A 36-year-old woman with schizophrenia comes to the office for a follow-up appointment. She has been hospitalized 4 times in the past year, and she has failed to respond to multiple trials of antipsychotic medications. Six weeks ago, she was brought to the emergency department by her husband because of a bizarre behavior, paranoid delusions, and hearing voices that others did not hear. She was started on a new medication, and her symptoms have improved. Laboratory studies show:
Hemoglobin 13.8 g/dL
Leukocyte count 1,200/mm3
Segmented neutrophils 6%
Eosinophils 0%
Lymphocytes 92%
Monocytes 2%
Platelet count 245,000/mm3
This patient was most likely started on which of the following medications?
Q42
A 25-year-old woman presents to an urgent care center following a presumed bee sting while at a picnic with her friends. She immediately developed a skin rash and swelling over her arms and face. She endorses diffuse itching over her torso. She denies any episodes similar to this and has no significant medical history. She does note that her father has an allergy to peanuts. Her blood pressure is 92/54 mm Hg, heart rate, 118/min, respiratory rate 18/min. On physical examination, the patient has severe edema over her face and inspiratory stridor. Of the following options, this patient is likely experiencing which of the following hypersensitivity reactions?
Q43
A 67-year-old man presents to the emergency room with malaise, nausea, and vomiting. Four hours prior to presentation, he was spraying insecticide at his farm when he started feeling nauseous. He has had multiple episodes of diarrhea and has vomited non-bloody, non-bilious fluid twice. He also complains of muscle cramps and tremors. His past medical history is notable for hypertension, diabetes, hyperlipidemia, and a prior myocardial infarction. He takes aspirin, metoprolol, metformin, lisinopril, and atorvastatin. He has a 40-pack-year smoking history and drinks 3-4 shots of whiskey per day. His temperature is 98.6°F (37°C), blood pressure is 148/88 mmHg, pulse is 96/min, and respirations are 22/min. He is alert and oriented to person and place but not to time. He is diaphoretic and tremulous. His pupils are 2 mm bilaterally. The patient's clothing is removed, and he is placed in a medical gown. Which of the following is the most appropriate initial treatment for this patient?
Q44
A 32-year-old man presents with difficulty sleeping and ‘feeling low’ for the past 6 months. Although he denies any suicidal thoughts, he admits to having an occasional feeling of hopelessness and loss of concentration at work. For the last 2 months, he has made excuses to avoid meeting his friends. He got married 1 year ago. The couple plans to try to have a child. He was started on sertraline 3 months ago and says it has not helped his depressive symptoms. He says he has also developed erectile dysfunction since starting the medication, which has been an issue since he and his wife would like to have a child. Past medical history is insignificant. The patient is afebrile and vital signs are within normal limits. Physical examination is unremarkable. Laboratory studies, including thyroid-stimulating hormone (TSH), are within normal limits. When switching drugs, which of the following would be most appropriate for this patient?
Q45
A 61-year-old man decides to undergo surgery for a hip replacement after seeing no improvement in his pain with non-operative treatment. At some point during the surgery, he is administered an agent that results in fasciculations in the patient's extremities. This was the expected response to the administered agent so no intervention was needed. After a while, the fasciculations stop and remain stopped for the remainder of the surgery. Consider the period of time during which the patient had fasciculations and subsequently the period of time after the fasciculations stopped. If the effects of the administered agent needed to be reversed during each of these two time periods respectively, which of the following agents should be administered during each time period?
Q46
A 70-year-old man with a history of Alzheimer dementia presents to the emergency department with a change in his behavior. The patient has been more confused recently and had a fever. Upon presentation, he is too confused to answer questions. His temperature is 103°F (39.4°C), blood pressure is 102/68 mmHg, pulse is 157/min, respirations are 22/min, and oxygen saturation is 99% on room air. The patient is given 3 liters of IV fluids and acetaminophen and his vitals improve. He is also less confused. The patient is asking where he is and becomes combative and strikes a nurse when he finds out he has to be admitted to the hospital. He is given diphenhydramine for sedation and put in soft restraints. His mental status subsequently worsens and he becomes much more aggressive, spitting at nurses and attempting to bite his restraints. He also complains of abdominal pain. A post void residual volume is notable for a urine volume of 750 mL. Which of the following is the etiology of this patient's recent mental status change?
