A 63-year-old man with non-Hodgkin lymphoma is brought to the emergency department because of fever and confusion that have progressively worsened over the past 3 days. He also has a 3-day history of loose stools. He returned from France 2 weeks ago where he stayed in the countryside and ate typical French cuisine, including frog, snail, and various homemade cheeses. His last chemotherapy cycle was 3 weeks ago. He is oriented to person but not to place or time. His temperature is 39.5°C (103.1°F), pulse is 110/min, and blood pressure is 100/60 mm Hg. Examination shows cervical and axillary lymphadenopathy. The lungs are clear to auscultation. There is involuntary flexion of the bilateral hips and knees with passive flexion of the neck. Neurologic examination shows no focal findings. Laboratory studies show:
Hemoglobin 9.3 g/dL
Leukocyte count 3600/mm3
Platelet count 151,000/mm3
Serum
Na+ 134 mEq/L
Cl- 103 mEq/L
K+ 3.7 mEq/L
Glucose 102 mg/dL
Creatinine 1.3 mg/dL
A lumbar puncture is performed. Cerebrospinal fluid analysis shows a leukocyte count of 1200/mm3 (76% segmented neutrophils, 24% lymphocytes), a protein concentration of 113 mg/dL, and a glucose concentration of 21 mg/dL. The results of blood cultures are pending. Which of the following is the most appropriate initial pharmacotherapy?
Q72
A 60-year-old woman presents to the physician with a 2-day history of fever and painful swelling of the left knee. She was diagnosed with rheumatoid arthritis about 15 years ago and has a 7-year history of diabetes mellitus. Over the past year, she has been admitted to the hospital twice for acute, painful swelling of the knees and hands. She is on insulin therapy and takes methotrexate, metformin, aspirin, and prednisolone 5 mg/day. Her temperature is 38.5°C (101.3°F), pulse is 86/min, respirations are 14/min, and blood pressure is 125/70 mm Hg. A finger-stick glucose test shows 230 mg/dL. Her left knee is diffusely swollen, warm, and painful on both active and passive motion. There is evidence of deformity in several small joints of the hands and feet without any acute swelling or pain. Physical examination of the lungs, abdomen, and perineum shows no abnormalities. The synovial fluid analysis shows the following:
Color turbid, purulent, gray
Viscosity reduced
WBC 25,000/µL–250,000/µL
Neutrophils > 90%
Crystals may be present (presence indicates coexistence, but does not rule out infection)
Which of the following is the most appropriate initial pharmacotherapy in this patient?
Q73
A 28-year-old man presents to the Emergency Department after a window he was installing fell on him. The patient complains of left ocular pain, blurred vision, and obscured lower portion of the left visual field. The patient’s vital signs are as follows: blood pressure 140/80 mm Hg, heart rate 88/min, respiratory rate 14/min, and temperature 36.9℃ (98.4℉). On physical examination, he has multiple superficial lacerations on his face, arms, and legs. Examination of his right eye shows a superficial upper eyelid laceration. Examination of the left eye shows conjunctival hyperemia, peaked pupil, iridial asymmetry, hyphema, and vitreous hemorrhage. The fundus is hard to visualize due to the vitreous hemorrhage. The visual acuity is 20/25 in the right eye and difficult to evaluate in the left. Which of the following is a proper step to undertake in the diagnosis and management of this patient?
Q74
An 18-year old college freshman presents to his university clinic because he has not been feeling well for the past two weeks. He has had a persistent headache, occasional cough, and chills without rigors. The patient’s vital signs are normal and physical exam is unremarkable. His radiograph shows patchy interstitial lung infiltrates and he is diagnosed with atypical pneumonia. The patient is prescribed azithromycin and takes his medication as instructed. Despite adherence to his drug regimen, he returns to the clinic one week later because his symptoms have not improved. The organism responsible for this infection is likely resistant to azithromycin through which mechanism?
Q75
A 17-year-old girl comes to the physician because of a 2-day history of pain in her right knee. Last week she had right wrist pain. She has no history of recent trauma. She returned from summer camp in Connecticut 2 weeks ago. She is sexually active with one male partner and uses an oral contraceptive. Her temperature is 38°C (100.4°F). Examination shows several painless vesiculopustular lesions on the back and one lesion on the right sole of the foot. There is swelling of the right knee with tenderness to palpation. Passive extension of the right wrist and fingers elicits pain. Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?
