A 5-week-old male infant is rushed to the emergency department due to severe vomiting and lethargy for the past 3 days. His mother describes the vomiting as forceful and projectile and contains undigested breast milk, but she did not notice any green fluids. He has not gained much weight in the past 3 weeks and looks very thin. He has a pulse of 144/min, temperature of 37.5°C (99.5°F), and respiratory rate of 18/min. Mucous membranes are dry and the boy is lethargic. Abdominal examination reveals a palpable mass in the epigastrium that becomes more prominent after vomiting with visible peristaltic movements over the epigastrium. Barium-contrast studies show a double channel appearance of the pylorus. What is the best immediate step in the management of this patient’s condition?
Q152
A concerned father brings his 2 year-old son to the clinic for evaluation. In the past 24 hours, the child has had multiple episodes of painless bloody stools. On physical examination, the child's vital signs are within normal limits. There is mild generalized discomfort on palpation of the abdomen but no rebound or guarding. A technetium-99m (99mTc) pertechnetate scan indicates increased activity in two locations within the abdomen. Cells originating in which organ account for the increased radionucleotide activity?
Q153
A 3-month-old male presents to the pediatrician with his mother for a well child visit. The patient drinks 4 ounces of conventional cow’s milk formula every three hours. He usually stools once per day, and urinates up to six times per day. His mother reports that he regurgitates a moderate amount of formula through his nose and mouth after most feeds. He does not seem interested in additional feeding after these episodes of regurgitation, and he has become progressively more irritable around meal times. The patient is starting to refuse some feeds. His mother denies ever seeing blood or streaks of red in his stool, and she denies any family history of food allergies or dermatological problems. The patient’s weight was in the 75th percentile for weight throughout the first month of life. Four weeks ago, he was in the 62nd percentile, and he is now in the 48th percentile. His height and head circumference have followed similar trends. On physical exam, the patient smiles reciprocally and can lift his head and chest when in the prone position. His abdomen is soft, non-tender, and non-distended.
Which of the following is the best next step in management?
Q154
An 8-month-old boy is brought to the emergency department by his mother and father due to decreasing activity and excessive sleepiness. The patient was born at full-term in the hospital with no complications. The patient's parents appear incredibly worried as their son has had no medical issues in the past. They show you videos of the child happily playing with his parents the day before. The patient's mother states that the patient hit his head while crawling this morning and since then has been difficult to arouse. His mother is worried because she thinks he had a fever earlier in the day and he was clutching his head and neck in pain. Physical examination shows a barely arousable boy with a large, full anterior fontanelle. The boy grimaces on palpation of his chest, and a radiograph shows posterior rib fractures. Retinal examination shows bilateral retinal hemorrhages. Which of the following is the most likely cause for this patient's presentation?
Q155
A 4-year-old girl is brought to the physician with a 3-month history of progressive intermittent pain and swelling involving both knees, right ankle, and right wrist. The patient has been undergoing treatment with acetaminophen and ice packs, both of which relieved her symptoms. The affected joints feel "stuck" and are difficult to move immediately upon waking up in the morning. However, the patient can move her joints freely after a few minutes. She also complains of occasional mild eye pain that resolves spontaneously. Five months ago, she was diagnosed with an upper respiratory tract infection that resolved without treatment. Vital signs are within normal limits. Physical examination shows swollen and erythematous joints, which are tender to touch. Slit-lamp examination shows an anterior chamber flare with signs of iris inflammation bilaterally. Laboratory studies show:
Blood parameters
Hemoglobin 12.6 g/dL
Leukocyte count 8,000/mm3
Segmented neutrophils 76%
Eosinophils 1%
Lymphocytes 20%
Monocytes 3%
Platelet count 360,000/mm3
Erythrocyte sedimentation rate 36 mm/hr
Serum parameters
Antinuclear antibodies 1:320
Rheumatoid factor negative
Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?