Q47
A 78-year-old man suffers a fall in a nursing home and is brought to the emergency room. A right hip fracture is diagnosed, and he is treated with a closed reduction with internal fixation under spinal anesthesia. On the second postoperative day, the patient complains of pain in the lower abdomen and states that he has not urinated since the surgery. An ultrasound shows increased bladder size and volume. Which of the following is the mechanism of action of the drug which is most commonly used to treat this patient’s condition?
Q48
A 49-year-old man presents to his primary care physician complaining of multiple symptoms. He states that over the past 8 months he has noticed voice changes and difficulty swallowing. The dysphagia started with just dry foods like crackers but has progressed to include smoothies and ice cream. He works as a newspaper editor and has also noticed trouble writing with his dominant hand. He is accompanied by his wife, who complains that he snores and drools in his sleep. His medical history is significant for hypertension and a bicuspid aortic valve. He takes hydrochlorothiazide. On physical examination, there is atrophy of the right hand. The patient’s speech is slow. A systolic murmur at the right upper sternal border is appreciated. Tapping of the left patellar tendon causes the patient’s left lower extremity to forcefully kick out. Stroking of the plantar aspect of the patient’s left foot causes his left toes to extend upward. Which of the following therapies is most likely to slow the progression of the patient’s symptoms?
Q49
A 79-year-old man, hospitalized for overnight monitoring after elective surgery, is found on morning rounds to be confused and disoriented. He was recovering well in the post-anesthesia care unit before being moved up to the inpatient floor unit; however, he was found to be delirious and agitated overnight. Therefore, he was given a dose of a drug that affects the opening frequency of a neuronal ion channel. During morning rounds, he is found to have weakness, tremors, uncoordinated muscle movements, blurred vision, and disorientation. Which of the following could be used to reverse the drug that was administered to this patient?
Q50
A 9-year-old boy is brought to the physician by his mother because of poor performance in school for the last year. He has difficulty sitting still at his desk, does not follow the teacher's instructions, and frequently blurts out answers in class. He often gets sent outside the classroom for failing to work quietly. At hockey practice, he does not wait his turn and has difficulty listening to his coach's instructions. His mother reports that he is easily distracted when she speaks with him and that he often forgets his books at home. Physical examination shows no abnormalities. Which of the following is the most appropriate pharmacotherapy?
Cholinergic/Adrenergic drugs US Medical PG Practice Questions and MCQs
Question 41: A 36-year-old woman with schizophrenia comes to the office for a follow-up appointment. She has been hospitalized 4 times in the past year, and she has failed to respond to multiple trials of antipsychotic medications. Six weeks ago, she was brought to the emergency department by her husband because of a bizarre behavior, paranoid delusions, and hearing voices that others did not hear. She was started on a new medication, and her symptoms have improved. Laboratory studies show:
Hemoglobin 13.8 g/dL
Leukocyte count 1,200/mm3
Segmented neutrophils 6%
Eosinophils 0%
Lymphocytes 92%
Monocytes 2%
Platelet count 245,000/mm3
This patient was most likely started on which of the following medications?
A. Clozapine (Correct Answer)
B. Promethazine
C. Fluphenazine
D. Lithium
E. Quetiapine
Explanation: ***Clozapine***
- The patient's presentation of **treatment-resistant schizophrenia** (failure to respond to multiple antipsychotics and recurrent hospitalizations) strongly points to clozapine as the most likely effective treatment.
- The abnormal lab results, particularly **leukopenia** (total WBC 1,200/mm³) and severe **neutropenia** (segmented neutrophils 6%, absolute neutrophil count ~72/mm³), are a known and serious side effect of clozapine, requiring careful monitoring.
