A 23-year-old man presents to his primary care physician for a runny nose, sneezing, and coughing that has persisted for a few months. He denies feeling weak or tired, but states that his symptoms have disrupted his every day life. The patient has no significant past medical history. He drinks alcohol occasionally on the weekends. His temperature is 98.6°F (37.0°C), blood pressure is 124/88 mmHg, pulse is 80/min, respirations are 13/min, and oxygen saturation is 98% on room air. Physical exam reveals a healthy young man who is repetitively blowing his nose. Percussion of his sinuses elicits no symptoms. Inspection of the patient's oropharynx is unremarkable. Which of the following is the best next step in management?
Q82
A 45-year-old woman presents with recent onset movement abnormalities. She says that she noticeably blinks, which is out of her control. She also has spasms of her neck muscles and frequent leg cramps. Past medical history is significant for ovarian cancer, currently being treated with an antineoplastic agent that disrupts microtubule function and an alkylating agent, as well as metoclopramide for nausea. Her blood pressure is 110/65 mm Hg, the respiratory rate is 17/min, the heart rate is 78/min, and the temperature is 36.7°C (98.1°F). Physical examination is within normal limits. Which of the following drugs would be the best treatment for this patient?
Q83
A 25-year-old woman is brought to the physician by her mother because she refuses to get out of bed and spends most days crying or staring at the wall. Her symptoms started 3 months ago. The patient states that she is very sad most of the time and that none of the activities that used to interest her are interesting now. She sleeps more than 10 hours every night and naps during the day for several hours as well. Her mother, who cooks for her, says that she has been eating much larger portions than she did prior to the onset of her symptoms. The patient moved in with her mother after splitting up with her boyfriend and being expelled from her doctoral program at the local university, and she feels guilty for not being able to support herself. Two months ago, the patient was diagnosed with atypical depression and prescribed fluoxetine, which she has taken regularly since that time. Vital signs are within normal limits. Physical examination shows no abnormalities. Mental status examination shows a depressed mood and flat affect. There is no evidence of suicidal ideation. Which of the following would be contraindicated as the next step in management?
Q84
A 35-year-old woman seeks evaluation at a clinic with a complaint of right upper abdominal pain for greater than 1 month. She says that the sensation is more of discomfort than pain. She denies any history of weight loss, changes in bowel habit, or nausea. Her medical history is unremarkable. She takes oral contraceptive pills and multivitamins every day. Her physical examination reveals a palpable liver mass that is 2 cm in diameter just below the right costal margin in the midclavicular line. An abdominal CT scan reveals 2 hypervascular lesions in the right hepatic lobe. The serum α-fetoprotein level is within normal limits. What is the next best step in the management of this patient’s condition?
Q85
A 27-year-old man comes to the emergency department because of abdominal pain, diarrhea, flushing, and generalized pruritus that began after playing soccer. He also has a 2-month history of fatigue. Physical examination shows pallor and dry mucous membranes. Bone marrow biopsy shows a dense infiltration of atypical leukocytes with basophilic granules; genetic analysis of these cells shows a mutation in the KIT gene. The patient is at greatest risk for which of the following complications?
Q86
A 27-year-old male arrives to your walk-in clinic complaining of neck pain. He reports that the discomfort began two hours ago, and now he feels like he can’t move his neck. He also thinks he is having hot flashes, but he denies dyspnea or trouble swallowing. The patient’s temperature is 99°F (37.2°C), blood pressure is 124/76 mmHg, pulse is 112/min, and respirations are 14/min with an oxygen saturation of 99% O2 on room air. You perform a physical exam of the patient's neck, and you note that his neck is rigid and flexed to the left. You are unable to passively flex or rotate the patient's neck to the right. There is no airway compromise. The patient's past medical history is significant for asthma, and he was also recently diagnosed with schizophrenia. The patient denies current auditory or visual hallucinations. He appears anxious, but his speech is organized and appropriate. Which of the following is the best initial step in management?
