A typically healthy 27-year-old woman presents to the physician because of a 3-week history of fatigue, headache, and dry cough. She does not smoke or use illicit drugs. Her temperature is 37.8°C (100.0°F). Chest examination shows mild inspiratory crackles in both lung fields. An X-ray of the chest shows diffuse interstitial infiltrates bilaterally. A Gram stain of saline-induced sputum shows no organisms. Inoculation of the induced sputum on a cell-free medium that is enriched with yeast extract, horse serum, cholesterol, and penicillin G grows colonies that resemble fried eggs. Which of the following is the most appropriate next step in management?
Q142
A 76-year-old man comes to the physician for a follow-up examination. One week ago, he was prescribed azithromycin for acute bacterial sinusitis. He has a history of atrial fibrillation treated with warfarin and metoprolol. Physical examination shows no abnormalities. Compared to one month ago, laboratory studies show a mild increase in INR. Which of the following best explains this patient's laboratory finding?
Q143
A 26-year-old woman comes to the physician because of a 3-day history of redness, foreign body sensation, and discharge of both eyes. She reports that her eyes feel “stuck together” with yellow crusts every morning. She has a 3-year history of nasal allergies; her sister has allergic rhinitis. She is sexually active with 2 male partners and uses an oral contraceptive; they do not use condoms. Vital signs are within normal limits. Visual acuity is 20/20 in both eyes. Ophthalmic examination shows edema of both eyelids, bilateral conjunctival injection, and a thin purulent discharge. Examination of the cornea, anterior chamber, and fundus is unremarkable. The remainder of the examination shows no abnormalities. Which of the following is the most appropriate pharmacotherapy?
Q144
A 24-year-old woman presents to her physician's office complaining of a worsening cough with large volumes of mucoid sputum every morning and thick, foul-smelling sputum almost every time she coughs. She says that this cough started about one month ago and has been increasing in intensity. Over-the-counter medications are ineffective. Past medical history is significant for cystic fibrosis diagnosed at the age of 6 years, and pneumonia twice in the past 2 years. Other than a cough, she has no fever or any other concerns. A sputum sample grows aerobic, non-lactose fermenting, oxidase-positive, gram-negative bacillus. Which of the following treatment regimens is the most beneficial for her at this time?
Q145
A 27-year-old woman comes to the emergency room because of fever and severe left knee pain for the past week. She has not sustained any trauma or injury to the area, nor has she traveled or taken part in outdoor activities in the recent past. She is sexually active with one male partner, and they use condoms inconsistently. She appears ill. Her temperature is 38°C (100.4°F), pulse is 98/min, respirations are 17/min, and blood pressure is 106/72 mm Hg. Physical examination shows multiple painless pustular lesions on her ankles and the dorsum and soles of her feet bilaterally, as well as a swollen, erythematous, exquisitely tender left knee. Her wrists are also mildly edematous and tender, with pain on extension. X-ray of the knees shows tissue swelling. Arthrocentesis of the knee shows yellow purulent fluid. Gram stain is negative. Analysis of the synovial fluid shows a leukocyte count of 58,000/mm3 with 93% neutrophils and no crystals. Which of the following is the most appropriate pharmacotherapy?
Q146
An 11-year-old girl is brought to the emergency department because of high-grade fever, headache, and nausea for 3 days. She avoids looking at any light source because this aggravates her headache. She has acute lymphoblastic leukemia and her last chemotherapy cycle was 2 weeks ago. She appears lethargic. Her temperature is 40.1°C (104.2°F), pulse is 131/min and blood pressure is 100/60 mm Hg. Examination shows a stiff neck. The pupils are equal and reactive to light. Neck flexion results in flexion of the knee and hip. Muscle strength is decreased in the right upper extremity. Deep tendon reflexes are 2+ bilaterally. Sensation is intact. Extraocular movements are normal. Two sets of blood cultures are obtained. Which of the following is the most appropriate next step in management?
