A 21-year-old man presents with eye redness, itching, and watering; nasal congestion, and rhinorrhea. He reports that these symptoms have been occurring every year in the late spring since he was 18 years old. The patient’s medical history is significant for endoscopic resection of a right maxillary sinus polyp at the age of 16. His father and younger sister have bronchial asthma. He takes oxymetazoline as needed to decrease nasal congestion. The patient’s blood pressure is 120/80 mm Hg, heart rate is 71/min, respiratory rate is 18/min, and temperature is 36.7°C (98.0°F). On physical examination, there is conjunctival injection and clear nasal discharge bilaterally. His lymph nodes are not enlarged and his sinuses do not cause pain upon palpation. Heart and lung sounds are normal. Which of the following is most likely to be a part of his condition’s pathogenesis?
Q152
A 67-year-old man with type 2 diabetes mellitus and benign prostatic hyperplasia comes to the physician because of a 2-day history of sneezing and clear nasal discharge. He has had similar symptoms occasionally in the past. His current medications include metformin and tamsulosin. Examination of the nasal cavity shows red, swollen turbinates. Which of the following is the most appropriate pharmacotherapy for this patient's condition?
Q153
A 28-year-old gravida-2-para-1 at 12 weeks gestation presents for a prenatal visit. Over the past week, she has felt increasingly tired, even after waking up in the morning. She is vegan and avoids all animal products. She was diagnosed with Graves’ disease 6 months ago. Before conception, methimazole was switched to propylthiouracil (PTU). Other medications include folic acid and a multivitamin. The vital signs include: temperature 37.1℃ (98.8℉), pulse 72/min, respiratory rate 12/min, and blood pressure 110/75 mm Hg. The conjunctivae and nail beds are pale. Petechiae are present over the distal lower extremities. The pelvic examination reveals a uterus consistent in size with a 12-week gestation. Examination of the neck, lungs, heart, and abdomen shows no abnormalities. The laboratory studies show the following:
Laboratory test
Hemoglobin 9.0 g/dL
Mean corpuscular volume 90 μm3
Leukocyte count 4,000/mm3
Segmented neutrophils 55%
Lymphocytes 40%
Platelet count 110,000/mm3
Serum
Thyroid-stimulating hormone 0.1 μU/mL
Thyroxine (T-4) 8 μg/dL
Lactate dehydrogenase 60 U/L
Total bilirubin 0.5 mg/dL
Iron 100 μg/dL
Ferritin 110 ng/mL
Total iron-binding capacity 250 μg/dL
Which of the following best explains these findings?
Q154
A 25-year-old man is brought to the emergency department by police for abnormal behavior in a mini-market. The patient was found passed out in the aisle, and police were unable to arouse him. The patient has a past medical history of alcohol abuse and is not currently taking any medications according to his medical records. His temperature is 99.5°F (37.5°C), blood pressure is 120/87 mmHg, pulse is 50/min, respirations are 5/min, and oxygen saturation is 93% on room air. On physical exam, the patient is minimally responsive. He responds to painful stimuli by retracting his limbs and groaning, but otherwise does not answer questions or obey commands. Which of the following is most likely to be found in this patient?
Q155
A researcher is studying receptors that respond to epinephrine in the body and discovers a particular subset that is expressed in presynaptic adrenergic nerve terminals. She discovers that upon activation, these receptors will lead to decreased sympathetic nervous system activity. She then studies the intracellular second messenger changes that occur when this receptor is activated. She records these changes and begins searching for analogous receptor pathways. Which of the following receptors would cause the most similar set of intracellular second messenger changes?
Q156
A 33-year-old man comes to the emergency department because of a dry mouth and blurred vision for the past 30 minutes. Prior to this, he was on a road trip and started to feel nauseous, dizzy, and fatigued, so his friend gave him a drug that had helped in the past. Physical examination shows dry mucous membranes and dilated pupils. The remainder of the examination shows no abnormalities. Administration of which of the following drugs is most likely to cause a similar adverse reaction in this patient?