Q87
A 5-year-old is brought into the emergency department for trouble breathing. He was at a family picnic playing when his symptoms began. The patient is currently struggling to breathe and has red, warm extremities. The patient has an unknown medical history and his only medications include herbs that his parents give him. His temperature is 99.5°F (37.5°C), pulse is 112/min, blood pressure is 70/40 mmHg, respirations are 18/min, and oxygen saturation is 82% on 100% O2. Which of the following is the best initial step in management?
Q88
A 58-year-old man comes to the physician because of depressed mood for 6 months. He works as a store manager and cannot concentrate at work anymore. He experiences daytime sleepiness and fatigue because he repeatedly wakes up at night and has difficulties falling asleep again after 4 a.m. He reports no longer taking pleasure in activities he used to enjoy, such as going fishing with his son. He has decreased appetite and has had a weight-loss of 5 kg (11 lb) over the past 6 months. He does not have suicidal ideation. He has no history of serious illness and takes no medication. He is divorced and lives with his girlfriend. He drinks several alcoholic beverages on the weekends. He does not take any medications. He is diagnosed with major depressive disorder and a trial of sertraline is suggested. The patient is at greatest risk for which of the following adverse effects?
Q89
A researcher is currently working on developing new cholinergic receptor agonist drugs. He has formulated 2 new drugs: drug A, which is a selective muscarinic receptor agonist and has equal affinity for M1, M2, M3, M4, and M5 muscarinic receptors, and drug B, which is a selective nicotinic receptor agonist and has equal affinity for NN and NM receptors. The chemical structure and mechanisms of action of both drugs mimic acetylcholine. However, drug A does not have any nicotinic receptor activity and drug B does not have any muscarinic receptor activity. Which of the following statements is most likely correct regarding these new drugs?
Q90
A 72-year-old woman comes to the physician because she is seeing things that she knows are not there. Sometimes she sees a dog in her kitchen and at other times she sees a stranger in her garden, both of which no one else can see. She also reports a lack of motivation to do daily tasks for the past week. Three years ago, she was diagnosed with Parkinson disease and was started on levodopa and carbidopa. Her younger brother has schizophrenia. The patient also takes levothyroxine for hypothyroidism. She used to drink a bottle of wine every day, but she stopped drinking alcohol 2 months ago. Neurologic examination shows a mild resting tremor of the hands and bradykinesia. Her thought process is organized and logical. Which of the following is the most likely underlying cause of this patient's symptoms?
Cholinergic/Adrenergic drugs US Medical PG Practice Questions and MCQs
Question 81: A 23-year-old man presents to his primary care physician for a runny nose, sneezing, and coughing that has persisted for a few months. He denies feeling weak or tired, but states that his symptoms have disrupted his every day life. The patient has no significant past medical history. He drinks alcohol occasionally on the weekends. His temperature is 98.6°F (37.0°C), blood pressure is 124/88 mmHg, pulse is 80/min, respirations are 13/min, and oxygen saturation is 98% on room air. Physical exam reveals a healthy young man who is repetitively blowing his nose. Percussion of his sinuses elicits no symptoms. Inspection of the patient's oropharynx is unremarkable. Which of the following is the best next step in management?
A. Intranasal saline
B. Diphenhydramine
C. Amoxicillin
D. Loratadine
E. Intranasal steroid (Correct Answer)
Explanation: ***Intranasal steroid***
- The patient's **persistent symptoms** (runny nose, sneezing, coughing for "a few months") that disrupt daily life, without fever or signs of infection, are highly suggestive of **allergic rhinitis**. Intranasal steroids are the **first-line treatment** for moderate to severe allergic rhinitis due to their potent anti-inflammatory effects.
- They work by reducing inflammation in the nasal passages, directly targeting the underlying cause of allergic symptoms.
*Intranasal saline*
- While helpful for **nasal hygiene** and providing some symptomatic relief by clearing irritants, intranasal saline does not address the underlying **allergic inflammatory process**.
- It is often used as an adjunct to other treatments but is not the primary or best next step for persistent, disruptive allergic rhinitis.