Q147
A 62-year-old woman has been receiving amoxicillin for acute sinusitis for 12 days. She develops a macular rash on her neck, back, and torso. The amoxicillin is therefore changed to cephalexin for an additional week. The rash resolves, but she returns complaining of fatigue, flank pain, and fever that has persisted despite the resolution of the sinusitis. She has a history of essential hypertension, hyperlipidemia, and gastric reflux. She has been on a stable regimen of lisinopril, simvastatin, and omeprazole. Today, her vital signs reveal: temperature 37.9°C (100.2°F), blood pressure 145/90 mm Hg, regular pulse 75/min, and respirations 16/min. The physical examination is unremarkable. Serum urea and creatinine are elevated. Urinalysis shows leukocyturia, but urine bacterial culture is negative. A urine cytospin stained with Hansel’s solution reveals 3% binucleated cells with eosinophilic, granular cytoplasm. Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?
Q148
A 27-year-old man presents to the emergency department after a dog bite. The patient was intoxicated and pulled the dog’s tail while it was eating. The dog belongs to his friend and is back at his friend’s house currently. Physical exam is notable for a dog bite on the patient’s right arm. The wound is irrigated and explored with no retained bodies found. A tetanus vaccination is administered. Which of the following is appropriate management of this patient?
Antibiotics US Medical PG Practice Questions and MCQs
Question 141: A typically healthy 27-year-old woman presents to the physician because of a 3-week history of fatigue, headache, and dry cough. She does not smoke or use illicit drugs. Her temperature is 37.8°C (100.0°F). Chest examination shows mild inspiratory crackles in both lung fields. An X-ray of the chest shows diffuse interstitial infiltrates bilaterally. A Gram stain of saline-induced sputum shows no organisms. Inoculation of the induced sputum on a cell-free medium that is enriched with yeast extract, horse serum, cholesterol, and penicillin G grows colonies that resemble fried eggs. Which of the following is the most appropriate next step in management?
A. Oral amoxicillin
B. Intravenous clindamycin
C. Oral azithromycin (Correct Answer)
D. Intravenous ceftriaxone and oral azithromycin
E. Intravenous ceftriaxone
Explanation: **Oral azithromycin**
- The patient's symptoms (fatigue, headache, dry cough, bilateral interstitial infiltrates) are consistent with **atypical pneumonia**, likely caused by *Mycoplasma pneumoniae*.
- The **fried egg colonies** on specialized media are characteristic of *Mycoplasma pneumoniae*, and macrolides such as **azithromycin** are the first-line treatment for this infection.
*Oral amoxicillin*
- **Amoxicillin** is a beta-lactam antibiotic that targets bacterial cell walls, which are **lacking in *Mycoplasma***.
- Therefore, amoxicillin would be **ineffective** against *Mycoplasma pneumoniae* infections.
*Intravenous clindamycin*
- **Clindamycin** is primarily used for anaerobic infections and some gram-positive bacteria; it is **not active against *Mycoplasma pneumoniae***.
- This antibiotic would not be an appropriate choice for atypical pneumonia.
*Intravenous ceftriaxone and oral azithromycin*
- While **azithromycin** is appropriate, **intravenous ceftriaxone** (a cephalosporin) is primarily used for typical bacterial pneumonia.
- Adding ceftriaxone is **unnecessary** and broad-spectrum for this clear case of *Mycoplasma pneumoniae* pneumonia, and the patient does not appear severely ill to warrant IV therapy.
*Intravenous ceftriaxone*
- **Ceftriaxone** targets bacterial cell walls and would be **ineffective against *Mycoplasma pneumoniae*** due to its lack of a cell wall.
- It is typically used for more severe or typical bacterial pneumonias, particularly when there is concern for *Streptococcus pneumoniae* or *Haemophilus influenzae*.
Question 142: A 76-year-old man comes to the physician for a follow-up examination. One week ago, he was prescribed azithromycin for acute bacterial sinusitis. He has a history of atrial fibrillation treated with warfarin and metoprolol. Physical examination shows no abnormalities. Compared to one month ago, laboratory studies show a mild increase in INR. Which of the following best explains this patient's laboratory finding?
