Obstetrics and Gynecology
1 questionsA patient presents with an endometrial thickness of 14mm with an adnexal mass. She has a history of complex endometrial hyperplasia with the presence of atypical cells. Which of the following is likely the diagnosis?
FMGE 2023 - Obstetrics and Gynecology FMGE Practice Questions and MCQs
Question 71: A patient presents with an endometrial thickness of 14mm with an adnexal mass. She has a history of complex endometrial hyperplasia with the presence of atypical cells. Which of the following is likely the diagnosis?
- A. Struma ovarii
- B. Metastasis endometrial cancer to ovary (Correct Answer)
- C. Polycystic ovarian disease
- D. Immature ovarian teratoma
Explanation: ***Metastasis endometrial cancer to ovary*** - A history of **complex endometrial hyperplasia with atypical cells** is a strong precursor or co-existing condition with **endometrial carcinoma**. - The combination of a highly suspicious thick endometrium (**14mm**) and an **adnexal mass** strongly suggests a primary uterine malignancy that has spread to the ovary, which is a common site for endometrial cancer metastasis. *Struma ovarii* - This is a rare specialized form of **mature cystic teratoma** composed predominantly of thyroid tissue and is generally benign. - *Struma ovarii* is not etiologically linked to primary uterine pathology like **atypical endometrial hyperplasia** or endometrial carcinoma. *Polycystic ovarian disease* - PCOD leads to unopposed **estrogen stimulation** causing endometrial hyperplasia, but it rarely produces a solitary, large **adnexal mass** as described. - While PCOD is a risk factor for endometrial hyperplasia, the finding of presumed *metastasis* (mass + primary cancer features) is inconsistent with this diagnosis. *Immature ovarian teratoma* - These are malignant **germ cell tumors**, typically presenting in young women and often associated with elevated **alpha-fetoprotein (AFP)** or LDH markers. - Immature teratomas are not associated with the development of primary **endometrial carcinoma** or its precursor lesions like atypical hyperplasia.
Ophthalmology
3 questionsA 3-year-old child has amblyopia in the right eye. What is the preferred treatment for this child?
A 70-year-old patient who has been using presbyopia glasses for the past few years can now read the newspaper comfortably without the glasses. What is the most likely diagnosis?
A patient presents to you with pain and redness in the right eye following an injury during welding. On examination, the following is observed. Which of the following is the appropriate next step in managing this patient? 
FMGE 2023 - Ophthalmology FMGE Practice Questions and MCQs
Question 71: A 3-year-old child has amblyopia in the right eye. What is the preferred treatment for this child?
- A. Radial keratotomy
- B. Observation
- C. Occlusion Therapy (Correct Answer)
- D. Spectacles with near addition
Explanation: ***Occlusion Therapy*** - This is the **cornerstone treatment** for functional amblyopia in children aged 3 to 7, as the visual system remains plastic and responsive to stimulation during this critical period. - It involves **patching the better-seeing eye** for designated periods to force the use and subsequent strengthening of vision in the amblyopic eye. - Occlusion therapy is most effective when combined with appropriate refractive correction if needed. *Observation* - Amblyopia is a **developmental disorder** requiring timely intervention during the critical period (before age 7-9) to prevent permanent visual loss. - Observation alone will result in **cortical suppression** becoming irreversible, leading to poor long-term visual acuity. - Active treatment is essential; the condition will not resolve spontaneously. *Spectacles with near addition* - **Refractive correction** (spectacles) is an essential adjunct when refractive errors (hyperopia, astigmatism, anisometropia) contribute to amblyopia, but **occlusion therapy remains the primary treatment** for established amblyopia. - Near addition (bifocals) is primarily used to treat **accommodative esotropia**, not as primary amblyopia therapy. - Spectacles alone are insufficient to reverse cortical suppression in functional amblyopia. *Radial keratotomy* - This is an **outdated refractive surgical technique** involving corneal incisions to correct myopia in adults. - It is **absolutely contraindicated** and medically inappropriate for treating amblyopia or refractive errors in a 3-year-old child. - Modern pediatric amblyopia management relies on non-surgical approaches during the critical visual development period.
Question 72: A 70-year-old patient who has been using presbyopia glasses for the past few years can now read the newspaper comfortably without the glasses. What is the most likely diagnosis?