Q157
A 50-year-old woman presents with acute onset fever and chills for the past hour. She mentions earlier in the day she felt blue, so she took some St. John’s wort because she was told by a friend that it helps with depression. Past medical history is significant for hypertension, diabetes mellitus, and depression managed medically with captopril, metformin, and fluoxetine. She has no history of allergies. Her pulse is 130/min, the respiratory rate is 18/min, the blood pressure is 176/92 mm Hg, and the temperature is 38.5°C (101.3°F). On physical examination, the patient is profusely diaphoretic and extremely irritable when asked questions. Oriented x 3. The abdomen is soft and nontender with no hepatosplenomegaly. Increased bowel sounds are heard in the abdomen. Deep tendon reflexes are 3+ bilaterally and clonus is elicited. The sensation is decreased in the feet bilaterally. Mydriasis is present. Fingerstick glucose is 140 mg/dL. An ECG shows sinus tachycardia but is otherwise normal. Which of the following is the most likely cause of this patient’s condition?
Q158
A 32-year-old woman presents with diplopia. She says that she has been experiencing drooping of her eyelids and severe muscle weakness. She reports that her symptoms are worse at the end of the day. Which of the following additional findings would most likely be seen in this patient?
Q159
A 42-year-old man is admitted to the hospital for pain and swelling in his right foot. His temperature is 39.7°C (103.5°F), pulse is 116/min, respirations are 23/min, and blood pressure is 69/39 mmHg. A drug is administered via a peripheral intravenous line that works primarily by increasing inositol trisphosphate concentrations in arteriolar smooth muscle cells. Eight hours later, the patient has pain at the right antecubital fossa. Examination shows the skin around the intravenous line site to be pale and cool to touch. After discontinuing the infusion, which of the following is the most appropriate pharmacotherapy to prevent further tissue injury in this patient?
Q160
A 22-year-old woman comes to the physician because of a 12-week history of persistent cough. The cough is nonproductive and worse at night. She otherwise feels well. She has not had any changes in appetite or exercise tolerance. For the past year, she has smoked an occasional cigarette at social occasions. Use of herbal cough medications has not provided any symptom relief. She has no history of serious illness but reports getting a runny nose every morning during winter. Her temperature is 37°C (98.6°F), pulse is 68/min, respirations are 12/min, and blood pressure is 110/76 mm Hg. Cardiopulmonary examination and an x-ray of the chest show no abnormalities. Her FEV1 is normal. Which of the following is the most appropriate next step in management?
Cholinergic/Adrenergic drugs US Medical PG Practice Questions and MCQs
Question 151: A 21-year-old man presents with eye redness, itching, and watering; nasal congestion, and rhinorrhea. He reports that these symptoms have been occurring every year in the late spring since he was 18 years old. The patient’s medical history is significant for endoscopic resection of a right maxillary sinus polyp at the age of 16. His father and younger sister have bronchial asthma. He takes oxymetazoline as needed to decrease nasal congestion. The patient’s blood pressure is 120/80 mm Hg, heart rate is 71/min, respiratory rate is 18/min, and temperature is 36.7°C (98.0°F). On physical examination, there is conjunctival injection and clear nasal discharge bilaterally. His lymph nodes are not enlarged and his sinuses do not cause pain upon palpation. Heart and lung sounds are normal. Which of the following is most likely to be a part of his condition’s pathogenesis?
A. Secretion of granzymes and perforin by cytotoxic T lymphocytes
B. Excessive release of histamine by the mast cells (Correct Answer)
C. Production of specific IgM antibodies by B lymphocytes
D. Release of reactive oxygen species by neutrophils
E. IL-2 secretion by Th1 lymphocytes
Explanation: ***Excessive release of histamine by the mast cells***
- This patient presents with symptoms highly suggestive of **allergic rhinitis** and **allergic conjunctivitis**, including seasonal conjunctival injection, itching, watering, nasal congestion, and rhinorrhea, which started in late spring. This is a classic presentation of a **Type I hypersensitivity reaction**, mediated by IgE antibodies primarily acting on **mast cells**.
- Upon re-exposure to the allergen (e.g., pollen in late spring), IgE antibodies cross-link on the surface of **mast cells**, leading to their **degranulation** and the release of preformed mediators, most notably **histamine**. Histamine causes the increased vascular permeability, vasodilation, itching, and mucous secretion characteristic of these allergic conditions.
