francis Crick described the unidirectional flow of genetic information: **DNA → RNA → Protein**. - **Reverse transcription** (RNA → DNA) was **not part of the original Central Dogma** and was only discovered later with the identification of **reverse transcriptase enzyme** in retroviruses by Baltimore and Temin (1970). - While reverse transcription is now recognized as an important biological process, it represents an **exception to the classical Central Dogma** rather than a core component. *Transcription* - **Transcription** (DNA → RNA) is a **fundamental process** within the Central Dogma. - It involves synthesis of RNA from a DNA template and is the first step in gene expression in all living organisms. *Translation* - **Translation** (RNA → Protein) is the **second major step** of the Central Dogma. - This process occurs on ribosomes where mRNA is decoded into a specific sequence of amino acids to form proteins. *RNA replication* - **RNA replication** (RNA → RNA), while primarily seen in RNA viruses, is considered part of the **expanded Central Dogma**. - It represents one of the possible flows of genetic information in biological systems, though not universal to all organisms.
Question 95: At which step in glycolysis is NADH produced during the oxidation of glyceraldehyde-3-phosphate?
- A. Pyruvate kinase
- B. Enolase
- C. PFK-1
- D. Glyceraldehyde-3-phosphate dehydrogenase (Correct Answer)
Explanation: ***Glyceraldehyde-3-phosphate dehydrogenase*** - This enzyme catalyzes the oxidation and **phosphorylation** of glyceraldehyde-3-phosphate, producing **1,3-bisphosphoglycerate**. - During this reaction, **NAD+ is reduced to NADH**, which is a crucial step for energy production. *Pyruvate kinase* - This enzyme catalyzes the final step of glycolysis, transferring a phosphate group from **phosphoenolpyruvate** to ADP, forming ATP and pyruvate. - This step involves **substrate-level phosphorylation** for ATP production, not NADH. *Enolase* - This enzyme catalyzes the dehydration of **2-phosphoglycerate** to form **phosphoenolpyruvate (PEP)**. - This reaction involves the removal of a water molecule and does not produce NADH. *PFK-1* - **Phosphofructokinase-1 (PFK-1)** catalyzes the phosphorylation of fructose-6-phosphate to **fructose-1,6-bisphosphate**. - This is an ATP-consuming and a crucial regulatory step in glycolysis, but it does not involve NADH production.
Question 96: Which enzyme is required for cutting the DNA strand during synthesis?
- A. DNA polymerase
- B. DNA ligase
- C. Topoisomerase (Correct Answer)
- D. Helicase
Explanation: ***Topoisomerase*** - **Topoisomerases** are enzymes essential for DNA replication; they induce temporary **single- or double-strand breaks** in DNA to relieve **supercoiling** ahead of the replication fork. - This cutting and rejoining activity prevents the DNA from becoming excessively tangled and facilitates the unwinding process required for synthesis. *DNA polymerase* - **DNA polymerase** is responsible for **synthesizing new DNA strands** by adding nucleotides, not for cutting the DNA backbone. - It works by moving along the template strand, reading the bases, and then adding complementary nucleotides to the growing DNA strand. *DNA ligase* - **DNA ligase** functions to **join DNA fragments** together by forming phosphodiester bonds, especially in sealing Okazaki fragments during lagging strand synthesis. - Its role is to ligate (join) cut strands, not to initiate cuts in the DNA. *Helicase* - **Helicase** unwinds the DNA double helix into single strands using ATP hydrolysis; it **separates the two strands** but does not cut the phosphodiester backbone. - This enzyme creates the replication fork by disrupting hydrogen bonds between base pairs, making the DNA accessible for replication machinery.
Question 97: DNA microarrays allow detection of gene mutations through which process?
- A. Polymerase Chain Reaction
- B. Cloning
- C. Southern Blotting
- D. Hybridization (Correct Answer)
Explanation: ***Hybridization*** - DNA microarrays detect mutations by **hybridizing labeled patient DNA** to **thousands of oligonucleotide probes** containing known DNA sequences immobilized on a solid surface. - A mismatch between the patient's DNA and the probe results in **reduced or absent hybridization**, indicating a **mutation or genetic variation**. - This principle allows **high-throughput screening** of multiple genes simultaneously. *Polymerase Chain Reaction* - PCR is used to **amplify specific DNA sequences exponentially**, creating millions of copies from minimal starting material. - While PCR may be used to **prepare DNA samples** before microarray analysis, it is **not the detection mechanism** on the chip itself. *Cloning* - Cloning involves creating **identical copies of DNA fragments, cells, or organisms** using vectors and host cells. - It's a method for **producing large quantities** of specific DNA sequences but **not a detection technique** for mutations on microarrays. *Southern Blotting* - Southern blotting detects specific DNA sequences through **gel electrophoresis, membrane transfer, and probe hybridization**. - While it also uses hybridization, it is a **low-throughput technique** analyzing one sample at a time, unlike the **high-throughput parallel analysis** of DNA microarrays.