Q76
A 22-year-old female is brought to the emergency department by her roommate with a one day history of fever and malaise. She did not feel well after class the previous night and has been in her room since then. She has not been eating or drinking due to severe nausea. Her roommate checked on her one hour ago and was alarmed to find a fever of 102°F (38.9°C). On physical exam temperature is 103°F (40°C), blood pressure is 110/66 mmHg, pulse is 110/min, respirations are 23/min, and pulse oximetry is 98% on room air. She refuses to move her neck and has a rash on her trunk. You perform a lumbar puncture and the CSF analysis is shown below.
Appearance: Cloudy
Opening pressure: 180 mm H2O
WBC count: 150 cells/µL (93% PMN)
Glucose level: < 40 mg/dL
Protein level: 50 mg/dL
Gram stain: gram-negative diplococci
Based on this patient's clinical presentation, which of the following should most likely be administered?
Q77
A 12-year-old girl is brought to the physician by her mother because of high fever and left ankle and knee joint swelling. She had a sore throat 3 weeks ago. There is no family history of serious illness. Her immunizations are up-to-date. She had an episode of breathlessness and generalized rash when she received dicloxacillin for a skin infection 2 years ago. She appears ill. Her temperature is 38.8°C (102.3°F), pulse is 87/min, and blood pressure is 98/62 mm Hg. Examination shows left ankle and knee joint swelling and tenderness; range of motion is limited. Breath sounds over both lungs are normal. A grade 3/6 holosytolic murmur is heard best at the apex. Abdominal examination is normal. Which of the following is the most appropriate pharmacotherapy?
Q78
A 26-year-old male with no significant past medical history goes camping with several friends in Virginia. Several days after returning, he begins to experience fevers, headaches, myalgias, and malaise. He also notices a rash on his wrists and ankles (Figure A). Which of following should be initiated for treatment of his condition?
Q79
A 60-year-old diabetic male presents to your clinic for right ear pain. The patient reports noting worsening right ear pain for three weeks, purulent otorrhea initially which has resolved, and facial asymmetry for the past several days. He reports being poorly compliant with his diabetes medication regimen. His temperature is 100.4 deg F (38 deg C), blood pressure is 140/90 mmHg, pulse is 90/min, and respirations are 18/min. On physical exam, the patient’s right external auditory canal is noted to have granulation tissue at the bony cartilaginous junction. He is also noted to have right facial droop. Which of the following is the best next step in treatment?
Q80
Ten days after being discharged from the hospital, a 42-year-old man comes to the emergency department because of reduced urine output for 3 days. Physical examination is normal. Serum creatinine concentration is 2.9 mg/dL. Urinalysis shows brownish granular casts and 2+ proteinuria. Renal biopsy shows patchy necrosis of the proximal convoluted tubule with sloughing of tubular cells into the lumen and preservation of tubular basement membranes. Administration of which of the following drugs during this patient's hospitalization is most likely the cause of the observed decrease in renal function?
Antibiotics US Medical PG Practice Questions and MCQs
Question 71: A 63-year-old man with non-Hodgkin lymphoma is brought to the emergency department because of fever and confusion that have progressively worsened over the past 3 days. He also has a 3-day history of loose stools. He returned from France 2 weeks ago where he stayed in the countryside and ate typical French cuisine, including frog, snail, and various homemade cheeses. His last chemotherapy cycle was 3 weeks ago. He is oriented to person but not to place or time. His temperature is 39.5°C (103.1°F), pulse is 110/min, and blood pressure is 100/60 mm Hg. Examination shows cervical and axillary lymphadenopathy. The lungs are clear to auscultation. There is involuntary flexion of the bilateral hips and knees with passive flexion of the neck. Neurologic examination shows no focal findings. Laboratory studies show:
Hemoglobin 9.3 g/dL
Leukocyte count 3600/mm3
Platelet count 151,000/mm3
Serum
Na+ 134 mEq/L
Cl- 103 mEq/L
K+ 3.7 mEq/L
Glucose 102 mg/dL
Creatinine 1.3 mg/dL
A lumbar puncture is performed. Cerebrospinal fluid analysis shows a leukocyte count of 1200/mm3 (76% segmented neutrophils, 24% lymphocytes), a protein concentration of 113 mg/dL, and a glucose concentration of 21 mg/dL. The results of blood cultures are pending. Which of the following is the most appropriate initial pharmacotherapy?