A. Drug-induced hepatotoxicity
B. Depletion of intestinal flora
C. Inhibition of cytochrome p450 (Correct Answer)
D. Increased gastrointestinal absorption of warfarin
E. Increased non-protein bound warfarin fraction
Explanation: ***Inhibition of cytochrome p450***
- **Azithromycin**, while a weaker inhibitor compared to erythromycin and clarithromycin, **does inhibit CYP3A4 and other cytochrome P450 enzymes** to a clinically significant degree.
- This inhibition **reduces warfarin metabolism**, leading to increased warfarin levels and **enhanced anticoagulant effect**, manifesting as an **increased INR**.
- This pharmacokinetic interaction is well-documented and is the **primary mechanism** for azithromycin-warfarin interaction.
*Depletion of intestinal flora*
- The theory that antibiotics deplete **vitamin K-producing gut bacteria** leading to increased warfarin effect is a **common misconception**.
- Humans obtain vitamin K primarily from **dietary sources** (leafy greens, vegetable oils), not from gut bacterial synthesis; intestinal bacteria contribute minimally to vitamin K stores.
- This mechanism has been **debunked** in modern pharmacology literature and does not explain antibiotic-warfarin interactions.
*Drug-induced hepatotoxicity*
- While hepatotoxicity can impair **clotting factor synthesis** and increase INR, **azithromycin** rarely causes significant liver injury.
- The presentation shows only a **mild INR increase** one week after starting therapy, without other signs of liver dysfunction.
- This acute, mild change is more consistent with a **pharmacokinetic drug interaction** than hepatotoxicity.
*Increased gastrointestinal absorption of warfarin*
- **Warfarin** has high oral bioavailability (~100%) under normal conditions.
- **Azithromycin** does not enhance the **gastrointestinal absorption** of warfarin.
- This mechanism is not supported by pharmacological evidence for this drug interaction.
*Increased non-protein bound warfarin fraction*
- Displacement of warfarin from **plasma protein binding sites** can transiently increase free drug.
- However, **azithromycin** does not significantly displace warfarin from **albumin**.
- This mechanism does not explain the sustained INR elevation seen with azithromycin therapy.
Question 143: A 26-year-old woman comes to the physician because of a 3-day history of redness, foreign body sensation, and discharge of both eyes. She reports that her eyes feel “stuck together” with yellow crusts every morning. She has a 3-year history of nasal allergies; her sister has allergic rhinitis. She is sexually active with 2 male partners and uses an oral contraceptive; they do not use condoms. Vital signs are within normal limits. Visual acuity is 20/20 in both eyes. Ophthalmic examination shows edema of both eyelids, bilateral conjunctival injection, and a thin purulent discharge. Examination of the cornea, anterior chamber, and fundus is unremarkable. The remainder of the examination shows no abnormalities. Which of the following is the most appropriate pharmacotherapy?
A. Topical prednisolone acetate
B. Oral erythromycin (Correct Answer)
C. Topical erythromycin
D. Topical natamycin
E. Artificial tears
Explanation: ***Oral erythromycin***
- The patient is a **sexually active young woman with multiple partners and no condom use**, presenting with **bilateral purulent conjunctivitis** – this clinical context raises concern for **sexually transmitted infections (STI)**, particularly **chlamydial conjunctivitis** (*Chlamydia trachomatis*).
- In sexually active adults with conjunctivitis and risk factors for STIs, **systemic antibiotic therapy** is preferred over topical treatment alone to ensure adequate treatment of potential chlamydial or gonococcal infection.
- **Oral erythromycin** provides broad-spectrum coverage including *C. trachomatis*, *S. aureus*, and *S. pneumoniae*, making it appropriate for this clinical scenario.
- While the patient could also have typical bacterial conjunctivitis, the sexual history mandates consideration and empiric coverage of STI-related causes.
*Topical erythromycin*
- **Topical antibiotics alone** are appropriate for uncomplicated bacterial conjunctivitis in patients **without STI risk factors**.