*Diphenhydramine*
- This is a **first-generation antihistamine** that can relieve allergic symptoms but is associated with significant **sedation** and **anticholinergic side effects**.
- Its side effect profile makes it a less desirable choice for chronic management, especially when less sedating options are available and more effective for persistent symptoms.
*Amoxicillin*
- This is an **antibiotic** used to treat **bacterial infections**. The patient's symptoms are consistent with allergic rhinitis, not a bacterial infection, as evidenced by his normal temperature and lack of other systemic signs of infection.
- Prescribing antibiotics in this scenario would be inappropriate and contribute to **antibiotic resistance**.
*Loratadine*
- This is a **second-generation oral antihistamine** that can reduce allergic symptoms with fewer side effects than diphenhydramine. However, **intranasal steroids are more effective** than oral antihistamines for comprehensive control of moderate to severe allergic rhinitis symptoms, including nasal congestion.
- While a reasonable option, it is not considered the "best next step" compared to intranasal steroids for long-term management of persistent symptoms.
Question 82: A 45-year-old woman presents with recent onset movement abnormalities. She says that she noticeably blinks, which is out of her control. She also has spasms of her neck muscles and frequent leg cramps. Past medical history is significant for ovarian cancer, currently being treated with an antineoplastic agent that disrupts microtubule function and an alkylating agent, as well as metoclopramide for nausea. Her blood pressure is 110/65 mm Hg, the respiratory rate is 17/min, the heart rate is 78/min, and the temperature is 36.7°C (98.1°F). Physical examination is within normal limits. Which of the following drugs would be the best treatment for this patient?
A. Physostigmine
B. Bethanechol
C. Benztropine (Correct Answer)
D. Diazepam
E. Clozapine
Explanation: ***Benztropine***
- This patient presents with symptoms of **drug-induced parkinsonism** or **extrapyramidal symptoms (EPS)**, likely caused by **metoclopramide**, a dopamine receptor antagonist. Benztropine, an **anticholinergic agent**, is effective in blocking cholinergic overactivity in the basal ganglia, which is characteristic of EPS.
- Its mechanism of action helps to restore the balance between **dopamine** and **acetylcholine** in the striatum, thereby alleviating symptoms like dystonia, akathisia, and parkinsonism.
*Physostigmine*
- Physostigmine is an **acetylcholinesterase inhibitor** that increases acetylcholine levels. It is used to reverse anticholinergic toxicity, which is the opposite of the current clinical need.
- Administering physostigmine would worsen the patient's EPS symptoms as it would further imbalance the dopamine-acetylcholine ratio towards cholinergic dominance.
*Bethanechol*
- Bethanechol is a **direct cholinergic agonist** that primarily acts on muscarinic receptors in the bladder and gastrointestinal tract. It is used for urinary retention and gastrointestinal hypomotility.
- This drug would not address the underlying pathophysiology of EPS and could potentially exacerbate cholinergic side effects, rather than resolving movement disorders.
*Diazepam*
- Diazepam is a **benzodiazepine** that enhances the effect of GABA, a major inhibitory neurotransmitter. It is used for anxiety, seizures, and muscle spasms, but it is not a primary treatment for EPS.
- While it might offer some symptomatic relief for muscle spasms, it does not directly target the dopaminergic-cholinergic imbalance responsible for EPS, and it is associated with sedation and dependence.
*Clozapine*
- Clozapine is an **atypical antipsychotic** with potent D4 and serotonin 5-HT2A receptor antagonism, known for its low risk of EPS. It is primarily used for treatment-resistant schizophrenia.
- As an antipsychotic, clozapine is not indicated for the treatment of drug-induced EPS and could potentially introduce new side effects, including agranulocytosis and myocarditis, making it an inappropriate choice for this presentation.