*Promethazine*
- Promethazine is an **antihistamine** with antiemetic and sedative properties, not a primary antipsychotic for schizophrenia.
- It would not be used for chronic management of severe, treatment-resistant schizophrenia and is not associated with the severe hematological side effects seen here.
*Fluphenazine*
- Fluphenazine is a **first-generation antipsychotic** that could be used for schizophrenia, but the patient's history indicates failure of multiple antipsychotic trials.
- While it can cause some side effects, severe leukopenia and neutropenia to the degree seen here are not characteristic of fluphenazine.
*Lithium*
- Lithium is a **mood stabilizer** primarily used for bipolar disorder, not typical first-line or even second-line treatment for schizophrenia as a monotherapy.
- Notably, lithium typically causes **leukocytosis** (increased WBC count), not leukopenia, making it inconsistent with the lab findings showing severe leukopenia and neutropenia.
*Quetiapine*
- Quetiapine is a **second-generation antipsychotic** that is used for schizophrenia, but it is less effective for treatment-resistant cases compared to clozapine.
- While some antipsychotics can cause mild hematologic changes, quetiapine is not known for causing the profound leukopenia and severe neutropenia seen in this patient, which are distinctly associated with clozapine.
Question 42: A 25-year-old woman presents to an urgent care center following a presumed bee sting while at a picnic with her friends. She immediately developed a skin rash and swelling over her arms and face. She endorses diffuse itching over her torso. She denies any episodes similar to this and has no significant medical history. She does note that her father has an allergy to peanuts. Her blood pressure is 92/54 mm Hg, heart rate, 118/min, respiratory rate 18/min. On physical examination, the patient has severe edema over her face and inspiratory stridor. Of the following options, this patient is likely experiencing which of the following hypersensitivity reactions?
A. Type 2 hypersensitivity reaction
B. Type 1 hypersensitivity reaction (Correct Answer)
C. Type 3 hypersensitivity reaction
D. Mixed type 1 and type 3 hypersensitivity reactions
E. Type 4 hypersensitivity reaction
Explanation: ***Type 1 hypersensitivity reaction***
- This patient is experiencing **anaphylaxis**, which is a severe, systemic manifestation of a **Type 1 hypersensitivity reaction**. Key features include rapid onset, exposure to an allergen (bee sting), **skin rash**, **angioedema** (facial edema, swelling over arms), diffuse itching, **hypotension**, **tachycardia**, and **inspiratory stridor** (indicating airway obstruction).
- **Type 1 hypersensitivity** is mediated by **IgE antibodies** binding to mast cells and basophils, leading to the rapid release of histamine and other inflammatory mediators upon re-exposure to the allergen.
*Type 2 hypersensitivity reaction*
- **Type 2 hypersensitivity** involves **IgG** or **IgM antibodies** binding directly to antigens on the surface of target cells, leading to cell destruction, dysfunction, or damage.
- Examples include **hemolytic transfusion reactions** or **autoimmune hemolytic anemia**, which do not match the presented symptoms.
*Type 3 hypersensitivity reaction*
- **Type 3 hypersensitivity** is characterized by the formation of **immune complexes** (antigen-antibody complexes) that deposit in tissues, leading to inflammation and tissue damage.
- Conditions like **serum sickness** or **lupus nephritis** are examples, typically having a delayed onset and different clinical presentation than an acute allergic reaction.
*Mixed type 1 and type 3 hypersensitivity reactions*
- While some conditions can involve multiple types of hypersensitivity reactions, the acute, immediate, and systemic nature of this patient's symptoms are overwhelmingly consistent with a **pure Type 1 IgE-mediated anaphylactic response**.
- There is no clinical evidence presented (e.g., vasculitis, glomerulonephritis) to suggest an accompanying **Type 3 reaction** in this acute setting.
*Type 4 hypersensitivity reaction*
- **Type 4 hypersensitivity** is a **delayed-type hypersensitivity (DTH)** reaction mediated by **T cells** rather than antibodies.