Q156
A 4-week-old male infant is brought to the physician due to a 1-week history of refusing to finish bottle feeds and becoming irritable shortly after feeding. He spits up sour-smelling milk after most feeds. Pregnancy and delivery were uncomplicated. The baby is at the 70th percentile for length and 50th percentile for weight. His temperature is 36.6°C (98°F), pulse is 180/min, respirations are 30/min, and blood pressure is 85/55 mm Hg. He appears lethargic. Examination shows sunken fontanelles and a strong rooting reflex. The abdomen is soft with a 1.5-cm nontender epigastric mass. Which of the following is the most appropriate next step in the management of this patient?
Q157
A mother brings her 10 month-old boy to the pediatrician for a check-up. His birth was without complications and his development to-date has been progressing normally. He currently crawls, pulls himself up to standing, says 'mama' and 'dada' nonspecifically, and responds when called by his name. However, his mother is concerned, as she has noted over the past several weeks that he has periods where he stops breathing when he gets frightened or upset. These episodes last for 20-30 seconds and are accompanied by his lips and face becoming bluish. His breathing has always resumed normally within 45 seconds after the start of the episode, and he acts normally afterwards. One instance resulted in the child passing out for a 5-10 seconds before a spontaneous recovery. Which of the following is the most appropriate management of this patient's condition?
Q158
A six-year-old male presents to the pediatrician for a well child visit. The patient’s parents report that they are struggling to manage his temper tantrums, which happen as frequently as several times per day. They usually occur in the morning before school and during mealtimes, when his parents try to limit how much he eats. The patient often returns for second or third helpings at meals and snacks throughout the day. The patient’s parents have begun limiting the patient’s food intake because he has been gaining weight. They also report that the patient recently began first grade but still struggles with counting objects and naming letters consistently. The patient sat without support at 11 months of age and walked at 17 months of age. He is in the 99th percentile for weight and 5th percentile for height. On physical exam, he has almond-shaped eyes and a downturned mouth. He has poor muscle tone.
Which of the following additional findings would most likely be seen in this patient?
Q159
During the selection of subjects for a study on infantile vitamin deficiencies, a child is examined by the lead investigator. She is at the 75th percentile for head circumference and the 80th percentile for length and weight. She can lift her chest and shoulders up when in a prone position, but cannot roll over from a prone position. Her eyes follow objects past the midline. She coos and makes gurgling sounds. When the investigator strokes the sole of her foot, her big toe curls upward and there is fanning of her other toes. She makes a stepping motion when she is held upright and her feet are in contact with the examination table. Which of the following additional skills or behaviors would be expected in a healthy patient of this developmental age?
Q160
A 6-year-old boy presents to the office to establish care after recently being assigned to a shelter run by the local child protective services authority. The nurse who performed the vitals and intake says that, when offered an age-appropriate book to read while waiting for the physician, the patient said that he has never attended a school of any sort and is unable to read. He answers questions with short responses and avoids eye contact for most of the visit. His father suffers from alcoholism and physically abused the patient’s mother. Physical examination is negative for any abnormal findings, including signs of fracture or bruising. Which of the following types of abuse has the child most likely experienced?
Growth/Development US Medical PG Practice Questions and MCQs
Question 151: A 5-week-old male infant is rushed to the emergency department due to severe vomiting and lethargy for the past 3 days. His mother describes the vomiting as forceful and projectile and contains undigested breast milk, but she did not notice any green fluids. He has not gained much weight in the past 3 weeks and looks very thin. He has a pulse of 144/min, temperature of 37.5°C (99.5°F), and respiratory rate of 18/min. Mucous membranes are dry and the boy is lethargic. Abdominal examination reveals a palpable mass in the epigastrium that becomes more prominent after vomiting with visible peristaltic movements over the epigastrium. Barium-contrast studies show a double channel appearance of the pylorus. What is the best immediate step in the management of this patient’s condition?
A. Whipple procedure
B. Nasogastric tube feeding
C. Reassurance and observation
D. Pyloromyotomy
E. Correct electrolyte imbalances (Correct Answer)
Explanation: ***Correct electrolyte imbalances***
- The patient exhibits classic signs of **pyloric stenosis** (projectile non-bilious vomiting, palpable olive-shaped mass, visible peristalsis, and double-channel sign on barium studies), leading to significant fluid and electrolyte loss, particularly **hypochloremic metabolic alkalosis**.