*Secretion of granzymes and perforin by cytotoxic T lymphocytes*
- The secretion of granzymes and perforin by **cytotoxic T lymphocytes (CTLs)** is characteristic of **Type IV hypersensitivity reactions** (cell-mediated immunity) or direct viral killing, where CTLs target and destroy infected or abnormal cells.
- This mechanism is not directly involved in the acute allergic symptoms described, which are humorally mediated by IgE and mast cells.
*Production of specific IgM antibodies by B lymphocytes*
- While B lymphocytes produce antibodies, the primary antibody class involved in **Type I hypersensitivity** (allergic reactions) is **IgE**, not IgM.
- IgM antibodies are typically involved in the primary immune response and activate the complement system, which is characteristic of **Type II** and **Type III hypersensitivity reactions**, not allergic rhinitis.
*Release of reactive oxygen species by neutrophils*
- The release of **reactive oxygen species (ROS)** by **neutrophils** is a key mechanism of innate immunity, primarily involved in combating bacterial and fungal infections through phagocytosis and oxidative burst.
- This process is associated with inflammation and tissue damage in various conditions but is not the primary pathway for the acute allergic symptoms seen in this patient.
*IL-2 secretion by Th1 lymphocytes*
- **IL-2** secretion by **Th1 lymphocytes** is crucial for the proliferation and differentiation of T cells and is central to cell-mediated immune responses, including **Type IV hypersensitivity reactions**.
- **Allergic reactions (Type I hypersensitivity)** are predominantly driven by **Th2 lymphocytes** which secrete cytokines like IL-4, IL-5, and IL-13, promoting IgE production and eosinophil activation, not Th1-mediated responses.
Question 152: A 67-year-old man with type 2 diabetes mellitus and benign prostatic hyperplasia comes to the physician because of a 2-day history of sneezing and clear nasal discharge. He has had similar symptoms occasionally in the past. His current medications include metformin and tamsulosin. Examination of the nasal cavity shows red, swollen turbinates. Which of the following is the most appropriate pharmacotherapy for this patient's condition?
A. Nizatidine
B. Diphenhydramine
C. Amoxicillin
D. Theophylline
E. Desloratadine (Correct Answer)
Explanation: **Desloratadine**
* This patient presents with symptoms consistent with **allergic rhinitis** (sneezing, clear nasal discharge, red/swollen turbinates, recurrent episodes). Desloratadine is a **second-generation antihistamine** that effectively treats these symptoms with minimal sedative effects, making it suitable for an elderly patient.
* It is a **non-sedating** antihistamine, which is crucial for elderly patients due to their increased sensitivity to sedative effects and potential for falls or cognitive impairment with first-generation antihistamines.
*Nizatidine*
* **Nizatidine** is an **H2-receptor antagonist** primarily used to treat gastroesophageal reflux disease (GERD) and peptic ulcers, not allergic rhinitis.
* It specifically blocks histamine H2 receptors in the stomach to reduce acid secretion and would not alleviate nasal congestion or sneezing.
*Diphenhydramine*
* **Diphenhydramine** is a **first-generation antihistamine** that is commonly used for allergic symptoms. However, it causes significant **sedation and anticholinergic side effects** (e.g., urinary retention, dry mouth, blurred vision).
* Given the patient's age and **benign prostatic hyperplasia (BPH)**, diphenhydramine is contraindicated. Its **anticholinergic effects** can inhibit bladder detrusor muscle contraction, leading to **urinary retention**, which is particularly problematic in elderly men with BPH who already have obstructive urinary symptoms.
*Amoxicillin*
* **Amoxicillin** is an **antibiotic** used to treat bacterial infections. This patient's symptoms (clear nasal discharge, sneezing, similar past episodes) are characteristic of **allergic or viral rhinitis**, not a bacterial infection.
* Using antibiotics for non-bacterial conditions contributes to **antibiotic resistance** and provides no therapeutic benefit for allergic symptoms.
*Theophylline*
* **Theophylline** is a **bronchodilator** primarily used for chronic respiratory conditions like asthma and COPD. It is not indicated for the treatment of allergic rhinitis.
* It has a **narrow therapeutic index** and can cause significant side effects (e.g., nausea, arrhythmias, seizures), making it an inappropriate and potentially dangerous choice for allergic rhinitis.