- A. Index myopia (Correct Answer)
- B. Index hypermetropia
- C. Regression of presbyopia
- D. None of the above
Explanation: ***Index myopia*** - This classic phenomenon, often referred to as **"second sight,"** is caused by an increase in the refractive index of the crystalline lens nucleus due to early **nuclear sclerosis** (a type of cataract). - The change in refractive index leads to an acquired **myopic shift**, which effectively compensates for the patient's existing **presbyopia**, allowing near vision without reading glasses. *Index hypermetropia* - **Index hypermetropia** (a hyperopic shift) would significantly worsen the patient's near vision, making it even more difficult to read without correction. - It is typically associated with a decrease in the refractive index of the lens, sometimes seen in **cortical cataracts** or in highly unstable blood sugar levels (uncontrolled diabetes). *Regression of presbyopia* - **Presbyopia** is an irreversible, age-related process caused by the progressive hardening of the lens and loss of accommodative power. - A genuine biological **regression** of presbyopia does not occur; the apparent improvement in near vision is always attributable to an index shift toward **myopia**. *None of the above* - This option is incorrect because the sudden improvement in near vision in an elderly patient previously requiring reading glasses is a highly specific clinical sign of **index myopia** due to evolving **nuclear cataract**.
Question 73: A patient presents to you with pain and redness in the right eye following an injury during welding. On examination, the following is observed. Which of the following is the appropriate next step in managing this patient? 
- A. Removal by 26G needle (Correct Answer)
- B. Keratoplasty
- C. Steroids and antibiotics
- D. Surgical exploration
Explanation: ***Removal by 26G needle*** - The image shows a superficial **corneal foreign body**, a common injury in welders. The definitive initial management is the physical removal of the object. - This procedure is typically performed under topical anesthesia using a slit lamp for magnification, with a fine instrument like a sterile **26-gauge needle** or a foreign body spud to gently lift the object from the cornea. *Steroids and antibiotics* - While topical antibiotics are often prescribed *after* the foreign body is removed to prevent infection, they do not address the primary problem, which is the object itself. - The use of **steroids** is generally contraindicated in the presence of a corneal epithelial defect as they can impede healing and increase the risk of a secondary infection, particularly fungal keratitis. *Surgical exploration* - Surgical exploration in an operating room is indicated for suspected **penetrating ocular injuries** or an **intraocular foreign body**, where the object has perforated the globe. - The foreign body in the image appears superficial and is not indicative of a full-thickness injury that would necessitate invasive surgical exploration. *Keratoplasty* - **Keratoplasty**, or a corneal transplant, is a major surgical procedure reserved for severe corneal scarring, opacity, or structural damage that significantly impairs vision. - This is an entirely inappropriate and excessive treatment for a small, superficial foreign body that can be removed with a minimally invasive office-based procedure.
Orthopaedics
2 questionsA 60-year-old female patient complains of pain and swelling in the left wrist following a fall on an outstretched hand. On examination, dinner fork deformity can be noticed. What is the most likely displacement seen in this patient?
A 17-year-old boy presents to the clinic complaining of a painless lump on the lateral aspect of his left knee. The radiograph of the patient is shown below. Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?
FMGE 2023 - Orthopaedics FMGE Practice Questions and MCQs
Question 71: A 60-year-old female patient complains of pain and swelling in the left wrist following a fall on an outstretched hand. On examination, dinner fork deformity can be noticed. What is the most likely displacement seen in this patient?
- A. Proximal and dorsal displacement of ulna
- B. Proximal and ventral displacement of ulna
- C. Proximal and ventral displacement of radius
- D. Distal and dorsal displacement of radius (Correct Answer)
Explanation: ***Distal and dorsal displacement of radius*** This patient presents with a **Colles' fracture**, the most common distal radius fracture in elderly patients following a fall on an outstretched hand (FOOSH injury). **Key Features of Colles' Fracture:** - Fracture of the **distal radius** (within 2.5 cm of radiocarpal joint) - **Dorsal (posterior) displacement** of the distal fragment - **Dorsal angulation** of the distal fragment - **Radial displacement and shortening** - Creates the characteristic **"dinner fork deformity"** when viewed from the side - The intact proximal radius fragment remains in normal position **Why the dinner fork deformity occurs:** The dorsal displacement and angulation of the distal radius fragment causes the wrist to have a bayonet-like appearance on lateral view, resembling the curve of a dinner fork. *Incorrect - Proximal displacement options:* In Colles' fracture, it is the **distal fragment** that displaces, not the proximal fragment. The proximal radius remains attached to the elbow and stays in its normal anatomical position. *Incorrect - Ventral (volar/palmar) displacement:* Volar displacement would be seen in **Smith's fracture** (reverse Colles'), which is much less common and occurs from a fall on the back of the hand. This would produce a "garden spade deformity," not a dinner fork deformity. *Incorrect - Ulnar displacement:* The ulna is not the primary bone involved in dinner fork deformity. While ulnar styloid fractures may occur concurrently in 50-60% of cases, the characteristic deformity results from distal radius displacement.
Question 72: A 17-year-old boy presents to the clinic complaining of a painless lump on the lateral aspect of his left knee. The radiograph of the patient is shown below. Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?