Question 83: A 25-year-old woman is brought to the physician by her mother because she refuses to get out of bed and spends most days crying or staring at the wall. Her symptoms started 3 months ago. The patient states that she is very sad most of the time and that none of the activities that used to interest her are interesting now. She sleeps more than 10 hours every night and naps during the day for several hours as well. Her mother, who cooks for her, says that she has been eating much larger portions than she did prior to the onset of her symptoms. The patient moved in with her mother after splitting up with her boyfriend and being expelled from her doctoral program at the local university, and she feels guilty for not being able to support herself. Two months ago, the patient was diagnosed with atypical depression and prescribed fluoxetine, which she has taken regularly since that time. Vital signs are within normal limits. Physical examination shows no abnormalities. Mental status examination shows a depressed mood and flat affect. There is no evidence of suicidal ideation. Which of the following would be contraindicated as the next step in management?
A. Taper fluoxetine and then start venlafaxine
B. Taper fluoxetine and switch to desipramine
C. Continue fluoxetine and add bupropion
D. Continue fluoxetine and add phenelzine (Correct Answer)
E. Continue fluoxetine and increase dosage
Explanation: ***Continue fluoxetine and add phenelzine***
- Combining an **SSRI** (fluoxetine) with a **MAOI** (phenelzine) is contraindicated due to the risk of **serotonin syndrome**, a potentially life-threatening condition.
- Serotonin syndrome symptoms include **autonomic instability**, **neuromuscular hyperactivity**, and altered mental status.
*Taper fluoxetine and then start venlafaxine*
- This is a safe strategy for switching antidepressants, especially from an SSRI to an **SNRI** like venlafaxine, after an adequate washout period.
- It allows for the introduction of a different mechanism of action if the initial SSRI was ineffective.
*Taper fluoxetine and switch to desipramine*
- Switching to a **tricyclic antidepressant (TCA)** like desipramine after tapering an SSRI can be an appropriate next step if the current medication is not effective.
- TCAs have a different pharmacological profile that might be beneficial for some patients with depression.
*Continue fluoxetine and add bupropion*
- Adding **bupropion**, a norepinephrine-dopamine reuptake inhibitor (NDRI), to an SSRI like fluoxetine is a common and generally safe strategy for **augmenting antidepressant effects**, especially when addressing symptoms like low energy or anhedonia.
- This combination can improve response rates when monotherapy is insufficient.
*Continue fluoxetine and increase dosage*
- If the initial dose of fluoxetine has not provided adequate relief after a sufficient trial period, increasing the dosage (within therapeutic limits) is a standard and appropriate first step before considering a switch or augmentation.
- This ensures the patient is receiving an **optimal dose** of the current medication.
Question 84: A 35-year-old woman seeks evaluation at a clinic with a complaint of right upper abdominal pain for greater than 1 month. She says that the sensation is more of discomfort than pain. She denies any history of weight loss, changes in bowel habit, or nausea. Her medical history is unremarkable. She takes oral contraceptive pills and multivitamins every day. Her physical examination reveals a palpable liver mass that is 2 cm in diameter just below the right costal margin in the midclavicular line. An abdominal CT scan reveals 2 hypervascular lesions in the right hepatic lobe. The serum α-fetoprotein level is within normal limits. What is the next best step in the management of this patient’s condition?
A. Radiofrequency ablation (RFA)
B. CT-guided biopsy
C. Observation
D. Referral for surgical excision
E. Discontinue oral contraceptives (Correct Answer)
Explanation: **Discontinue oral contraceptives**
- The patient's presentation with a **palpable liver mass**, **hypervascular lesions** on CT, and history of **oral contraceptive pill (OCP) use** is highly suggestive of a **hepatic adenoma**.
- The first and most crucial step in managing hepatic adenomas is to **discontinue OCPs**, as this often leads to regression of the tumor.
*Referral for surgical excision*
- Surgical excision is considered for **large adenomas** (typically >5 cm), those that are **symptomatic** and do not regress after OCP cessation, or those with features suspicious for **malignant transformation**.
- While this patient has a palpable mass, its size (2 cm) does not immediately warrant surgical excision as a first line and observation after OCP cessation is preferred.
*CT-guided biopsy*
- **Biopsy** is generally **avoided** in suspected hepatic adenomas due to the risk of **hemorrhage** from these highly vascular lesions and the potential for false negatives due to tumor heterogeneity.