- In this sexually active patient with multiple partners and no barrier protection, topical therapy alone risks **treatment failure** if the underlying cause is chlamydial or gonococcal conjunctivitis, which require systemic antibiotics.
- Topical treatment does not address potential systemic or genital reservoir of infection in STI-related cases.
*Topical prednisolone acetate*
- **Corticosteroids** like prednisolone reduce inflammation but are **contraindicated in infectious conjunctivitis** without concurrent antimicrobial therapy.
- Steroids can worsen bacterial, viral, and fungal infections by suppressing the immune response and masking progression of disease.
- Given clear signs of **purulent bacterial infection**, corticosteroids alone are inappropriate.
*Topical natamycin*
- **Natamycin** is an antifungal medication used primarily for **fungal keratitis** or fungal conjunctivitis.
- This patient has no risk factors or clinical features suggesting fungal infection; the presentation is classic for bacterial conjunctivitis with STI risk factors.
*Artificial tears*
- Artificial tears provide symptomatic relief for **dry eye** or mild irritation but have no antimicrobial properties.
- They do not treat the underlying **bacterial infection** and are insufficient as sole therapy for purulent conjunctivitis.
Question 144: A 24-year-old woman presents to her physician's office complaining of a worsening cough with large volumes of mucoid sputum every morning and thick, foul-smelling sputum almost every time she coughs. She says that this cough started about one month ago and has been increasing in intensity. Over-the-counter medications are ineffective. Past medical history is significant for cystic fibrosis diagnosed at the age of 6 years, and pneumonia twice in the past 2 years. Other than a cough, she has no fever or any other concerns. A sputum sample grows aerobic, non-lactose fermenting, oxidase-positive, gram-negative bacillus. Which of the following treatment regimens is the most beneficial for her at this time?
A. Postural drainage of the chest
B. Surgical therapy
C. Trimethoprim and sulfamethoxazole
D. Intravenous ciprofloxacin (Correct Answer)
E. Amoxicillin and clavulanic acid
Explanation: ***Intravenous ciprofloxacin***
- The patient's history of **cystic fibrosis** with recurrent respiratory infections and the isolation of an **aerobic, non-lactose fermenting, oxidase-positive, gram-negative bacillus** (consistent with *Pseudomonas aeruginosa*) strongly indicates the need for targeted antibiotic therapy.
- **Ciprofloxacin** is a fluoroquinolone antibiotic with good activity against *Pseudomonas aeruginosa*, and intravenous administration is appropriate for pulmonary exacerbations in CF patients.
- The worsening cough with large volumes of mucoid and foul-smelling sputum indicates a significant **pulmonary exacerbation** due to bacterial infection, necessitating effective antibiotic coverage.
- While **combination therapy** (typically an anti-pseudomonal beta-lactam plus an aminoglycoside or fluoroquinolone) is often preferred for Pseudomonas exacerbations in CF, **ciprofloxacin is the best option among those listed** as it provides reliable Pseudomonas coverage.
*Postural drainage of the chest*
- **Postural drainage** is an important component of airway clearance therapy in patients with cystic fibrosis and bronchiectasis, helping to mobilize secretions.
- While beneficial for symptom management and part of comprehensive CF care, it is not a primary treatment for an acute bacterial exacerbation and does not address the underlying **bacterial infection**.
*Surgical therapy*
- **Surgical therapy**, such as lung transplantation, is considered for end-stage lung disease in cystic fibrosis or for localized complications like severe bronchiectasis or massive hemoptysis refractory to medical management.
- It is not the initial or primary treatment for an acute infectious exacerbation, especially in a patient without indications for emergent surgical intervention.
*Trimethoprim and sulfamethoxazole*
- **Trimethoprim-sulfamethoxazole (TMP/SMX)** is a broad-spectrum antibiotic effective against many gram-positive and gram-negative organisms.
- However, it has **poor activity against Pseudomonas aeruginosa**, particularly the strains commonly found in cystic fibrosis patients, which often demonstrate intrinsic or acquired resistance to TMP/SMX.
- This makes it an inappropriate choice for treating Pseudomonas pulmonary exacerbations in CF.