- **Correction of fluid and electrolyte abnormalities** (especially dehydration and hypokalemia) is crucial before surgical intervention to prevent post-operative complications like apnea and cardiac arrhythmias.
*Whipple procedure*
- The **Whipple procedure** is a complex surgical operation primarily used for pancreatic cancer and other periampullary tumors.
- It is completely unrelated to the management of **infantile hypertrophic pyloric stenosis**.
*Nasogastric tube feeding*
- **Nasogastric tube feeding** would worsen the patient's condition by introducing more fluid into an obstructed stomach, potentially exacerbating vomiting and electrolyte imbalances.
- The primary issue is gastric outlet obstruction, not an inability to swallow, so feeding would be counterproductive.
*Reassurance and observation*
- The infant presents with severe symptoms of dehydration, lethargy, and significant weight loss, indicating a **medical emergency** that requires immediate intervention.
- **Reassurance and observation** would be inappropriate and potentially life-threatening given the progressive nature of pyloric stenosis and its associated complications.
*Pyloromyotomy*
- **Pyloromyotomy** (Ramstedt procedure) is the definitive surgical treatment for hypertrophic pyloric stenosis.
- However, it is not the *immediate* best step; **electrolyte imbalances must be corrected first** to stabilize the patient and ensure a safer surgical outcome.
Question 152: A concerned father brings his 2 year-old son to the clinic for evaluation. In the past 24 hours, the child has had multiple episodes of painless bloody stools. On physical examination, the child's vital signs are within normal limits. There is mild generalized discomfort on palpation of the abdomen but no rebound or guarding. A technetium-99m (99mTc) pertechnetate scan indicates increased activity in two locations within the abdomen. Cells originating in which organ account for the increased radionucleotide activity?
A. Pancreas
B. Small intestine
C. Gallbladder
D. Stomach (Correct Answer)
E. Liver
Explanation: ***Stomach***
- The **technetium-99m pertechnetate scan** identifies ectopic **gastric mucosa** because the pertechnetate ion is concentrated by gastric mucosal cells (including mucus-secreting cells and parietal cells) that possess the **sodium-iodide symporter**, which actively transports pertechnetate similar to iodide.
- The clinical picture of **painless rectal bleeding** in a young child, along with positive findings in **two locations** on a technetium scan (normal stomach plus ectopic site), is highly suggestive of **Meckel's diverticulum**, which contains ectopic gastric tissue.
*Pancreas*
- While pancreatic tissue can be ectopic, it does not concentrate **technetium-99m pertechnetate** and would not cause increased activity on the scan.
- Ectopic pancreatic tissue is generally **asymptomatic** or may cause symptoms due to local inflammation or obstruction, not typically painless rectal bleeding.
*Small intestine*
- Normal small intestinal mucosa does not typically demonstrate increased uptake of **technetium-99m pertechnetate**.
- While the small intestine is where a **Meckel's diverticulum** is located, it is the ectopic gastric mucosa within the diverticulum that causes the positive scan, not the normal small intestinal cells.
*Gallbladder*
- The gallbladder primarily stores and concentrates bile and does not contain cells that would concentrate **technetium-99m pertechnetate**.
- Conditions affecting the gallbladder, such as **cholecystitis** or **gallstones**, present with different symptoms, typically right upper quadrant pain, fever, and jaundice, not painless bloody stools.
*Liver*
- The liver is an accessory digestive organ and does not contain **ectopic gastric mucosa** that would lead to increased uptake on a **technetium-99m pertechnetate scan** in the context of bloody stools.
- While liver tissue takes up certain radiotracers, it does not specifically concentrate **pertechnetate** in a manner that would explain abnormal activity in two distinct abdominal locations in this scenario.