A. Acyclovir and dexamethasone
B. Vancomycin, ampicillin, and cefepime (Correct Answer)
C. Ampicillin, gentamicin, and dexamethasone
D. Ampicillin and cefotaxime
E. Acyclovir
Explanation: **Vancomycin, ampicillin, and cefepime**
- The patient has bacterial meningitis with features suggesting **immunosuppression** (non-Hodgkin lymphoma, recent chemotherapy, leukopenia), placing him at risk for a broad spectrum of pathogens including *Listeria*, gram-negative rods, *S. pneumoniae*, and *N. meningitidis*.
- This combination provides broad-spectrum coverage: **vancomycin** for resistant *S. pneumoniae* and methicillin-resistant *Staphylococcus aureus* (MRSA), **ampicillin** for *Listeria monocytogenes*, and **cefepime** for gram-negative bacteria, including those common in immunocompromised hosts.
*Acyclovir and dexamethasone*
- **Acyclovir** is used for **viral meningitis/encephalitis**, which is less likely given the CSF profile (high neutrophils, low glucose, high protein) strongly indicative of bacterial infection.
- **Dexamethasone** may be considered as an adjunct in some cases of bacterial meningitis (e.g., *S. pneumoniae*), but should be given with antibiotics, and its use alone or with acyclovir is inappropriate for suspected bacterial meningitis.
*Ampicillin, gentamicin, and dexamethasone*
- While **ampicillin** covers *Listeria* and **dexamethasone** can be an adjunct, **gentamicin** is generally not a first-line agent for meningitis due to poor CSF penetration and potential for nephrotoxicity/ototoxicity, and it does not adequately cover *S. pneumoniae* or gram-negative bacilli as well as a third or fourth-generation cephalosporin.
- This combination lacks robust coverage against **resistant *S. pneumoniae*** and broad gram-negative bacteria, which are crucial in an immunocompromised patient.
*Ampicillin and cefotaxime*
- This combination covers common pathogens like *S. pneumoniae*, *N. meningitidis*, and *Listeria*. However, given the patient's **immunosuppression** and risk factors (recent travel, potential foodborne exposure), it might lack sufficient coverage for **resistant *S. pneumoniae*** (addressed by vancomycin) and **extended-spectrum gram-negative rods** (better covered by cefepime).
- The patient's risk profile warrants broader initial empiric coverage until sensitivities are known.
*Acyclovir*
- **Acyclovir** specifically targets **herpes simplex virus (HSV)**, which causes viral encephalitis/meningitis.
- The patient's CSF findings (marked pleocytosis with high neutrophils, very low glucose, and high protein) are highly suggestive of **bacterial meningitis**, not viral.
Question 72: A 60-year-old woman presents to the physician with a 2-day history of fever and painful swelling of the left knee. She was diagnosed with rheumatoid arthritis about 15 years ago and has a 7-year history of diabetes mellitus. Over the past year, she has been admitted to the hospital twice for acute, painful swelling of the knees and hands. She is on insulin therapy and takes methotrexate, metformin, aspirin, and prednisolone 5 mg/day. Her temperature is 38.5°C (101.3°F), pulse is 86/min, respirations are 14/min, and blood pressure is 125/70 mm Hg. A finger-stick glucose test shows 230 mg/dL. Her left knee is diffusely swollen, warm, and painful on both active and passive motion. There is evidence of deformity in several small joints of the hands and feet without any acute swelling or pain. Physical examination of the lungs, abdomen, and perineum shows no abnormalities. The synovial fluid analysis shows the following:
Color turbid, purulent, gray
Viscosity reduced
WBC 25,000/µL–250,000/µL
Neutrophils > 90%
Crystals may be present (presence indicates coexistence, but does not rule out infection)
Which of the following is the most appropriate initial pharmacotherapy in this patient?
A. Intra-articular triamcinolone acetonide
B. Intravenous methylprednisolone
C. Intra-articular ceftriaxone
D. Oral ciprofloxacin
E. Intravenous vancomycin (Correct Answer)
Explanation: ***Intravenous vancomycin***
- The patient's presentation with **fever**, a **swollen, warm, and painful knee**, and **turbid, purulent synovial fluid** with a high white blood cell count (25,000–250,000/µL) and >90% neutrophils is highly suggestive of **septic arthritis**.
- Given her history of **rheumatoid arthritis** (which can predispose to joint infections) and **diabetes mellitus** (increasing infection risk), empirical intravenous antibiotics covering **gram-positive organisms** like *Staphylococcus aureus* (a common cause of septic arthritis) are crucial. **Vancomycin** is an appropriate choice for initial broad-spectrum coverage, especially if **MRSA** is a concern.