*Amoxicillin and clavulanic acid*
- **Amoxicillin-clavulanic acid** is effective against many gram-positive bacteria and some gram-negative organisms, including *Haemophilus influenzae* and *Moraxella catarrhalis*.
- However, it has **minimal to no activity against Pseudomonas aeruginosa**, which is a common and highly virulent pathogen in cystic fibrosis patients, making it an unsuitable choice for this specific infection.
Question 145: A 27-year-old woman comes to the emergency room because of fever and severe left knee pain for the past week. She has not sustained any trauma or injury to the area, nor has she traveled or taken part in outdoor activities in the recent past. She is sexually active with one male partner, and they use condoms inconsistently. She appears ill. Her temperature is 38°C (100.4°F), pulse is 98/min, respirations are 17/min, and blood pressure is 106/72 mm Hg. Physical examination shows multiple painless pustular lesions on her ankles and the dorsum and soles of her feet bilaterally, as well as a swollen, erythematous, exquisitely tender left knee. Her wrists are also mildly edematous and tender, with pain on extension. X-ray of the knees shows tissue swelling. Arthrocentesis of the knee shows yellow purulent fluid. Gram stain is negative. Analysis of the synovial fluid shows a leukocyte count of 58,000/mm3 with 93% neutrophils and no crystals. Which of the following is the most appropriate pharmacotherapy?
A. Intramuscular ceftriaxone and oral azithromycin (Correct Answer)
B. Oral penicillin V
C. Oral doxycycline
D. Intramuscular ceftriaxone
E. Oral hydroxychloroquine
Explanation: ***Intramuscular ceftriaxone and oral azithromycin***
- The clinical presentation, including **fever**, **migratory polyarthralgia** (knees and wrists), **pustular skin lesions**, and **purulent synovial fluid** with **negative Gram stain**, is highly suggestive of **disseminated gonococcal infection (DGI)**. Given her inconsistent condom use and sexual activity, DGI is a strong possibility.
- **Ceftriaxone** is the recommended treatment for gonococcal infections, and **azithromycin** is added to cover potential co-infection with **Chlamydia trachomatis**, which often co-occurs and can also cause a reactive arthritis presentation, or to prevent resistance of *N. gonorrhoeae* to cephalosporins.
*Oral penicillin V*
- **Penicillin V** is not effective against **Neisseria gonorrhoeae** due to widespread resistance, and it would not cover potential **Chlamydia co-infection**.
- Its spectrum of activity is primarily against streptococcal and some staphylococcal infections, which do not match the clinical picture.
*Oral doxycycline*
- **Doxycycline** is effective against **Chlamydia trachomatis** but is not the primary treatment for **Neisseria gonorrhoeae** due to varying efficacy and resistance patterns, particularly in disseminated forms.
- It would be inadequate as monotherapy for likely **gonococcal arthritis**.
*Intramuscular ceftriaxone*
- While **ceftriaxone** is the cornerstone of treatment for **gonococcal infections**, adding **azithromycin** is standard practice to cover for co-infection with **Chlamydia** and to improve treatment efficacy and prevent further resistance to cephalosporins in DGI.
- Monotherapy with ceftriaxone alone is not recommended for DGI due to the high prevalence of co-infection with Chlamydia and the need to comprehensively treat both potential pathogens.
*Oral hydroxychloroquine*
- **Hydroxychloroquine** is an anti-malarial and immunosuppressive drug primarily used in **rheumatological conditions** like lupus or rheumatoid arthritis.
- It has no role in treating **bacterial infections** like disseminated gonococcal infection.
Question 146: An 11-year-old girl is brought to the emergency department because of high-grade fever, headache, and nausea for 3 days. She avoids looking at any light source because this aggravates her headache. She has acute lymphoblastic leukemia and her last chemotherapy cycle was 2 weeks ago. She appears lethargic. Her temperature is 40.1°C (104.2°F), pulse is 131/min and blood pressure is 100/60 mm Hg. Examination shows a stiff neck. The pupils are equal and reactive to light. Neck flexion results in flexion of the knee and hip. Muscle strength is decreased in the right upper extremity. Deep tendon reflexes are 2+ bilaterally. Sensation is intact. Extraocular movements are normal. Two sets of blood cultures are obtained. Which of the following is the most appropriate next step in management?