Question 153: A 28-year-old gravida-2-para-1 at 12 weeks gestation presents for a prenatal visit. Over the past week, she has felt increasingly tired, even after waking up in the morning. She is vegan and avoids all animal products. She was diagnosed with Graves’ disease 6 months ago. Before conception, methimazole was switched to propylthiouracil (PTU). Other medications include folic acid and a multivitamin. The vital signs include: temperature 37.1℃ (98.8℉), pulse 72/min, respiratory rate 12/min, and blood pressure 110/75 mm Hg. The conjunctivae and nail beds are pale. Petechiae are present over the distal lower extremities. The pelvic examination reveals a uterus consistent in size with a 12-week gestation. Examination of the neck, lungs, heart, and abdomen shows no abnormalities. The laboratory studies show the following:
Laboratory test
Hemoglobin 9.0 g/dL
Mean corpuscular volume 90 μm3
Leukocyte count 4,000/mm3
Segmented neutrophils 55%
Lymphocytes 40%
Platelet count 110,000/mm3
Serum
Thyroid-stimulating hormone 0.1 μU/mL
Thyroxine (T-4) 8 μg/dL
Lactate dehydrogenase 60 U/L
Total bilirubin 0.5 mg/dL
Iron 100 μg/dL
Ferritin 110 ng/mL
Total iron-binding capacity 250 μg/dL
Which of the following best explains these findings?
A. Excess antithyroid medication
B. Drug-induced marrow failure (Correct Answer)
C. Vitamin B12 deficiency
D. Hemodilution of pregnancy
E. Autoimmune hemolysis
Explanation: **Drug-induced marrow failure**
- The patient's **pancytopenia** (low hemoglobin, leukocytes, and platelets) along with petechiae, in the context of **propylthiouracil (PTU)** use, strongly suggests drug-induced bone marrow suppression. PTU is known to cause agranulocytosis and, less commonly, aplastic anemia.
- The **normal thyroid hormone levels** (TSH 0.1 μU/mL, T4 8 μg/dL) indicate that her Graves' disease is adequately controlled, but the hematological changes are severe enough to point towards a drug-related adverse effect rather than thyroid dysfunction.
*Excess antithyroid medication*
- While excess antithyroid medication like PTU can lead to **hypothyroidism**, the patient's low TSH (though near normal during pregnancy due to hCG effects) and normal T4 indicate she is **not hypothyroid**.
- Hypothyroidism does not directly cause **pancytopenia** or petechiae, which are observed in this case.
*Vitamin B12 deficiency*
- **Vitamin B12 deficiency** typically causes **macrocytic anemia** (high MCV), and sometimes pancytopenia. However, this patient has a **normal MCV (90 μm3)**.
- Although the patient is vegan, she is taking a multivitamin and folic acid, and iron studies are normal, making B12 deficiency less likely given the MCV.
*Hemodilution of pregnancy*
- **Physiologic hemodilution** in pregnancy can cause a *mild drop* in hemoglobin and hematocrit and a *slight decrease* in platelet count but typically does not lead to **leukopenia** or significant thrombocytopenia with petechiae.
- The degree of *pancytopenia* observed here is beyond what would be expected from normal hemodilution.
*Autoimmune hemolysis*
- **Autoimmune hemolysis** would primarily cause **anemia** and potentially elevated bilirubin and LDH due to red blood cell destruction, but it does **not explain the leukopenia or thrombocytopenia** (pancytopenia).
- The patient's bilirubin and LDH are normal, making significant hemolysis unlikely.
Question 154: A 25-year-old man is brought to the emergency department by police for abnormal behavior in a mini-market. The patient was found passed out in the aisle, and police were unable to arouse him. The patient has a past medical history of alcohol abuse and is not currently taking any medications according to his medical records. His temperature is 99.5°F (37.5°C), blood pressure is 120/87 mmHg, pulse is 50/min, respirations are 5/min, and oxygen saturation is 93% on room air. On physical exam, the patient is minimally responsive. He responds to painful stimuli by retracting his limbs and groaning, but otherwise does not answer questions or obey commands. Which of the following is most likely to be found in this patient?