- A. Giant cell tumor
- B. Osteochondroma (Correct Answer)
- C. Enchondroma
- D. Chondroblastoma
Explanation: ***Osteochondroma*** - The radiograph displays a classic **bony exostosis** with a stalk (pedunculated) arising from the metaphyseal region of the distal femur, which is the pathognomonic appearance of an osteochondroma. - These are the most common benign bone tumors, typically presenting in adolescents as a painless, slow-growing mass near the **growth plates** of long bones, especially around the knee. *Enchondroma* - An enchondroma is a benign cartilaginous tumor that develops *within* the **medullary cavity** of a bone, not as an external projection. - They are most commonly found in the small bones of the hands and feet and appear as a lytic lesion with characteristic **"rings and arcs" calcification** on radiographs. *Chondroblastoma* - This is a rare benign cartilaginous tumor that characteristically arises in the **epiphysis** of long bones in skeletally immature patients. - Radiographically, it appears as a well-defined, lytic lesion, often with a thin **sclerotic rim**, located in the end of the bone, unlike the metaphyseal outgrowth seen here. *Giant cell tumor* - This is a locally aggressive tumor that typically affects the **epiphysis** of long bones in skeletally mature adults (age 20-40). - It appears as an eccentric, lytic lesion with a **"soap bubble"** appearance that extends to the subchondral bone, which is inconsistent with the presented image.
Pathology
1 questionsA three-year-old boy has been observed by his parents to be increasingly clumsy for the past 6 months. On a physical examination, there is a cauliflower-like growth in the left eye, leukocoria, and an absent red reflex. The microscopic appearance of the specimen shows Flexner-Wintersteiner rosettes. Which gene is involved in the given condition?
FMGE 2023 - Pathology FMGE Practice Questions and MCQs
Question 71: A three-year-old boy has been observed by his parents to be increasingly clumsy for the past 6 months. On a physical examination, there is a cauliflower-like growth in the left eye, leukocoria, and an absent red reflex. The microscopic appearance of the specimen shows Flexner-Wintersteiner rosettes. Which gene is involved in the given condition?
- A. Rb gene (Correct Answer)
- B. Rhodopsin gene
- C. FBN 1 gene
- D. ATP 7B gene
Explanation: ***Rb gene***- The constellation of leukocoria, absent red reflex, and the microscopic finding of **Flexner-Wintersteiner rosettes** are pathognomonic for **retinoblastoma** [1, 3]. - The **Rb gene** (Retinoblastoma gene) is a critical **tumor suppressor gene** located on chromosome 13q14, and its inactivation leads to the development of this malignancy [1, 2]. *ATP 7B gene* - This gene is responsible for **Wilson disease**, an autosomal recessive disorder causing excessive **copper accumulation** in the liver, brain, and cornea (Kayser-Fleischer rings). - It is not associated with primary malignant retinal tumors like retinoblastoma. *Rhodopsin gene* - Mutations in the **rhodopsin gene** are the most common cause of **autosomal dominant retinitis pigmentosa**, which presents with progressive night blindness and visual field loss. - This condition involves retinal degeneration and does not cause a mass-forming neoplasm with leukocoria. *FBN 1 gene* - The **FBN1 gene** codes for **Fibrillin-1** and is mutated in **Marfan syndrome**, a connective tissue disorder. - While Marfan syndrome often causes ocular issues like **ectopia lentis** (lens dislocation), it does not cause retinoblastoma. **References:** [1] Cross SS. Underwood's Pathology: A Clinical Approach. 6th ed. Common Clinical Manifestations Of Central And Peripheral Nervous System Disease, pp. 737-738. [2] Kumar V, Abbas AK, et al.. Robbins and Cotran Pathologic Basis of Disease. 9th ed. Neoplasia, p. 300. [3] Kumar V, Abbas AK, et al.. Robbins and Cotran Pathologic Basis of Disease. 9th ed. The Eye, p. 1342.
Pharmacology
3 questionsWhich of the following statement is correct regarding the mechanism of action of labetalol?
A psychiatrist prescribes lithium for a patient who is diagnosed with bipolar disorder. Which of the following statements is incorrect regarding lithium?
Which of these drugs stimulates PPAR-alpha (Peroxisome proliferator-activated receptor alpha)?
FMGE 2023 - Pharmacology FMGE Practice Questions and MCQs
Question 71: Which of the following statement is correct regarding the mechanism of action of labetalol?
- A. Blocks both alpha and beta-adrenergic receptors. (Correct Answer)
- B. Primarily acts as a vasodilator with little effect on arterioles
- C. Decreases peripheral vascular resistance by directly acting as a relaxant for vascular smooth muscles.
- D. Directly acts as arterial vasodilator resulting in indirect effect tachycardia.