- Symptoms typically develop much later (24-72 hours) after exposure, as seen in **contact dermatitis** (e.g., poison ivy) or the **tuberculin skin test**, which is inconsistent with the immediate onset of this patient's symptoms.
Question 43: A 67-year-old man presents to the emergency room with malaise, nausea, and vomiting. Four hours prior to presentation, he was spraying insecticide at his farm when he started feeling nauseous. He has had multiple episodes of diarrhea and has vomited non-bloody, non-bilious fluid twice. He also complains of muscle cramps and tremors. His past medical history is notable for hypertension, diabetes, hyperlipidemia, and a prior myocardial infarction. He takes aspirin, metoprolol, metformin, lisinopril, and atorvastatin. He has a 40-pack-year smoking history and drinks 3-4 shots of whiskey per day. His temperature is 98.6°F (37°C), blood pressure is 148/88 mmHg, pulse is 96/min, and respirations are 22/min. He is alert and oriented to person and place but not to time. He is diaphoretic and tremulous. His pupils are 2 mm bilaterally. The patient's clothing is removed, and he is placed in a medical gown. Which of the following is the most appropriate initial treatment for this patient?
A. Naloxone
B. Activated charcoal
C. Physostigmine
D. Atropine (Correct Answer)
E. Pralidoxime
Explanation: ***Atropine***
- The patient's symptoms (malaise, nausea, vomiting, diarrhea, muscle cramps, tremors, diaphoresis, constricted pupils) after insecticide exposure are classic for **organophosphate poisoning**.
- **Atropine** is the **first-line initial treatment** as it rapidly reverses life-threatening **muscarinic effects** including bronchospasm, bronchorrhea, bradycardia, and excessive secretions.
- Atropine competitively blocks muscarinic acetylcholine receptors, counteracting the excess acetylcholine that accumulates due to acetylcholinesterase inhibition.
- It should be given in **large doses** (2-5 mg IV initially, repeated every 5-10 minutes) until signs of atropinization appear (dry mouth, mydriasis, tachycardia).
*Naloxone*
- **Naloxone** is an opioid antagonist used to reverse opioid overdose.
- The patient's symptoms are inconsistent with opioid intoxication, which typically causes **respiratory depression** and **miosis** but not the widespread cholinergic effects (diarrhea, diaphoresis, muscle fasciculations) seen here.
*Activated charcoal*
- **Activated charcoal** can be used as a gastrointestinal decontaminant in some poisonings to adsorb toxins and prevent absorption.
- However, for organophosphate poisoning, prompt administration of **atropine** is the priority due to the rapid onset and life-threatening nature of muscarinic symptoms.
- Activated charcoal may have limited utility as organophosphates are often absorbed dermally or via inhalation.
*Physostigmine*
- **Physostigmine** is an acetylcholinesterase inhibitor used to treat anticholinergic toxicity.
- Giving physostigmine in a case of organophosphate poisoning (which already involves excess acetylcholine) would dangerously **exacerbate cholinergic symptoms** and could be fatal.
*Pralidoxime*
- **Pralidoxime** reactivates **acetylcholinesterase** by cleaving the phosphate-enzyme bond, reversing both muscarinic and nicotinic effects.
- While pralidoxime is an important **adjunctive treatment** for organophosphate poisoning, it is given **after atropine** has been administered.
- Pralidoxime is most effective when given within 24-48 hours of exposure and primarily reverses **nicotinic effects** (muscle weakness, fasciculations, respiratory muscle paralysis).
Question 44: A 32-year-old man presents with difficulty sleeping and ‘feeling low’ for the past 6 months. Although he denies any suicidal thoughts, he admits to having an occasional feeling of hopelessness and loss of concentration at work. For the last 2 months, he has made excuses to avoid meeting his friends. He got married 1 year ago. The couple plans to try to have a child. He was started on sertraline 3 months ago and says it has not helped his depressive symptoms. He says he has also developed erectile dysfunction since starting the medication, which has been an issue since he and his wife would like to have a child. Past medical history is insignificant. The patient is afebrile and vital signs are within normal limits. Physical examination is unremarkable. Laboratory studies, including thyroid-stimulating hormone (TSH), are within normal limits. When switching drugs, which of the following would be most appropriate for this patient?