*Intra-articular triamcinolone acetonide*
- This is an **anti-inflammatory corticosteroid** used to manage chronic joint inflammation in conditions like rheumatoid arthritis or osteoarthritis.
- It is **contraindicated** in suspected or confirmed septic arthritis because it can suppress the local immune response and potentially worsen the infection.
*Intravenous methylprednisolone*
- This is a **systemic corticosteroid** used for acute inflammatory conditions, including flares of rheumatoid arthritis.
- While it has anti-inflammatory effects, it does **not treat infection** and can globally **immunosuppress** the patient, making the existing septic arthritis potentially more severe.
*Intra-articular ceftriaxone*
- **Ceftriaxone is an antibiotic**, but administering it directly into the joint (**intra-articular**) is **not the standard or recommended route** for treating septic arthritis.
- Systemic intravenous administration is necessary to achieve adequate antibiotic concentrations throughout the joint and combat potential bacteremia.
*Oral ciprofloxacin*
- **Ciprofloxacin is an antibiotic**, but **oral administration** may not achieve sufficient drug levels in the joint quickly enough for acute septic arthritis, especially in a patient with a severe presentation.
- While it covers some gram-negative organisms, initial empirical therapy for septic arthritis often prioritizes coverage for gram-positive bacteria like *Staphylococcus aureus* before culture results are available.
Question 73: A 28-year-old man presents to the Emergency Department after a window he was installing fell on him. The patient complains of left ocular pain, blurred vision, and obscured lower portion of the left visual field. The patient’s vital signs are as follows: blood pressure 140/80 mm Hg, heart rate 88/min, respiratory rate 14/min, and temperature 36.9℃ (98.4℉). On physical examination, he has multiple superficial lacerations on his face, arms, and legs. Examination of his right eye shows a superficial upper eyelid laceration. Examination of the left eye shows conjunctival hyperemia, peaked pupil, iridial asymmetry, hyphema, and vitreous hemorrhage. The fundus is hard to visualize due to the vitreous hemorrhage. The visual acuity is 20/25 in the right eye and difficult to evaluate in the left. Which of the following is a proper step to undertake in the diagnosis and management of this patient?
A. Examination of the left eye with fluorescein
B. Systemic administration of vancomycin and levofloxacin
C. Examination of the fundus with a tropicamide application
D. Placing an ocular pad onto the affected eye
E. Ultrasound examination of the left eye (Correct Answer)
Explanation: ***Ultrasound examination of the left eye***
- The patient presents with classic signs of an **open globe injury**, including hyphema, peaked pupil, iridial asymmetry, and vitreous hemorrhage, making direct funduscopic examination difficult.
- An ultrasound can effectively detect **intraocular foreign bodies**, retinal detachment, or other posterior segment injuries in the setting of opaque media without placing pressure on the globe.
*Examination of the left eye with fluorescein*
- Fluorescein examination is used to detect **corneal abrasions** or **ulcers** and assess for a Seidel sign, which indicates leakage of aqueous humor from an open globe.
- However, applying fluorescein and manipulating an eye with a suspected open globe injury can **increase intraocular pressure** and worsen prolapse of intraocular contents.
*Systemic administration of vancomycin and levofloxacin*
- While prophylaxis against **endophthalmitis** is crucial in open globe injuries, this patient has not undergone surgical repair yet, and the immediate concern is diagnosis to guide definitive treatment.
- The choice of antibiotics and timing is usually after initial assessment and typically includes an **intravenous broad-spectrum antibiotic** to cover common ocular pathogens.
*Examination of the fundus with a tropicamide application*
- Tropicamide is a **mydriatic agent** used to dilate the pupil for funduscopic examination; however, it can worsen an open globe injury by potentially increasing herniation of intraocular contents through the wound.
- Given the severe vitreous hemorrhage and suspicion of an open globe, forcing pupil dilation and direct fundoscopy is inappropriate and **contraindicated**.
*Placing an ocular pad onto the affected eye*
- An ocular pad might apply pressure to the eye, which is **contraindicated** in a suspected open globe injury, as it can cause extrusion of intraocular contents.
- The appropriate management for an open globe injury is to **protect the eye with a rigid shield** (not a pad) and avoid any pressure until surgical repair.