A. Acyclovir therapy
B. Antibiotic therapy (Correct Answer)
C. MRI of the brain
D. CT scan of the head
E. Lumbar puncture
Explanation: ***Antibiotic therapy***
- This patient presents with **fever, headache, stiff neck, photophobia, and positive Brudzinski's sign (neck flexion results in flexion of the knee and hip)**, which are classic signs of **meningitis**. Given her history of **acute lymphoblastic leukemia (ALL)** and recent chemotherapy, she is **immunocompromised** and at high risk for **bacterial meningitis**, a life-threatening infection requiring immediate antibiotic treatment.
- Due to the severity of symptoms and the high risk in an immunocompromised patient, immediate initiation of empiric, broad-spectrum antibiotics is crucial after obtaining blood cultures, even before definitive diagnosis from cerebrospinal fluid (CSF) analysis.
*Acyclovir therapy*
- **Acyclovir** is an antiviral medication used to treat herpes simplex virus (HSV) or varicella-zoster virus (VZV) encephalitis or meningitis.
- While viral meningitis is a possibility, bacterial meningitis is a more urgent and severe concern in an immunocompromised patient with these neurological signs, making immediate antibiotics a higher priority.
*MRI of the brain*
- An **MRI of the brain** provides detailed imaging of brain structures and can detect abscesses, tumors, or inflammation.
- However, in acute meningitis, especially with signs of increased intracranial pressure (which should be ruled out before LP), antibiotics are the most immediate and critical intervention, and an MRI would delay this life-saving treatment.
*CT scan of the head*
- A **CT scan of the head** is primarily used to rule out **mass lesions, hydrocephalus, or significant cerebral edema** before performing a **lumbar puncture (LP)** in patients with suspected meningitis who have focal neurological deficits or signs of increased intracranial pressure.
- While it may be considered before LP due to the focal neurological deficit (decreased muscle strength in the right upper extremity), administering antibiotics takes precedence due to the high suspicion of bacterial meningitis in an immunocompromised patient.
*Lumbar puncture*
- A **lumbar puncture** is essential for diagnosing meningitis by analyzing the **cerebrospinal fluid (CSF)** for cell count, glucose, protein, and culture.
- However, performing an LP can be delayed if there are signs of increased intracranial pressure (which warrants a preceding CT scan) or if the patient's condition is unstable; importantly, **empiric antibiotics should be started immediately** in a suspected bacterial meningitis case, especially in an immunocompromised patient, and not delayed for imaging or LP.
Question 147: A 62-year-old woman has been receiving amoxicillin for acute sinusitis for 12 days. She develops a macular rash on her neck, back, and torso. The amoxicillin is therefore changed to cephalexin for an additional week. The rash resolves, but she returns complaining of fatigue, flank pain, and fever that has persisted despite the resolution of the sinusitis. She has a history of essential hypertension, hyperlipidemia, and gastric reflux. She has been on a stable regimen of lisinopril, simvastatin, and omeprazole. Today, her vital signs reveal: temperature 37.9°C (100.2°F), blood pressure 145/90 mm Hg, regular pulse 75/min, and respirations 16/min. The physical examination is unremarkable. Serum urea and creatinine are elevated. Urinalysis shows leukocyturia, but urine bacterial culture is negative. A urine cytospin stained with Hansel’s solution reveals 3% binucleated cells with eosinophilic, granular cytoplasm. Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?
A. Acute vascular injury
B. Acute glomerulonephritis
C. Acute interstitial nephritis (Correct Answer)
D. IgA nephropathy
E. Acute tubular necrosis
Explanation: ***Acute interstitial nephritis***
- The patient's presentation with **fever**, **rash**, **flank pain**, **eosinophilia** (implied by eosinophilic, granular cytoplasm in urine cytospin), and **acute kidney injury** (elevated urea and creatinine, leukocyturia with negative culture) following **amoxicillin** use is highly suggestive of drug-induced **acute interstitial nephritis (AIN)**.