- The diagnosis is usually made clinically with imaging and reversal upon stopping OCPs.
*Radiofrequency ablation (RFA)*
- **RFA** is a local ablative therapy typically reserved for cases where surgery is contraindicated or for specific types of **unresectable tumors**, often in the context of hepatocellular carcinoma or metastatic disease.
- It is not the initial treatment for an unconfirmed hepatic adenoma, especially before attempting OCP cessation.
*Observation*
- While observation is part of the management, it only follows **discontinuation of OCPs** and involves serial imaging to monitor for regression or growth.
- Simply observing the patient without addressing the potential precipitating factor (OCPs) is not the best initial step.
Question 85: A 27-year-old man comes to the emergency department because of abdominal pain, diarrhea, flushing, and generalized pruritus that began after playing soccer. He also has a 2-month history of fatigue. Physical examination shows pallor and dry mucous membranes. Bone marrow biopsy shows a dense infiltration of atypical leukocytes with basophilic granules; genetic analysis of these cells shows a mutation in the KIT gene. The patient is at greatest risk for which of the following complications?
A. Stress-induced cardiomyopathy
B. Gastric ulceration
C. Mucosal neuromas
D. Tricuspid valve regurgitation
E. Laryngeal edema (Correct Answer)
Explanation: ***Laryngeal edema***
- The patient's symptoms (abdominal pain, diarrhea, flushing, pruritus, fatigue) and bone marrow findings (**dense infiltration of atypical leukocytes with basophilic granules**, **KIT gene mutation**) are highly suggestive of **systemic mastocytosis**.
- **Systemic mastocytosis** involves the abnormal proliferation and accumulation of mast cells, which can degranulate and release mediators like **histamine** and **tryptase**, leading to severe allergic-like reactions including **anaphylaxis** and resultant **laryngeal edema**.
*Stress-induced cardiomyopathy*
- While intense exercise (like playing soccer) can cause **stress-induced cardiomyopathy** (Takotsubo cardiomyopathy), the patient's other symptoms and specific bone marrow findings point to a systemic disorder, not primarily cardiac.
- This condition is typically characterized by transient left ventricular dysfunction and is not directly linked to mast cell degranulation.
*Gastric ulceration*
- Patients with **systemic mastocytosis** can have increased gastric acid secretion due to **histamine release**, which predisposes them to peptic ulcers.
- However, the most acute and life-threatening complication in the context of a mast cell activation event (triggered by soccer, leading to flushing, pruritus, and abdominal pain) is an acute anaphylactic reaction, which includes **laryngeal edema**.
*Mucosal neuromas*
- **Mucosal neuromas** are a characteristic feature of **Multiple Endocrine Neoplasia type 2B (MEN2B)**, which is associated with mutations in the **RET proto-oncogene**.
- This patient's symptoms and the finding of a **KIT gene mutation** are not consistent with MEN2B.
*Tricuspid valve regurgitation*
- **Tricuspid valve regurgitation** can be a feature of **carcinoid syndrome**, which also presents with flushing and diarrhea due to **serotonin release**.
- However, the bone marrow findings and **KIT gene mutation** in this patient are specific to **systemic mastocytosis**, not carcinoid syndrome.
Question 86: A 27-year-old male arrives to your walk-in clinic complaining of neck pain. He reports that the discomfort began two hours ago, and now he feels like he can’t move his neck. He also thinks he is having hot flashes, but he denies dyspnea or trouble swallowing. The patient’s temperature is 99°F (37.2°C), blood pressure is 124/76 mmHg, pulse is 112/min, and respirations are 14/min with an oxygen saturation of 99% O2 on room air. You perform a physical exam of the patient's neck, and you note that his neck is rigid and flexed to the left. You are unable to passively flex or rotate the patient's neck to the right. There is no airway compromise. The patient's past medical history is significant for asthma, and he was also recently diagnosed with schizophrenia. The patient denies current auditory or visual hallucinations. He appears anxious, but his speech is organized and appropriate. Which of the following is the best initial step in management?