A. Visual hallucinations
B. Conjunctival hyperemia
C. Hyperactive bowel sounds
D. Mydriasis
E. Miosis (Correct Answer)
Explanation: ***Miosis***
- The patient's presentation with **respiratory depression**, **bradycardia**, **miosis** (pinpoint pupils), and **depressed mental status** is highly suggestive of **opioid overdose**.
- **Miosis** is a classic and nearly pathognomonic sign of opioid toxicity due to opioid-induced parasympathetic stimulation.
*Visual hallucinations*
- **Visual hallucinations** are more commonly associated with conditions like **alcohol withdrawal** (delirium tremens), stimulant intoxication, or certain psychiatric disorders.
- They are not a typical feature of acute opioid overdose, which primarily causes central nervous system depression.
*Conjunctival hyperemia*
- **Conjunctival hyperemia** (red eyes) is frequently observed with **cannabis intoxication** or certain inhalant exposures.
- This sign is not characteristic of an opioid overdose; rather, pupils are typically constricted.
*Hyperactive bowel sounds*
- **Hyperactive bowel sounds** can be seen in conditions causing increased gastrointestinal motility, such as **gastroenteritis** or early stages of bowel obstruction.
- Opioids typically cause **decreased gastrointestinal motility**, leading to **constipation** and often diminished or absent bowel sounds, not hyperactive ones.
*Mydriasis*
- **Mydriasis** (dilated pupils) is typically associated with sympathomimetic toxicity (e.g., **cocaine**, **amphetamine**), anticholinergic poisoning (e.g., **atropine**), or severe anoxia.
- In direct contrast, opioids cause **miosis**.
Question 155: A researcher is studying receptors that respond to epinephrine in the body and discovers a particular subset that is expressed in presynaptic adrenergic nerve terminals. She discovers that upon activation, these receptors will lead to decreased sympathetic nervous system activity. She then studies the intracellular second messenger changes that occur when this receptor is activated. She records these changes and begins searching for analogous receptor pathways. Which of the following receptors would cause the most similar set of intracellular second messenger changes?
A. Muscarinic cholinoreceptors in the gastrointestinal tract
B. Growth hormone receptors in the musculoskeletal system
C. Vasopressin receptors in the kidney
D. Dopamine receptors in the brain (Correct Answer)
E. Aldosterone receptors in the kidney
Explanation: ***Dopamine receptors in the brain***
- The described presynaptic receptors for epinephrine that decrease sympathetic activity are **alpha-2 adrenergic receptors**, which are **G inhibitory protein (Gi)-coupled receptors**.
- Gi-coupled receptors **inhibit adenylyl cyclase**, leading to a **decrease in intracellular cAMP**, a signaling pathway shared by **D2 dopamine receptors**.
*Muscarinic cholinoreceptors in the gastrointestinal tract*
- Most muscarinic receptors (M1 and M3) in the GI tract are **Gq-coupled**, leading to an **increase in phospholipase C (PLC) activity**, ultimately increasing intracellular **IP3 and DAG** and promoting smooth muscle contraction.
- This mechanism is distinct from the **Gi-mediated inhibition of cAMP** described for the presynaptic adrenergic receptor.
*Growth hormone receptors in the musculoskeletal system*
- Growth hormone receptors are **tyrosine kinase-associated receptors** (specifically, they are linked to **JAK/STAT pathways**), not G protein-coupled receptors.
- Their intracellular signaling involves **protein phosphorylation cascades**, which are fundamentally different from second messenger changes involving cAMP.
*Vasopressin receptors in the kidney*
- Vasopressin (ADH) acts on **V2 receptors** in the kidney, which are **G stimulatory protein (Gs)-coupled receptors**.
- Activation of V2 receptors leads to an **increase in adenylyl cyclase activity** and thus an **increase in intracellular cAMP**, the opposite effect of the described Gi-coupled receptor.
*Aldosterone receptors in the kidney*
- Aldosterone receptors are **intracellular steroid hormone receptors** that directly bind to DNA and regulate gene transcription.
- They do not engage in rapid intracellular second messenger changes like G protein-coupled receptors, but rather alter **protein synthesis** over hours to days.