Question 74: An 18-year old college freshman presents to his university clinic because he has not been feeling well for the past two weeks. He has had a persistent headache, occasional cough, and chills without rigors. The patient’s vital signs are normal and physical exam is unremarkable. His radiograph shows patchy interstitial lung infiltrates and he is diagnosed with atypical pneumonia. The patient is prescribed azithromycin and takes his medication as instructed. Despite adherence to his drug regimen, he returns to the clinic one week later because his symptoms have not improved. The organism responsible for this infection is likely resistant to azithromycin through which mechanism?
A. Mutation in topoisomerase II
B. Methylation of ribosomal binding site
C. Presence of a beta-lactamase
D. Decreased binding to RNA polymerase
E. Insertion of drug efflux pumps (Correct Answer)
Explanation: ***Insertion of drug efflux pumps***
- **Azithromycin** is a macrolide antibiotic that inhibits bacterial protein synthesis by binding to the **50S ribosomal subunit**.
- In **Mycoplasma pneumoniae** (the most common cause of atypical pneumonia in young adults), the **most common** mechanism of macrolide resistance is through **efflux pumps**, particularly the **mef genes**.
- These efflux pumps actively transport macrolides out of the bacterial cell, reducing intracellular drug concentration and conferring resistance.
- This mechanism is responsible for the majority of macrolide-resistant *M. pneumoniae* isolates worldwide.
*Methylation of ribosomal binding site*
- **Methylation** of the ribosomal binding site (specifically the **23S rRNA** via erm genes) does prevent azithromycin from binding effectively.
- While this is a valid macrolide resistance mechanism seen in organisms like *Streptococcus pneumoniae* and *Streptococcus pyogenes*, it is **less common** in *Mycoplasma pneumoniae*.
- Efflux pumps (mef) are the predominant mechanism in *M. pneumoniae* resistant strains.
*Mutation in topoisomerase II*
- **Topoisomerase II** (DNA gyrase) is the target of **fluoroquinolone antibiotics**, not macrolides.
- Mutations in this enzyme lead to resistance against fluoroquinolones, such as **ciprofloxacin**.
*Presence of a beta-lactamase*
- **Beta-lactamase enzymes** inactivate **beta-lactam antibiotics** (e.g., penicillin, cephalosporins) by hydrolyzing their beta-lactam ring.
- Additionally, *Mycoplasma pneumoniae* **lacks a cell wall**, making it inherently resistant to all beta-lactam antibiotics regardless of beta-lactamase production.
*Decreased binding to RNA polymerase*
- **RNA polymerase** is the target for antibiotics like **rifampin**, which inhibits bacterial transcription.
- Decreased binding to RNA polymerase would lead to rifampin resistance, not azithromycin resistance.
Question 75: A 17-year-old girl comes to the physician because of a 2-day history of pain in her right knee. Last week she had right wrist pain. She has no history of recent trauma. She returned from summer camp in Connecticut 2 weeks ago. She is sexually active with one male partner and uses an oral contraceptive. Her temperature is 38°C (100.4°F). Examination shows several painless vesiculopustular lesions on the back and one lesion on the right sole of the foot. There is swelling of the right knee with tenderness to palpation. Passive extension of the right wrist and fingers elicits pain. Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?
A. Acute rheumatic fever
B. Staphylococcus aureus arthritis
C. Reactive arthritis
D. Systemic lupus erythematosus
E. Disseminated gonococcal infection (Correct Answer)
Explanation: ***Disseminated gonococcal infection***
- The presentation of **migratory polyarthralgia** (wrist and knee pain), **tenosynovitis** (pain with passive finger extension), **fever**, and characteristic **vesiculopustular skin lesions** in a sexually active young woman strongly suggests disseminated gonococcal infection (DGI).
- **Sexually active history** and the specific skin lesions (few, scattered on trunk/extremities, often painless) are key features that differentiate DGI from other arthritic conditions.
*Acute rheumatic fever*
- Typically presents with **migratory polyarthritis** following a **Streptococcus pyogenes** infection, often pharyngitis.
- It lacks the characteristic **vesiculopustular skin lesions** and tenosynovitis seen in this case.
*Staphylococcus aureus arthritis*
- Usually presents as **monoarticular septic arthritis** with severe pain, swelling, and fever, often without migratory polyarthralgia or the specific skin lesions.
- **Tenosynovitis** and **painless vesiculopustular lesions** are not typical features.