A. Propranolol
B. Diphenhydramine (Correct Answer)
C. Lorazepam
D. Dantrolene
E. Change medication to clozapine
Explanation: ***Diphenhydramine***
- The patient is presenting with acute **cervical dystonia**, likely an **acute extrapyramidal symptom (EPS)** induced by antipsychotic medication, given his recent schizophrenia diagnosis.
- **Anticholinergic medications** like diphenhydramine are the first-line treatment for acute dystonia as they block muscarinic receptors and restore dopamine-acetylcholine balance in the basal ganglia.
*Propranolol*
- Propranolol, a **beta-blocker**, is primarily used for managing **akathisia**, another common EPS characterized by restlessness.
- It would not be effective for acute dystonia, which involves sustained muscle contractions.
*Lorazepam*
- Lorazepam, a **benzodiazepine**, can be used as an adjunct or alternative for acute dystonia, especially if anticholinergics are ineffective or contraindicated.
- However, **diphenhydramine** is generally preferred as the initial agent due to its direct anticholinergic action.
*Dantrolene*
- Dantrolene is a **direct skeletal muscle relaxant** and is the primary treatment for **neuroleptic malignant syndrome (NMS)**, a severe EPS with fever, altered mental status, and severe muscle rigidity.
- This patient's presentation of isolated dystonia with normal vital signs does not fit the criteria for NMS.
*Change medication to clozapine*
- While clozapine has a lower risk of inducing EPS and is effective for refractory schizophrenia, changing chronic medication is not an appropriate initial step for an acute dystonic reaction.
- The immediate priority is to alleviate the acute symptoms, and only then consider long-term medication adjustments in consultation with a psychiatrist.
Question 87: A 5-year-old is brought into the emergency department for trouble breathing. He was at a family picnic playing when his symptoms began. The patient is currently struggling to breathe and has red, warm extremities. The patient has an unknown medical history and his only medications include herbs that his parents give him. His temperature is 99.5°F (37.5°C), pulse is 112/min, blood pressure is 70/40 mmHg, respirations are 18/min, and oxygen saturation is 82% on 100% O2. Which of the following is the best initial step in management?
A. Intubation
B. Albuterol
C. Cricothyroidotomy
D. Albuterol, ipratropium, and magnesium
E. Epinephrine (Correct Answer)
Explanation: ***Epinephrine***
- This patient is exhibiting signs of **anaphylactic shock** (difficulty breathing, red/warm extremities, hypotension) likely triggered by an allergen at the picnic. **Epinephrine** is the first-line treatment for anaphylaxis due to its alpha and beta-adrenergic effects that counteract vasodilation, bronchoconstriction, and histamine release.
- The rapid onset of symptoms and cardiovascular collapse (hypotension) necessitate immediate administration of epinephrine to stabilize the patient.
*Intubation*
- While the patient is in respiratory distress, intubation is a more invasive procedure and not the *initial* best step for anaphylactic shock. **Epinephrine** should be administered first to address the underlying physiological derangements.
- Airway management, including intubation, may be necessary if epinephrine fails to improve respiratory status, but it is secondary to addressing the systemic allergic reaction.
*Albuterol*
- **Albuterol** is a bronchodilator that helps with bronchospasm, but it does not address the widespread vasodilation, hypotension, or other systemic effects of anaphylaxis.
- While it might provide some symptomatic relief for breathing, it is insufficient as a standalone treatment for anaphylactic shock and would not prevent cardiovascular collapse.
*Cricothyroidotomy*
- **Cricothyroidotomy** is an emergency airway procedure used when conventional intubation is impossible due to upper airway obstruction.
- In this scenario, the primary issue is systemic anaphylaxis causing bronchospasm and shock, not an isolated upper airway obstruction, making epinephrine the more appropriate initial intervention.
*Albuterol, ipratropium, and magnesium*
- This combination is typically used for severe asthma exacerbations, focusing on bronchodilation and smooth muscle relaxation.
- Like albuterol alone, this combination does not address the underlying systemic vasodilation and hypotension characteristic of anaphylactic shock, which requires **epinephrine**.