- The resolution of the rash and subsequent development of systemic symptoms and kidney injury after antibiotic exposure is characteristic of a **delayed hypersensitivity reaction** responsible for AIN.
*Acute vascular injury*
- This typically presents with acute, severe kidney failure, often in the context of an underlying systemic vasculitis or embolic event, which is not supported by the clinical picture.
- While hypertension is present, the specific constellation of fever, rash, and eosinophilia strongly points away from primary vascular injury as the cause of kidney dysfunction.
*Acute glomerulonephritis*
- This condition often presents with hematuria, proteinuria, and sometimes edema, which are not mentioned in this case.
- The presence of a prominent rash, fever, and eosinophils in the urine points more towards a tubulointerstitial process rather than a glomerular one.
*IgA nephropathy*
- This is an **immune complex-mediated glomerulonephritis** that commonly presents with **recurrent macroscopic hematuria** after an upper respiratory infection.
- It does not typically involve a drug-induced rash, fever, or prominent eosinophiluria as seen in this patient.
*Acute tubular necrosis*
- This usually results from **ischemia** or **nephrotoxic agents**, causing direct damage to renal tubules and presenting with muddy brown casts in the urine.
- While drug-induced, it typically does not present with a systemic rash, fever, and interstitial eosinophilia, which are critical features in this case, differentiating it from AIN.
Question 148: A 27-year-old man presents to the emergency department after a dog bite. The patient was intoxicated and pulled the dog’s tail while it was eating. The dog belongs to his friend and is back at his friend’s house currently. Physical exam is notable for a dog bite on the patient’s right arm. The wound is irrigated and explored with no retained bodies found. A tetanus vaccination is administered. Which of the following is appropriate management of this patient?
A. Administer the rabies vaccine and rabies immunoglobulin
B. Administer amoxicillin-clavulanic acid (Correct Answer)
C. Discharge the patient with outpatient follow up
D. Close the wound with sutures and discharge the patient
E. Administer trimethoprim-sulfamethoxazole
Explanation: ***Administer amoxicillin-clavulanic acid***
- Dog bite wounds are at high risk for bacterial infection, particularly from oral flora like *Pasteurella multocida* and *Capnocytophaga canimorsus*. **Amoxicillin-clavulanic acid** provides broad-spectrum coverage against these common pathogens.
- Due to the nature of the wound (puncture, crush), the risk of infection is significant, warranting **prophylactic antibiotics** even after wound irrigation and exploration.
*Administer the rabies vaccine and rabies immunoglobulin*
- **Rabies post-exposure prophylaxis (PEP)** is indicated if the animal is high-risk, unprovoked, or cannot be observed. In this case, the dog is known and provoked, and its vaccination status can be ascertained.
- The dog is owned by a friend and is presumably available for **observation** or vaccination status confirmation, which would typically negate the immediate need for rabies PEP.
*Discharge the patient with outpatient follow up*
- Discharging the patient without further intervention, specifically **antibiotic prophylaxis**, would be inappropriate given the high risk of infection associated with dog bites.
- While follow-up is important, the immediate concern is **infection prevention**, which requires an initial intervention in the emergency department.
*Close the wound with sutures and discharge the patient*
- Dog bite wounds, especially **puncture or crush wounds**, are generally **not primarily closed by suturing** due to the high risk of trapping bacteria and increasing infection rates.
- Instead, these wounds are typically left **open to heal by secondary intention** after thorough cleaning and antibiotic prophylaxis.
*Administer trimethoprim-sulfamethoxazole*
- **Trimethoprim-sulfamethoxazole** is not the antibiotic of choice for dog bite wounds. It lacks sufficient coverage against the common anaerobic and gram-negative organisms, such as *Pasteurella*, found in dog oral flora.
- **Amoxicillin-clavulanic acid** is preferred due to its superior coverage for typical dog bite pathogens.