Question 156: A 33-year-old man comes to the emergency department because of a dry mouth and blurred vision for the past 30 minutes. Prior to this, he was on a road trip and started to feel nauseous, dizzy, and fatigued, so his friend gave him a drug that had helped in the past. Physical examination shows dry mucous membranes and dilated pupils. The remainder of the examination shows no abnormalities. Administration of which of the following drugs is most likely to cause a similar adverse reaction in this patient?
A. Loratadine
B. Phenylephrine
C. Oxycodone
D. Oxybutynin (Correct Answer)
E. Pilocarpine
Explanation: ***Oxybutynin***
- Oxybutynin is an **anticholinergic** drug primarily used to treat overactive bladder.
- Its adverse effects, such as **dry mouth** (xerostomia), blurred vision (due to cycloplegia and mydriasis), nausea, dizziness, and fatigue, are directly related to its **muscarinic receptor blockade**.
*Loratadine*
- Loratadine is a **second-generation antihistamine** that is largely non-sedating and has minimal anticholinergic effects.
- While it can cause dry mouth in rare cases, it is much less likely to cause the constellation of severe anticholinergic symptoms seen here, especially **blurred vision due to mydriasis**.
*Phenylephrine*
- Phenylephrine is an **alpha-1 adrenergic agonist** used as a decongestant or to increase blood pressure.
- Its primary effects are vasoconstriction; it does not typically cause dry mouth, blurred vision, or the other anticholinergic symptoms described.
*Oxycodone*
- Oxycodone is an **opioid analgesic** that primarily acts on mu-opioid receptors.
- Common side effects include constipation, nausea, sedation, and respiratory depression, but not dry mouth or blurred vision as a prominent anticholinergic effect.
*Pilocarpine*
- Pilocarpine is a **muscarinic agonist** used to treat dry mouth or glaucoma.
- It would cause symptoms directly opposite to those observed, such as increased salivation and miosis, rather than dry mouth and dilated pupils.
Question 157: A 50-year-old woman presents with acute onset fever and chills for the past hour. She mentions earlier in the day she felt blue, so she took some St. John’s wort because she was told by a friend that it helps with depression. Past medical history is significant for hypertension, diabetes mellitus, and depression managed medically with captopril, metformin, and fluoxetine. She has no history of allergies. Her pulse is 130/min, the respiratory rate is 18/min, the blood pressure is 176/92 mm Hg, and the temperature is 38.5°C (101.3°F). On physical examination, the patient is profusely diaphoretic and extremely irritable when asked questions. Oriented x 3. The abdomen is soft and nontender with no hepatosplenomegaly. Increased bowel sounds are heard in the abdomen. Deep tendon reflexes are 3+ bilaterally and clonus is elicited. The sensation is decreased in the feet bilaterally. Mydriasis is present. Fingerstick glucose is 140 mg/dL. An ECG shows sinus tachycardia but is otherwise normal. Which of the following is the most likely cause of this patient’s condition?
A. Sepsis
B. Anaphylactic reaction
C. Diabetic ketoacidosis
D. Neuroleptic malignant syndrome
E. Serotonin syndrome (Correct Answer)
Explanation: ***Serotonin syndrome***
- The patient's presentation with **fever, diaphoresis, hypertension, tachycardia, hyperreflexia, clonus, mydriasis**, and **agitation** after combining an **SSRI (fluoxetine)** with **St. John's wort** (a serotonin-enhancing herbal supplement) is highly characteristic of serotonin syndrome.
- This condition results from excessive serotonergic activity in the central and peripheral nervous system.
*Sepsis*
- While **fever, chills, and tachycardia** can be indicators of sepsis, the presence of specific neurological and neuromuscular signs like **hyperreflexia, clonus, and mydriasis** points away from it.
- The patient's **irritable state and normal mental orientation** is less typical for severe sepsis, which often involves altered mental status.
*Anaphylactic reaction*
- **Anaphylaxis** presents with rapid onset of symptoms such as **urticaria, angioedema, bronchospasm, and hypotension**, which are not observed in this patient.
- There is no history of allergen exposure, and the prominent neurological symptoms are not typical of anaphylaxis.