Question 88: A 58-year-old man comes to the physician because of depressed mood for 6 months. He works as a store manager and cannot concentrate at work anymore. He experiences daytime sleepiness and fatigue because he repeatedly wakes up at night and has difficulties falling asleep again after 4 a.m. He reports no longer taking pleasure in activities he used to enjoy, such as going fishing with his son. He has decreased appetite and has had a weight-loss of 5 kg (11 lb) over the past 6 months. He does not have suicidal ideation. He has no history of serious illness and takes no medication. He is divorced and lives with his girlfriend. He drinks several alcoholic beverages on the weekends. He does not take any medications. He is diagnosed with major depressive disorder and a trial of sertraline is suggested. The patient is at greatest risk for which of the following adverse effects?
A. Delayed ejaculation (Correct Answer)
B. Postural hypotension
C. Urinary retention
D. Increased suicidality
E. Priapism
Explanation: **Delayed ejaculation**
- **Sexual dysfunction**, including delayed ejaculation, is a common adverse effect of **selective serotonin reuptake inhibitors (SSRIs)** like sertraline due to their enhancement of serotonergic neurotransmission.
- This side effect is particularly prevalent in male patients and can significantly impact treatment adherence and quality of life.
*Postural hypotension*
- **Postural hypotension** is more commonly associated with **tricyclic antidepressants (TCAs)** and some atypical antipsychotics due to their alpha-1 adrenergic blocking effects.
- SSRIs generally have a **lower risk** of causing significant orthostatic changes compared to other antidepressant classes.
*Urinary retention*
- **Urinary retention** is primarily linked to drugs with significant **anticholinergic properties**, such as TCAs, which block muscarinic receptors.
- SSRIs like sertraline have **minimal anticholinergic activity**, making urinary retention an unlikely adverse effect.
*Increased suicidality*
- While there is a black box warning regarding increased suicidality in children, adolescents, and young adults (under 25) when starting antidepressants, this risk is **lower in middle-aged and older adults**.
- The patient's age (58) makes this a **less significant concern** compared to other populations, and he explicitly denies suicidal ideation.
*Priapism*
- **Priapism** (a prolonged, painful erection) is a rare but serious side effect most notably associated with **trazodone**, an antidepressant with alpha-adrenergic blocking properties.
- It is **not a typical adverse effect** of SSRIs like sertraline.
Question 89: A researcher is currently working on developing new cholinergic receptor agonist drugs. He has formulated 2 new drugs: drug A, which is a selective muscarinic receptor agonist and has equal affinity for M1, M2, M3, M4, and M5 muscarinic receptors, and drug B, which is a selective nicotinic receptor agonist and has equal affinity for NN and NM receptors. The chemical structure and mechanisms of action of both drugs mimic acetylcholine. However, drug A does not have any nicotinic receptor activity and drug B does not have any muscarinic receptor activity. Which of the following statements is most likely correct regarding these new drugs?
A. Drug B may produce some of its effects by activating the IP3-DAG (inositol triphosphate-diacylglycerol) cascade
B. Drug B acts by stimulating a receptor which is composed of 5 subunits (Correct Answer)
C. Drug A acts by causing conformational changes in ligand-gated ion channels
D. Drug A acts on receptors located at the neuromuscular junctions of skeletal muscle
E. Drug A acts by stimulating a receptor which is composed of 6 segments
Explanation: ***Drug B acts by stimulating a receptor which is composed of 5 subunits***
- **Nicotinic acetylcholine receptors (nAChRs)**, which drug B agonizes, are **ligand-gated ion channels** composed of five subunits surrounding a central pore.
- This pentameric structure is characteristic of all nAChRs, whether neuronal (NN) or muscle (NM) type.
*Drug B may produce some of its effects by activating the IP3-DAG (inositol triphosphate-diacylglycerol) cascade*
- The **IP3-DAG cascade** is a signal transduction pathway primarily associated with **G protein-coupled receptors**, specifically **M1, M3, and M5 muscarinic receptors**.