Question 98: Protein glycosylation occurs in:
- A. Peroxisomes
- B. Endoplasmic reticulum (ER) (Correct Answer)
- C. Mitochondria
- D. Golgi bodies
Explanation: ***ER*** - **N-linked glycosylation**, the most common type of protein glycosylation, initiates in the **endoplasmic reticulum (ER)**, where an oligosaccharide precursor is transferred to asparagine residues of newly synthesized proteins. - The ER environment facilitates protein folding and quality control, ensuring correctly folded glycoproteins are transported further. *Golgi bodies* - While **further modification and processing** of glycosylated proteins occur in the Golgi apparatus, the initial step of N-linked glycosylation begins in the ER. - The Golgi is responsible for trimming and adding different sugar residues to complete the **glycan chains** and for sorting the glycoproteins to their final destinations. *Mitochondria* - Mitochondria are primarily involved in **cellular respiration** and **ATP production**. - They do not play a significant role in protein glycosylation; most mitochondrial proteins are imported from the cytoplasm in an unglycosylated state. *Peroxisomes* - Peroxisomes are involved in various **metabolic processes**, including fatty acid oxidation and detoxification. - They are not known to be sites of protein glycosylation.
Question 99: Which isoform of LDH is raised in Anemia ?
- A. LDH 5
- B. LDH 4
- C. LDH 1
- D. LDH 2 (Correct Answer)
Explanation: ***Correct: LDH 2*** - **LDH 2 (H3M1)** is highly abundant in **red blood cells (RBCs)**, second only to LDH 1. - In **hemolytic anemia**, there is increased destruction of red blood cells, leading to the release of intracellular LDH isoforms into the bloodstream. - Both **LDH 1 and LDH 2 are significantly elevated** in hemolytic anemia, as RBCs contain predominantly these two isoforms. - The elevation of LDH 2 is particularly notable and diagnostically useful in anemia, especially hemolytic conditions. *Incorrect: LDH 1* - **LDH 1 (H4)** is the most abundant isoform in **heart muscle** and is also present in **red blood cells**. - While LDH 1 is indeed elevated in hemolytic anemia, this option is not the best answer in this context. - LDH 1 elevation is classically associated with **myocardial infarction**. *Incorrect: LDH 4* - **LDH 4 (HM3)** is present in various tissues, including **liver, skeletal muscle, and kidneys**, but in lower concentrations. - Not the primary isoform associated with anemia. *Incorrect: LDH 5* - **LDH 5 (M4)** is predominantly found in the **liver and skeletal muscles**. - Elevation of LDH 5 typically indicates **liver damage, muscle injury, or malignancies**, not primarily anemia.
Question 100: Which of the following is not affected in Abetalipoproteinemia ?
- A. LDL
- B. HDL (Correct Answer)
- C. IDL
- D. VLDL
Explanation: ***HDL*** - **Abetalipoproteinemia** is caused by a defect in the **microsomal triglyceride transfer protein (MTP)**, which is essential for the assembly and secretion of **chylomicrons**, **VLDL**, and subsequently **LDL** and **IDL**. - **HDL synthesis** and secretion occur independently of MTP, as nascent HDL particles are formed in the plasma from lipids and apolipoproteins (primarily apoA-I) released from other lipoproteins and cells. *LDL* - **LDL** is critically affected in abetalipoproteinemia because it is a metabolic product of **VLDL**. - Since **VLDL** production is severely impaired due to the MTP defect, there is a profound deficiency of **LDL** in the plasma. *VLDL* - **VLDL** production is severely impaired in abetalipoproteinemia because **microsomal triglyceride transfer protein (MTP)** is required for its assembly and secretion from the liver. - The inability to load triglycerides onto apoB leads to very low or absent plasma **VLDL** levels. *IDL* - **IDL** is an intermediate lipoprotein in the metabolism of **VLDL** to **LDL**. - Given that both **VLDL** and **LDL** are severely deficient in abetalipoproteinemia, **IDL** levels are also consequently very low or absent.