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Free notes, MCQs, tables & flowcharts for NEET-PG Internal Medicine
A 35-year-old heterosexual patient diagnosed with HIV presents with watery diarrhea. The colonoscopic biopsy is shown below. Which of the following is your most probable diagnosis?
AGiardia
BCMV
CCryptosporidium
DMicrosporidia
A man with pain during defecation, no gastrointestinal symptoms, and ulcers extending into the anal canal. Diagnosis?
ACytomegalovirus (CMV)
BGonococcal infection
CGenital herpes
DHIV infection
A patient presents with urethral discharge. Gram stain shows intracellular gram-negative diplococci. What is the causative organism?
AMycoplasma genitalium
BTreponema pallidum
CChlamydia trachomatis
DNeisseria gonorrhoeae
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