*Reactive arthritis*
- Characterized by a triad of **arthritis**, **urethritis/cervicitis**, and **conjunctivitis** (can't see, can't pee, can't climb a tree) following a genitourinary or gastrointestinal infection.
- While it can cause polyarthritis, it does not typically present with the specific **vesiculopustular skin lesions** or tenosynovitis seen here.
*Systemic lupus erythematosus*
- Can cause **arthralgia** or **arthritis**, but usually presents with a broader range of systemic symptoms like **malar rash, photosensitivity, serositis, renal involvement**, and does not typically involve vesiculopustular skin lesions or acute tenosynovitis as a primary presentation.
- The **acute onset** with specific skin and joint findings is less suggestive of SLE.
Question 76: A 22-year-old female is brought to the emergency department by her roommate with a one day history of fever and malaise. She did not feel well after class the previous night and has been in her room since then. She has not been eating or drinking due to severe nausea. Her roommate checked on her one hour ago and was alarmed to find a fever of 102°F (38.9°C). On physical exam temperature is 103°F (40°C), blood pressure is 110/66 mmHg, pulse is 110/min, respirations are 23/min, and pulse oximetry is 98% on room air. She refuses to move her neck and has a rash on her trunk. You perform a lumbar puncture and the CSF analysis is shown below.
Appearance: Cloudy
Opening pressure: 180 mm H2O
WBC count: 150 cells/µL (93% PMN)
Glucose level: < 40 mg/dL
Protein level: 50 mg/dL
Gram stain: gram-negative diplococci
Based on this patient's clinical presentation, which of the following should most likely be administered?
A. Ceftriaxone (Correct Answer)
B. Dexamethasone
C. Rifampin
D. Acyclovir
E. Erythromycin
Explanation: ***Ceftriaxone***
- The patient presents with classic signs of **bacterial meningitis** (fever, neck stiffness, rash, altered mental status) and CSF analysis confirms, showing **cloudy appearance**, **elevated opening pressure**, **high WBC count with PMN predominance**, **low glucose**, and **gram-negative diplococci** on Gram stain, typical for *Neisseria meningitidis*.
- **Ceftriaxone** is a third-generation cephalosporin, a first-line antibiotic for treating bacterial meningitis, particularly effective against *Neisseria meningitidis*.
*Dexamethasone*
- While **dexamethasone** can be used as an adjunct in bacterial meningitis, particularly when caused by *Streptococcus pneumoniae*, it's administered *before or with* the first dose of antibiotics to mitigate inflammation.
- It is not the primary treatment to *eradicate* the infection and is less critical than immediate antibiotic therapy.
*Rifampin*
- **Rifampin** is primarily used for chemoprophylaxis in close contacts of individuals with meningococcal meningitis, or as part of a multi-drug regimen for tuberculosis.
- It is not the recommended first-line monotherapy for acute bacterial meningitis.
*Acyclovir*
- **Acyclovir** is an antiviral medication used to treat herpes simplex virus (HSV) meningitis or encephalitis.
- The CSF analysis showing **gram-negative diplococci** clearly indicates a bacterial etiology, not viral, making acyclovir inappropriate.
*Erythromycin*
- **Erythromycin** is a macrolide antibiotic with a narrower spectrum of activity and is not typically used as first-line treatment for bacterial meningitis, especially not for *Neisseria meningitidis*.
- Its use is often limited by resistance and side effects compared to third-generation cephalosporins.
Question 77: A 12-year-old girl is brought to the physician by her mother because of high fever and left ankle and knee joint swelling. She had a sore throat 3 weeks ago. There is no family history of serious illness. Her immunizations are up-to-date. She had an episode of breathlessness and generalized rash when she received dicloxacillin for a skin infection 2 years ago. She appears ill. Her temperature is 38.8°C (102.3°F), pulse is 87/min, and blood pressure is 98/62 mm Hg. Examination shows left ankle and knee joint swelling and tenderness; range of motion is limited. Breath sounds over both lungs are normal. A grade 3/6 holosytolic murmur is heard best at the apex. Abdominal examination is normal. Which of the following is the most appropriate pharmacotherapy?
A. Amoxicillin
B. Ciprofloxacin
C. Clarithromycin (Correct Answer)
D. Methotrexate
E. High-dose glucocorticoids
Explanation: ***Clarithromycin***
- This patient presents with **acute rheumatic fever (ARF)** following pharyngitis, evidenced by polyarthritis (ankle and knee swelling) and carditis (holosystolic murmur at the apex indicating mitral regurgitation).