A. Nortriptyline
B. Fluoxetine
C. Bupropion (Correct Answer)
D. Buspirone
E. Phenelzine
Explanation: ***Bupropion***
- This patient is experiencing **sexual dysfunction** with sertraline, and bupropion is a good choice because it has a **lower incidence of sexual side effects** compared to SSRIs.
- Bupropion works as a **norepinephrine-dopamine reuptake inhibitor (NDRI)**, which can be activating and helpful for symptoms like low energy and concentration issues.
*Nortriptyline*
- Nortriptyline is a **tricyclic antidepressant (TCA)** that can have significant anticholinergic side effects (e.g., dry mouth, constipation, urinary retention) and may cause **cardiac conduction abnormalities** in susceptible individuals.
- While it might be an option, its side effect profile is generally less favorable than bupropion in a patient seeking to avoid sexual dysfunction and minimize side effects.
*Fluoxetine*
- Fluoxetine is another **selective serotonin reuptake inhibitor (SSRI)**, similar to sertraline, and is also associated with a high incidence of **sexual side effects**, which is precisely what the patient is trying to avoid.
- Switching from one SSRI to another when sexual dysfunction is the primary concern is unlikely to resolve the issue.
*Buspirone*
- Buspirone is an **anxiolytic** that primarily acts on serotonin receptors, but it is **not a primary antidepressant** for moderate to severe depression.
- It might be used as an adjunct for anxiety symptoms, but it would not be appropriate as a monotherapy switch for persistent depressive symptoms.
*Phenelzine*
- Phenelzine is a **monoamine oxidase inhibitor (MAOI)**, typically reserved for **treatment-resistant depression** due to its significant dietary restrictions (tyramine-free diet) and potential for **hypertensive crisis**.
- Given that the patient has only tried one SSRI, an MAOI would be an overly aggressive and high-risk choice at this stage.
Question 45: A 61-year-old man decides to undergo surgery for a hip replacement after seeing no improvement in his pain with non-operative treatment. At some point during the surgery, he is administered an agent that results in fasciculations in the patient's extremities. This was the expected response to the administered agent so no intervention was needed. After a while, the fasciculations stop and remain stopped for the remainder of the surgery. Consider the period of time during which the patient had fasciculations and subsequently the period of time after the fasciculations stopped. If the effects of the administered agent needed to be reversed during each of these two time periods respectively, which of the following agents should be administered during each time period?
A. Neostigmine, no reversal
B. No reversal, neostigmine (Correct Answer)
C. No reversal, atracurium
D. Atracurium, atracurium
E. Neostigmine, neostigmine
Explanation: ***No reversal, neostigmine***
- The agent causing **fasciculations** is **succinylcholine**, a **depolarizing neuromuscular blocker**
- During the **Phase I block** (fasciculation phase), succinylcholine actively stimulates **nicotinic acetylcholine receptors**, causing depolarization
- Administering **neostigmine** (an acetylcholinesterase inhibitor) during Phase I would **worsen the block** by increasing acetylcholine concentration and prolonging depolarization
- After fasciculations stop, continuous exposure leads to **Phase II block** with **receptor desensitization**, mimicking a non-depolarizing block
- During Phase II, **neostigmine** can reverse the block by increasing acetylcholine at the neuromuscular junction, allowing competition with succinylcholine at desensitized receptors
*Neostigmine, no reversal*
- Administering **neostigmine** during Phase I would exacerbate the depolarizing block by preventing acetylcholine breakdown
- Stating "no reversal" for Phase II is incorrect, as Phase II block can often be partially or fully reversed with neostigmine
*No reversal, atracurium*
- While "no reversal" is correct for the Phase I block, **atracurium** is not a reversal agent
- **Atracurium** is a non-depolarizing neuromuscular blocker that would further potentiate the blockade by blocking acetylcholine receptors
*Atracurium, atracurium*
- **Atracurium** is a neuromuscular blocking agent, not a reversal agent