*Diabetic ketoacidosis*
- **DKA** is characterized by **hyperglycemia, metabolic acidosis, and ketonemia**, often presenting with Kussmaul respirations and fruity breath odor.
- The patient's **fingerstick glucose (140 mg/dL)** is not significantly elevated, and there is no mention of deep, rapid breathing or other DKA-specific symptoms.
*Neuroleptic malignant syndrome*
- **NMS** is typically associated with exposure to **dopamine antagonists (antipsychotics)** and is characterized by **severe muscle rigidity, hyperthermia, altered mental status, and autonomic instability.**
- While some symptoms overlap, this patient's history of St. John's wort and fluoxetine points to increased serotonin, and the specific neuromuscular findings like clonus are more indicative of serotonin syndrome.
Question 158: A 32-year-old woman presents with diplopia. She says that she has been experiencing drooping of her eyelids and severe muscle weakness. She reports that her symptoms are worse at the end of the day. Which of the following additional findings would most likely be seen in this patient?
A. Increased acetylcholine receptor antibody (Correct Answer)
B. Albuminocytological dissociation in the cerebrospinal fluid
C. Increased calcium channel receptor antibodies
D. Increased serum creatine kinase levels
E. Increased antinuclear antibodies
Explanation: ***Increased acetylcholine receptor antibody***
- The patient's symptoms of **diplopia**, **ptosis** (drooping eyelids), and severe muscle weakness that worsens with activity (end of the day) are classic manifestations of **myasthenia gravis**.
- **Myasthenia gravis** is an autoimmune disorder characterized by the destruction of **acetylcholine receptors** at the neuromuscular junction, which is confirmed by the presence of **acetylcholine receptor antibodies**.
*Albuminocytological dissociation in the cerebrospinal fluid*
- This finding, characterized by **elevated CSF protein** with a normal white blood cell count, is a hallmark of **Guillain-Barré syndrome**.
- **Guillain-Barré syndrome** typically presents with ascending paralysis and areflexia, which is distinct from the fluctuating, fatigable weakness seen in this patient.
*Increased calcium channel receptor antibodies*
- The presence of **voltage-gated calcium channel (VGCC) antibodies** is characteristic of **Lambert-Eaton Myasthenic Syndrome (LEMS)**.
- While LEMS also causes muscle weakness, it often improves with activity and is frequently associated with **small cell lung cancer**, differentiating it from myasthenia gravis where weakness worsens with activity.
*Increased serum creatine kinase levels*
- Elevated **creatine kinase (CK)** levels are indicative of **muscle damage or inflammation**, as seen in conditions like **myositis** or **muscular dystrophies**.
- Myasthenia gravis is a disorder of neuromuscular transmission, not primary muscle damage, so CK levels are typically normal.
*Increased antinuclear antibodies*
- **Antinuclear antibodies (ANA)** are a common finding in **systemic autoimmune diseases** like **systemic lupus erythematosus (SLE)** or **Sjögren's syndrome**.
- While some autoimmune conditions can have overlapping features, the specific symptom complex presented (diplopia, ptosis, fatigable weakness) strongly points to myasthenia gravis rather than a systemic autoimmune connective tissue disease.
Question 159: A 42-year-old man is admitted to the hospital for pain and swelling in his right foot. His temperature is 39.7°C (103.5°F), pulse is 116/min, respirations are 23/min, and blood pressure is 69/39 mmHg. A drug is administered via a peripheral intravenous line that works primarily by increasing inositol trisphosphate concentrations in arteriolar smooth muscle cells. Eight hours later, the patient has pain at the right antecubital fossa. Examination shows the skin around the intravenous line site to be pale and cool to touch. After discontinuing the infusion, which of the following is the most appropriate pharmacotherapy to prevent further tissue injury in this patient?
A. Conivaptan
B. Tamsulosin
C. Heparin
D. Phentolamine (Correct Answer)
E. Procaine
Explanation: ***Phentolamine***
- The patient received a drug that increases **inositol trisphosphate** (IP3) concentrations in arteriolar smooth muscle cells, leading to **vasoconstriction**. This is characteristic of an **alpha-1 adrenergic agonist**, such as **norepinephrine** or **phenylephrine**, often used in septic shock to increase blood pressure.