- The cornerstone of ARF treatment is **eradication of Streptococcus pyogenes** to prevent ongoing immune response and recurrent episodes.
- This patient has a **documented penicillin allergy** (previous reaction to dicloxacillin with breathlessness and rash), making penicillin-based antibiotics contraindicated.
- **Macrolides** (clarithromycin, azithromycin, erythromycin) are the **first-line alternative** for streptococcal eradication in penicillin-allergic patients.
- Anti-inflammatory therapy (aspirin for arthritis/mild carditis, or corticosteroids for severe carditis with heart failure) would also be initiated, but antibiotic therapy is the essential pharmacotherapy.
*Amoxicillin*
- Amoxicillin is a **beta-lactam antibiotic** and would typically be first-line for streptococcal eradication in ARF.
- However, this patient has a **documented penicillin allergy** (reaction to dicloxacillin), making amoxicillin **contraindicated** due to high cross-reactivity between penicillin derivatives.
- Using amoxicillin could precipitate anaphylaxis or severe allergic reaction.
*Ciprofloxacin*
- Ciprofloxacin is a **fluoroquinolone antibiotic** with poor activity against **Streptococcus pyogenes**, the causative organism of ARF.
- Fluoroquinolones are not indicated for streptococcal pharyngitis or ARF treatment.
- Use in children should be avoided when effective alternatives exist due to potential musculoskeletal side effects.
*Methotrexate*
- Methotrexate is a **disease-modifying antirheumatic drug (DMARD)** used for chronic inflammatory conditions like rheumatoid arthritis.
- It has **no role in acute rheumatic fever** management.
- Its slow onset of action and mechanism make it completely inappropriate for ARF.
*High-dose glucocorticoids*
- Glucocorticoids are reserved for **severe carditis with congestive heart failure** in ARF.
- This patient has carditis (murmur) but shows **no signs of heart failure** (normal breath sounds, no respiratory distress, stable vital signs).
- For arthritis and mild-moderate carditis, **aspirin or other NSAIDs** are preferred anti-inflammatory agents.
- Corticosteroids do NOT replace antibiotic therapy, which is the primary treatment to eradicate the streptococcal infection.
Question 78: A 26-year-old male with no significant past medical history goes camping with several friends in Virginia. Several days after returning, he begins to experience fevers, headaches, myalgias, and malaise. He also notices a rash on his wrists and ankles (Figure A). Which of following should be initiated for treatment of his condition?
A. Azithromycin
B. Doxycycline (Correct Answer)
C. Pyrazinamide
D. Vancomycin
E. Praziquantel
Explanation: ***Doxycycline***
- The patient's symptoms (fever, headache, myalgias, rash on wrists and ankles after camping in Virginia) are highly suggestive of **Rocky Mountain spotted fever (RMSF)**, a tick-borne illness.
- **Doxycycline** is the first-line and most effective treatment for RMSF, regardless of age or rash presentation.
*Azithromycin*
- While effective for some bacterial infections, **azithromycin** is not the recommended treatment for RMSF and has shown poor efficacy against *Rickettsia rickettsii*.
- It is typically used for atypical pneumonia, chlamydial infections, and certain strep infections.
*Pyrazinamide*
- **Pyrazinamide** is an antitubercular drug used in combination therapy for **tuberculosis**.
- It has no role in the treatment of tick-borne rickettsial infections like RMSF.
*Vancomycin*
- **Vancomycin** is a glycopeptide antibiotic primarily used for serious **Gram-positive bacterial infections**, especially those resistant to other antibiotics (e.g., MRSA, *C. difficile*).
- It is not effective against rickettsial organisms.
*Praziquantel*
- **Praziquantel** is an anthelmintic medication used to treat **parasitic worm infections**, such as schistosomiasis and tapeworm infections.
- It has no activity against bacterial infections like RMSF.
Question 79: A 60-year-old diabetic male presents to your clinic for right ear pain. The patient reports noting worsening right ear pain for three weeks, purulent otorrhea initially which has resolved, and facial asymmetry for the past several days. He reports being poorly compliant with his diabetes medication regimen. His temperature is 100.4 deg F (38 deg C), blood pressure is 140/90 mmHg, pulse is 90/min, and respirations are 18/min. On physical exam, the patient’s right external auditory canal is noted to have granulation tissue at the bony cartilaginous junction. He is also noted to have right facial droop. Which of the following is the best next step in treatment?