- It would worsen paralysis rather than reverse it in either phase of succinylcholine block
*Neostigmine, neostigmine*
- Administering **neostigmine** during Phase I would dangerously prolong depolarization and worsen the block
- While neostigmine is appropriate for Phase II block reversal, its use in Phase I makes this option incorrect
Question 46: A 70-year-old man with a history of Alzheimer dementia presents to the emergency department with a change in his behavior. The patient has been more confused recently and had a fever. Upon presentation, he is too confused to answer questions. His temperature is 103°F (39.4°C), blood pressure is 102/68 mmHg, pulse is 157/min, respirations are 22/min, and oxygen saturation is 99% on room air. The patient is given 3 liters of IV fluids and acetaminophen and his vitals improve. He is also less confused. The patient is asking where he is and becomes combative and strikes a nurse when he finds out he has to be admitted to the hospital. He is given diphenhydramine for sedation and put in soft restraints. His mental status subsequently worsens and he becomes much more aggressive, spitting at nurses and attempting to bite his restraints. He also complains of abdominal pain. A post void residual volume is notable for a urine volume of 750 mL. Which of the following is the etiology of this patient's recent mental status change?
A. Diphenhydramine (Correct Answer)
B. Lorazepam
C. Haloperidol
D. Acute infection
E. Olanzapine
Explanation: ***Diphenhydramine***
- This patient exhibited a **paradoxical reaction** (increased agitation and aggression) to diphenhydramine, which is an **anticholinergic** medication.
- Anticholinergic drugs can worsen confusion and agitation, especially in elderly patients or those with pre-existing **dementia**.
*Lorazepam*
- **Benzodiazepines** like lorazepam primarily work on **GABA receptors** to produce sedative and anxiolytic effects.
- While sometimes used for agitation, it typically causes sedation rather than increased aggression in the elderly; a paradoxical reaction is less common than with anticholinergics.
*Haloperidol*
- Haloperidol is a **first-generation antipsychotic** used to treat acute agitation and psychosis, primarily by blocking **dopamine D2 receptors**.
- Its typical effect would be to decrease agitation and aggression, not worsen mental status in this manner.
*Acute infection*
- The patient initially presented with signs of an acute infection (fever, increased confusion), which improved after initial treatment with IV fluids and acetaminophen, indicating the initial symptoms were likely due to infection.
- The subsequent worsening after diphenhydramine points to a new etiology for the mental status change, rather than a resurgence of the infection.
*Olanzapine*
- Olanzapine is a **second-generation antipsychotic** that blocks serotonin and dopamine receptors, often used for acute agitation.
- Like haloperidol, it would be expected to reduce agitation and aggression, not exacerbate it, and was not administered to the patient according to the vignette.
Question 47: A 78-year-old man suffers a fall in a nursing home and is brought to the emergency room. A right hip fracture is diagnosed, and he is treated with a closed reduction with internal fixation under spinal anesthesia. On the second postoperative day, the patient complains of pain in the lower abdomen and states that he has not urinated since the surgery. An ultrasound shows increased bladder size and volume. Which of the following is the mechanism of action of the drug which is most commonly used to treat this patient’s condition?
A. Alpha-blocker
B. Parasympathetic antagonist
C. Sympathetic agonist
D. Beta-blocker
E. Parasympathetic agonist (Correct Answer)
Explanation: ***Parasympathetic agonist***
- The patient presents with **postoperative urinary retention (POUR)**, commonly treated with **bethanechol**, a muscarinic cholinergic agonist.
- Bethanechol acts as a **parasympathetic agonist**, stimulating **muscarinic receptors** on the **detrusor muscle** of the bladder, causing it to contract and facilitating urination.
*Alpha-blocker*
- **Alpha-blockers** (e.g., tamsulosin) relax the **smooth muscle** of the prostatic urethra and bladder neck, often used for **benign prostatic hyperplasia (BPH)**.