- The symptoms of **pain, pallor, and coolness** at the IV site suggest **extravasation** with localized vasoconstriction and tissue ischemia. **Phentolamine** is an **alpha-adrenergic antagonist** that can reverse this vasoconstriction, reducing tissue damage.
*Conivaptan*
- **Conivaptan** is a **vasopressin (ADH) receptor antagonist**, primarily used to treat **hyponatremia** and sometimes heart failure.
- It works by blocking V1a and V2 receptors, leading to increased free water excretion and vasodilation, which is not the primary issue or desired reversal in this case of extravasation.
*Tamsulosin*
- **Tamsulosin** is a **selective alpha-1a adrenergic antagonist** primarily used to treat **benign prostatic hyperplasia (BPH)** by relaxing smooth muscle in the prostate and bladder neck.
- Its selectivity for alpha-1a receptors means it would be less effective in reversing the generalized vasoconstriction caused by extravasated alpha-adrenergic agonists compared to a non-selective alpha-antagonist like phentolamine.
*Heparin*
- **Heparin** is an **anticoagulant** that prevents clot formation and is used in conditions like deep vein thrombosis or pulmonary embolism.
- The patient's symptoms are due to **vasoconstriction and tissue ischemia**, not thrombosis, so an anticoagulant would not directly address the underlying mechanism of injury.
*Procaine*
- **Procaine** is a **local anesthetic** that blocks nerve impulse transmission, causing numbness.
- While it could temporarily relieve pain, it does not address the underlying **vasoconstriction and tissue ischemia** that is causing the tissue injury, and therefore would not prevent further damage.
Question 160: A 22-year-old woman comes to the physician because of a 12-week history of persistent cough. The cough is nonproductive and worse at night. She otherwise feels well. She has not had any changes in appetite or exercise tolerance. For the past year, she has smoked an occasional cigarette at social occasions. Use of herbal cough medications has not provided any symptom relief. She has no history of serious illness but reports getting a runny nose every morning during winter. Her temperature is 37°C (98.6°F), pulse is 68/min, respirations are 12/min, and blood pressure is 110/76 mm Hg. Cardiopulmonary examination and an x-ray of the chest show no abnormalities. Her FEV1 is normal. Which of the following is the most appropriate next step in management?
A. Oral amoxicillin-clavulanate
B. Oral acetylcysteine
C. Prednisone therapy
D. Oral diphenhydramine (Correct Answer)
E. Codeine syrup
Explanation: ***Oral diphenhydramine***
- The patient's symptoms, including a chronic, nonproductive cough that is worse at night and a history of seasonal **rhinitis** (**"runny nose every morning during winter"**), are highly suggestive of **upper airway cough syndrome (UACS)**, also known as post-nasal drip.
- **First-generation antihistamines** like diphenhydramine, often combined with a decongestant, are the initial treatment of choice for UACS due to their anticholinergic and antihistaminic effects that help dry up secretions and reduce inflammation.
*Oral amoxicillin-clavulanate*
- This is an **antibiotic** indicated for bacterial infections. The patient's normal vital signs, clear chest x-ray, nonproductive cough, and absence of fever or purulent sputum make a bacterial infection highly unlikely.
- Using antibiotics unnecessarily contributes to **antibiotic resistance** and does not address non-bacterial causes of cough.
*Oral acetylcysteine*
- **Acetylcysteine** is a mucolytic agent used to thin respiratory secretions in conditions like cystic fibrosis or chronic bronchitis.
- The patient's cough is described as **nonproductive**, indicating a lack of significant mucus, making acetylcysteine an inappropriate treatment.
*Prednisone therapy*
- **Prednisone** is a corticosteroid used for inflammatory conditions like asthma or severe allergic reactions.
- While asthma can cause chronic cough, the patient's normal FEV1 and absence of wheezing or dyspnea make asthma less likely, and starting oral corticosteroids empirically without a clear diagnosis is generally not recommended.
*Codeine syrup*
- **Codeine** is an opioid cough suppressant, typically reserved for severe, debilitating coughs when other treatments have failed and the underlying cause is addressed.
- It has potential side effects including sedation and constipation, and its use is not appropriate as a first-line treatment for what appears to be UACS, which has a specific and effective non-opioid treatment.