Explanation: ***Blocks both alpha and beta-adrenergic receptors*** - Labetalol is a unique **non-selective beta-blocker** (blocking $\beta_1$ and $\beta_2$) that also possesses **selective $\alpha_1$-adrenergic blocking activity**. - This combined mechanism makes it effective for conditions like **hypertensive emergencies**, providing both reduced heart rate (via beta block) and peripheral vasodilation (via alpha block). *Directly acts as arterial vasodilator resulting in indirect effect tachycardia* - While labetalol causes **vasodilation** (due to $\alpha_1$ blockade), it also **blocks $\beta$-receptors**, preventing the typical **reflex tachycardia** that occurs with direct vasodilators like hydralazine. - Its primary mechanism is receptor blockade, not direct smooth muscle relaxation. *Primarily acts as a vasodilator with little effect on arterioles* - Labetalol acts as a potent **arteriolar vasodilator** (via $\alpha_1$ blockade), which is crucial for lowering systemic vascular resistance and blood pressure. - Its vasodilatory effect is significant and targeted at arterioles. *Decreases peripheral vascular resistance by directly acting as a relaxant for vascular smooth muscles* - Labetalol decreases **peripheral vascular resistance (PVR)** through **antagonism of $\alpha_1$ receptors** in vascular smooth muscles, preventing vasoconstriction. - It does not act as a direct smooth muscle relaxant like nitroprusside or hydralazine.
Question 72: A psychiatrist prescribes lithium for a patient who is diagnosed with bipolar disorder. Which of the following statements is incorrect regarding lithium?
- A. Lithium is teratogenic if given to pregnant females
- B. Lithium toxicity is exacerbated with thiazide
- C. Hemodialysis is not useful in lithium overdose (Correct Answer)
- D. Lithium can decrease thyroid hormone levels
Explanation: ***Correct Answer: Hemodialysis is not useful in lithium overdose*** - This statement is **INCORRECT** (making it the right answer to this negation question) - **Hemodialysis IS actually very useful** in severe lithium toxicity - Lithium has low molecular weight (~7 Da), minimal protein binding, and small volume of distribution, making it effectively removed by hemodialysis - **Indications for hemodialysis in lithium toxicity:** Lithium levels >4 mEq/L, severe clinical toxicity (seizures, altered consciousness), or renal failure *Incorrect Option: Lithium is teratogenic if given to pregnant females* - This statement is TRUE, so it's not the answer - Lithium causes **Ebstein's anomaly** (downward displacement of tricuspid valve) when given in first trimester - Risk is 1-2% (20x higher than general population) - FDA pregnancy category D *Incorrect Option: Lithium toxicity is exacerbated with thiazide* - This statement is TRUE, so it's not the answer - Thiazide diuretics decrease renal lithium clearance by promoting sodium depletion - This leads to **compensatory increase in proximal tubular reabsorption** of both sodium and lithium - NSAIDs and ACE inhibitors also increase lithium levels similarly *Incorrect Option: Lithium can decrease thyroid hormone levels* - This statement is TRUE, so it's not the answer - Lithium inhibits thyroid hormone synthesis and release, causing **hypothyroidism in 5-35%** of patients - Mechanism: Inhibits iodine uptake and blocks thyroid hormone release - Requires regular thyroid function monitoring (TSH, T3, T4) during lithium therapy
Question 73: Which of these drugs stimulates PPAR-alpha (Peroxisome proliferator-activated receptor alpha)?
- A. Ezetimibe
- B. Colestipol
- C. Simvastatin
- D. Gemfibrozil (Correct Answer)
Explanation: ***Gemfibrozil***- It belongs to the **fibrate class** of lipid-lowering drugs, and its primary mechanism is activating the **Peroxisome Proliferator-Activated Receptor alpha (PPAR-alpha)**.- PPAR-alpha activation leads to increased synthesis of **lipoprotein lipase (LPL)**, enhancing the catabolism of **VLDL** and chylomicrons, which effectively lowers **triglyceride** levels.*Ezetimibe*- This drug selectively inhibits the absorption of dietary and biliary cholesterol by blocking the **NPC1L1 (Niemann-Pick C1-Like 1)** transporter protein located on the brush border of the small intestine enterocytes.- It does not interact with PPAR-alpha but is typically used to reduce **LDL cholesterol**, often in combination with statins.*Colestipol*- It is a **bile acid sequestrant** (resin) that binds negatively charged bile acids in the intestinal lumen, forming a non-absorbable complex that is excreted in stool.- The loss of bile acids forces the liver to increase the synthesis of new bile acids from cholesterol, thereby upregulating hepatic **LDL receptors** and reducing plasma LDL levels.*Simvastatin*- This drug is an HMG-CoA reductase inhibitor (**statin**), which is the rate-limiting enzyme in hepatic cholesterol synthesis.- By reducing intracellular cholesterol synthesis, it causes upregulation of surface **LDL receptors** on hepatocytes, increasing LDL clearance from the blood.