- While they can improve urinary flow, they do not directly stimulate **detrusor contraction** and are not the primary treatment for acute POUR.
*Parasympathetic antagonist*
- **Parasympathetic antagonists** (e.g., oxybutynin) block muscarinic receptors, leading to **detrusor relaxation**.
- These drugs are used to treat conditions like **overactive bladder** or **urge incontinence**, which involve excessive bladder contraction, and would worsen urinary retention.
*Sympathetic agonist*
- **Sympathetic agonists** (e.g., norepinephrine) primarily cause vasoconstriction and cardiac stimulation.
- They tend to **relax the detrusor muscle** and contract the internal urethral sphincter via **beta-3 and alpha-1 receptors**, respectively, which would exacerbate urinary retention.
*Beta-blocker*
- **Beta-blockers** (e.g., propranolol) primarily affect the heart and blood vessels, slowing heart rate and lowering blood pressure.
- They have **no direct primary role** in the treatment of acute urinary retention as they do not directly act on bladder contractility.
Question 48: A 49-year-old man presents to his primary care physician complaining of multiple symptoms. He states that over the past 8 months he has noticed voice changes and difficulty swallowing. The dysphagia started with just dry foods like crackers but has progressed to include smoothies and ice cream. He works as a newspaper editor and has also noticed trouble writing with his dominant hand. He is accompanied by his wife, who complains that he snores and drools in his sleep. His medical history is significant for hypertension and a bicuspid aortic valve. He takes hydrochlorothiazide. On physical examination, there is atrophy of the right hand. The patient’s speech is slow. A systolic murmur at the right upper sternal border is appreciated. Tapping of the left patellar tendon causes the patient’s left lower extremity to forcefully kick out. Stroking of the plantar aspect of the patient’s left foot causes his left toes to extend upward. Which of the following therapies is most likely to slow the progression of the patient’s symptoms?
A. Amantadine
B. Beta interferon
C. Riluzole (Correct Answer)
D. Donepezil
E. Reserpine
Explanation: ***Riluzole***
- This patient presents with symptoms highly suggestive of **amyotrophic lateral sclerosis (ALS)**, including progressive **dysphagia**, **voice changes**, **hand weakness/atrophy**, **hyperreflexia** (forceful patellar reflex), and a **positive Babinski sign** (extension of toes). **Riluzole** is the only medication shown to slightly prolong survival and slow the progression of ALS by inhibiting glutamate release.
- The patient's **snores and drools** are also consistent with bulbar involvement seen in ALS, as is the progressive dysphagia from dry foods to liquids.
*Amantadine*
- **Amantadine** is an antiviral drug primarily used to treat **influenza A** and to alleviate **dyskinesia** associated with **Parkinson's disease**.
- It has no known efficacy in slowing the progression of **ALS**.
*Beta interferon*
- **Beta interferon** is a medication used to treat **multiple sclerosis (MS)** by modulating the immune system to reduce inflammation and neuron damage.
- While MS can cause neurological symptoms, the clinical picture here with both upper and lower motor neuron signs without clear sensory deficits or relapsing-remitting course is not typical for MS, and beta interferon is not effective for **ALS**.
*Donepezil*
- **Donepezil** is a **cholinesterase inhibitor** primarily used to treat the symptoms of **Alzheimer's disease** by increasing acetylcholine levels in the brain, improving cognitive function.
- It does not address the motor neuron degeneration characteristic of **ALS**.
*Reserpine*
- **Reserpine** is an **antihypertensive and antipsychotic** drug that depletes catecholamines and serotonin from nerve endings.
- It is used to treat conditions like **hypertension and dyskinesias** (e.g., in Huntington's disease) but has no role in the management or slowing of **ALS** progression.
Question 49: A 79-year-old man, hospitalized for overnight monitoring after elective surgery, is found on morning rounds to be confused and disoriented. He was recovering well in the post-anesthesia care unit before being moved up to the inpatient floor unit; however, he was found to be delirious and agitated overnight. Therefore, he was given a dose of a drug that affects the opening frequency of a neuronal ion channel. During morning rounds, he is found to have weakness, tremors, uncoordinated muscle movements, blurred vision, and disorientation. Which of the following could be used to reverse the drug that was administered to this patient?