- Drug B is a selective **nicotinic receptor agonist**, and nicotinic receptors are **ion channels**, not GPCRs that activate IP3-DAG.
*Drug A acts by causing conformational changes in ligand-gated ion channels*
- Drug A is a selective **muscarinic receptor agonist**. Muscarinic receptors are **G protein-coupled receptors (GPCRs)**, not ligand-gated ion channels.
- Activation of GPCRs leads to intracellular signaling cascades, such as the **IP3-DAG or cAMP pathways**, rather than direct ion flow through a channel.
*Drug A acts on receptors located at the neuromuscular junctions of skeletal muscle*
- The **neuromuscular junction (NMJ)** contains **nicotinic (NM) receptors**, which mediate muscle contraction. Drug A is a selective **muscarinic receptor agonist**.
- Therefore, drug A would **not act at the NMJ** to produce its effects.
*Drug A acts by stimulating a receptor which is composed of 6 segments*
- This statement inaccurately describes the structure of acetylcholine receptors. While some ion channels have multiple transmembrane segments, the primary classification relevant here is between **nicotinic receptors (pentameric ligand-gated ion channels)** and **muscarinic receptors (monomeric G protein-coupled receptors with 7 transmembrane domains)**, neither of which are described as being composed of "6 segments."
- **Muscarinic receptors themselves are single polypeptide chains** that weave through the membrane seven times, so they are not "composed of 6 segments."
Question 90: A 72-year-old woman comes to the physician because she is seeing things that she knows are not there. Sometimes she sees a dog in her kitchen and at other times she sees a stranger in her garden, both of which no one else can see. She also reports a lack of motivation to do daily tasks for the past week. Three years ago, she was diagnosed with Parkinson disease and was started on levodopa and carbidopa. Her younger brother has schizophrenia. The patient also takes levothyroxine for hypothyroidism. She used to drink a bottle of wine every day, but she stopped drinking alcohol 2 months ago. Neurologic examination shows a mild resting tremor of the hands and bradykinesia. Her thought process is organized and logical. Which of the following is the most likely underlying cause of this patient's symptoms?
A. Alcohol withdrawal
B. Adverse effect of medication (Correct Answer)
C. Major depressive disorder
D. Schizophrenia
E. Poorly controlled hypothyroidism
Explanation: ***Adverse effect of medication***
- The patient's **visual hallucinations** and **apathy** are consistent with **dopaminergic medication-induced psychosis**, a common complication of **levodopa/carbidopa** in Parkinson's disease, especially in older patients.
- The hallucinations are typically **well-formed**, non-threatening, and the patient often retains insight into their unreality, as described ("she knows are not there").
*Alcohol withdrawal*
- **Alcohol withdrawal hallucinations** typically occur within 12-48 hours of cessation and are primarily visual, but often accompanied by autonomic instability (tremors, sweating, tachycardia) which is not mentioned here.
- Given she stopped drinking 2 months ago, acute withdrawal symptoms would have resolved much earlier.
*Major depressive disorder*
- While **apathy** and lack of motivation can be symptoms of depression, the prominent **visual hallucinations** are not typical of major depressive disorder without psychotic features (which would then be a specified subtype).
- Her thought process is described as **organized and logical**, making a primary thought disorder secondary to depression less likely.
*Schizophrenia*
- Schizophrenia typically presents in **early adulthood** (late teens to early 30s) and involves persistent psychosis, disorganized thought, and functional decline, which is not consistent with this patient's age of symptom onset or preserved thought process.
- The family history of schizophrenia is a risk factor, but the clinical presentation—especially the patient's insight into the hallucinations—is more indicative of a medication-induced effect or other organic cause in an older person.
*Poorly controlled hypothyroidism*
- **Hypothyroidism** can cause cognitive slowing, depression, and in severe cases, myxedema madness with psychotic symptoms, but her symptoms primarily manifest as formed visual hallucinations.
- There is no clinical or lab evidence provided to suggest her hypothyroidism is poorly controlled or severe enough to cause such distinct hallucinations.