A. Topical polymyxin and neosporin for 14 days
B. Surgical intervention
C. Hyperbaric oxygen treatment for 4 weeks
D. Intravenous ciprofloxacin for 6 weeks (Correct Answer)
E. Oral amoxicillin-clavulanic acid for 10 days
Explanation: ***Intravenous ciprofloxacin for 6 weeks***
- This patient presents with symptoms highly suggestive of **malignant otitis externa (MOE)**: diabetic, ear pain, granulation tissue in the external auditory canal, and facial nerve palsy.
- **Ciprofloxacin** is a first-line treatment for MOE, targeting **Pseudomonas aeruginosa**, the most common causative organism, and typically requires prolonged intravenous therapy.
*Topical polymyxin and neosporin for 14 days*
- Topical antibiotics alone are insufficient for treating MOE, which is an invasive infection extending beyond the external auditory canal.
- These agents do not penetrate deep tissues and will not address the underlying osteomyelitis or cranial nerve involvement.
*Surgical intervention*
- Surgical debridement is generally reserved for cases of **extensive necrosis** or **failure of aggressive medical therapy** in MOE.
- Initial management always involves medical therapy with appropriate antibiotics.
*Hyperbaric oxygen treatment for 4 weeks*
- **Hyperbaric oxygen therapy** is considered an **adjunctive treatment** in refractory cases of MOE, not a first-line therapy.
- It enhances tissue oxygenation, which can improve antibiotic effectiveness and wound healing, but it does not replace antibiotic therapy.
*Oral amoxicillin-clavulanic acid for 10 days*
- **Amoxicillin-clavulanic acid** does not provide adequate coverage against **Pseudomonas aeruginosa**, the predominant pathogen in MOE.
- Oral antibiotics for only 10 days are insufficient for deep-seated infections like MOE, which requires prolonged, often intravenous, treatment.
Question 80: Ten days after being discharged from the hospital, a 42-year-old man comes to the emergency department because of reduced urine output for 3 days. Physical examination is normal. Serum creatinine concentration is 2.9 mg/dL. Urinalysis shows brownish granular casts and 2+ proteinuria. Renal biopsy shows patchy necrosis of the proximal convoluted tubule with sloughing of tubular cells into the lumen and preservation of tubular basement membranes. Administration of which of the following drugs during this patient's hospitalization is most likely the cause of the observed decrease in renal function?
A. Aspirin
B. Acyclovir
C. Omeprazole
D. Captopril
E. Gentamicin (Correct Answer)
Explanation: ***Gentamicin***
- The patient's presentation with **acute kidney injury** (reduced urine output, elevated creatinine) and characteristic urinalysis findings (**brownish granular casts**, proteinuria) points to **acute tubular necrosis (ATN)**.
- **Gentamicin** is an **aminoglycoside antibiotic** well-known for causing ATN, particularly with prolonged use or in susceptible patients. The biopsy findings of **patchy necrosis of the proximal convoluted tubule** and **sloughing of tubular cells** with preserved basement membranes are classic for ATN.
*Aspirin*
- **Aspirin**, especially at high doses or in sensitive individuals, can cause **analgesic nephropathy** (chronic interstitial nephritis) or, less commonly, acute interstitial nephritis.
- It does not typically cause ATN with the specific biopsy findings described, and its primary renal toxicity is often related to **prostaglandin inhibition**.
*Acyclovir*
- **Acyclovir** can cause acute kidney injury, but it primarily does so through **crystalluria** and **tubular obstruction**, leading to acute interstitial nephritis or acute kidney injury due to crystal deposition.
- The biopsy findings described (patchy tubular necrosis, sloughing cells) are not typical for acyclovir-induced nephrotoxicity.
*Omeprazole*
- **Omeprazole**, a proton pump inhibitor, is most commonly associated with **acute interstitial nephritis (AIN)**, an allergic reaction affecting the renal interstitium.
- AIN would typically present with eosinophiluria, white blood cell casts, and interstitial inflammation on biopsy, rather than primary tubular necrosis.
*Captopril*
- **Captopril**, an ACE inhibitor, can cause acute kidney injury, particularly in patients with **renal artery stenosis** or volume depletion, by altering glomerular hemodynamics.
- It typically does not cause direct tubular necrosis or the specific histological changes seen in ATN; rather, it primarily reduces **glomerular filtration pressure**.