A. Flumazenil (Correct Answer)
B. Activated charcoal
C. Naloxone
D. Ammonium chloride
E. Sodium bicarbonate
Explanation: ***Flumazenil***
- The patient exhibits symptoms of **benzodiazepine overdose**, likely from medication given for agitation, which include confusion, disorientation, weakness, and uncoordinated movements.
- **Flumazenil** is a selective competitive antagonist of the **GABA-A receptor**, effectively reversing the effects of benzodiazepines.
*Activated charcoal*
- **Activated charcoal** is used for drug overdose by **adsorbing toxins** in the gastrointestinal tract, preventing systemic absorption.
- It is not an antidote for central nervous system depressant toxicities once the drug has already been absorbed and exerted its effects, and it is most effective when administered shortly after ingestion.
*Naloxone*
- **Naloxone** is an opioid receptor antagonist used to reverse the effects of **opioid overdose**, primarily respiratory depression.
- The patient's symptoms are inconsistent with opioid overdose, which would typically present with pinpoint pupils and respiratory depression rather than the described neurological and motor deficits.
*Ammonium chloride*
- **Ammonium chloride** is used to **acidify urine** to increase the excretion of basic drugs.
- It does not directly reverse the central nervous system effects of an overdose and is not a specific antidote for benzodiazepine toxicity.
*Sodium bicarbonate*
- **Sodium bicarbonate** is used to **alkalinize urine** to promote the excretion of acidic drugs, or to treat metabolic acidosis or certain drug toxicities like tricyclic antidepressants.
- It would not reverse the direct neurological effects of a benzodiazepine overdose.
Question 50: A 9-year-old boy is brought to the physician by his mother because of poor performance in school for the last year. He has difficulty sitting still at his desk, does not follow the teacher's instructions, and frequently blurts out answers in class. He often gets sent outside the classroom for failing to work quietly. At hockey practice, he does not wait his turn and has difficulty listening to his coach's instructions. His mother reports that he is easily distracted when she speaks with him and that he often forgets his books at home. Physical examination shows no abnormalities. Which of the following is the most appropriate pharmacotherapy?
A. Varenicline
B. Fluoxetine
C. Suvorexant
D. Atomoxetine (Correct Answer)
E. Risperidone
Explanation: ***Atomoxetine***
- The patient's symptoms of inattention, hyperactivity, and impulsivity are highly suggestive of **Attention-Deficit/Hyperactivity Disorder (ADHD)**. Atomoxetine is a **non-stimulant medication** that is FDA-approved for the treatment of ADHD in children, adolescents, and adults.
- It works by selectively inhibiting the **norepinephrine transporter**, increasing norepinephrine levels in the prefrontal cortex, which helps improve attention and reduce impulsivity.
*Varenicline*
- **Varenicline** is a medication primarily used for **smoking cessation**, acting as a partial agonist at nicotinic acetylcholine receptors.
- It has no established role in the treatment of ADHD and would not address the patient's symptoms.
*Fluoxetine*
- **Fluoxetine** is a **selective serotonin reuptake inhibitor (SSRI)** commonly used to treat depression, anxiety disorders, and obsessive-compulsive disorder.
- While co-occurring anxiety or depression can happen with ADHD, the primary symptoms presented in the case are classic for ADHD, not primarily mood or anxiety disorders.
*Suvorexant*
- **Suvorexant** is an **orexin receptor antagonist** used for the treatment of insomnia, by blocking the wake-promoting effects of orexin.
- It is not indicated for ADHD and would not improve the patient's inattention or hyperactivity.
*Risperidone*
- **Risperidone** is an **atypical antipsychotic** used to treat conditions like schizophrenia, bipolar disorder, and irritability associated with autism.
- While it can be used for severe behavioral problems, it is not a first-line treatment for ADHD and would carry more significant side effects than ADHD-specific medications.