Question 153: A 3-month-old male presents to the pediatrician with his mother for a well child visit. The patient drinks 4 ounces of conventional cow’s milk formula every three hours. He usually stools once per day, and urinates up to six times per day. His mother reports that he regurgitates a moderate amount of formula through his nose and mouth after most feeds. He does not seem interested in additional feeding after these episodes of regurgitation, and he has become progressively more irritable around meal times. The patient is starting to refuse some feeds. His mother denies ever seeing blood or streaks of red in his stool, and she denies any family history of food allergies or dermatological problems. The patient’s weight was in the 75th percentile for weight throughout the first month of life. Four weeks ago, he was in the 62nd percentile, and he is now in the 48th percentile. His height and head circumference have followed similar trends. On physical exam, the patient smiles reciprocally and can lift his head and chest when in the prone position. His abdomen is soft, non-tender, and non-distended.
Which of the following is the best next step in management?
A. Switch to hydrolyzed formula
B. Obtain abdominal ultrasound
C. Initiate proton pump inhibitor
D. Provide reassurance
E. Counsel on positioning and thickening feeds (Correct Answer)
Explanation: ***Counsel on positioning and thickening feeds***
- The infant's symptoms, including **regurgitation**, **irritability during feeds**, and **dropping weight percentiles**, are indicative of severe gastroesophageal reflux (GER). Initial management should focus on **conservative measures** like positioning modifications (keeping upright after feeds), thickening feeds, and smaller, more frequent feedings.
- Given the absence of **hematemesis**, **hematochezia**, or **projectile vomiting**, further invasive diagnostics or medication are not immediately warranted.
*Switch to hydrolyzed formula*
- This would be considered if there were signs suggestive of a **cow's milk protein allergy**, such as **bloody stools**, **diarrhea**, **eczema**, or a strong family history of allergies, which are all absent in this case.
- Allergy is less likely to be the primary cause of isolated severe regurgitation with failure to thrive without other allergic manifestations.
*Obtain abdominal ultrasound*
- An **abdominal ultrasound** is primarily used to evaluate for conditions like **pyloric stenosis** if there is **projectile vomiting**, an **olive-shaped mass**, or severe dehydration and electrolyte imbalances, none of which are present.
- While it can assess for **malrotation or intussusception**, these conditions typically present with more acute, severe symptoms like **bilious vomiting**, abdominal distension, or currant jelly stools, which are not described.
*Initiate proton pump inhibitor*
- **Proton pump inhibitors (PPIs)** are reserved for infants with confirmed **erosive esophagitis** or severe symptoms unresponsive to lifestyle modifications.
- Starting a PPI without first attempting conservative measures or confirming pathological acid reflux is generally not recommended, especially given potential side effects like increased risk of infections.
*Provide reassurance*
- While **reassurance** is important, it is not the sole appropriate next step. The infant's **dropping weight percentiles** and significant feeding difficulties suggest that this is beyond typical "spitting up" and requires intervention to prevent further impact on growth and comfort.
- Simply reassuring the mother would ignore the clinical signs of **failure to thrive** and significant discomfort during feeds.
Question 154: An 8-month-old boy is brought to the emergency department by his mother and father due to decreasing activity and excessive sleepiness. The patient was born at full-term in the hospital with no complications. The patient's parents appear incredibly worried as their son has had no medical issues in the past. They show you videos of the child happily playing with his parents the day before. The patient's mother states that the patient hit his head while crawling this morning and since then has been difficult to arouse. His mother is worried because she thinks he had a fever earlier in the day and he was clutching his head and neck in pain. Physical examination shows a barely arousable boy with a large, full anterior fontanelle. The boy grimaces on palpation of his chest, and a radiograph shows posterior rib fractures. Retinal examination shows bilateral retinal hemorrhages. Which of the following is the most likely cause for this patient's presentation?
A. Bacterial meningitis
B. Vitamin K deficiency
C. Unintentional head injury
D. Child abuse (Correct Answer)
E. Osteogenesis imperfecta
Explanation: ***Child abuse***
- The combination of **altered mental status**, a **full anterior fontanelle**, **retinal hemorrhages**, and **posterior rib fractures** is classic for abusive head trauma (shaken baby syndrome) and physical abuse.
- The parents' inconsistent history (hit head while crawling this morning vs. extensive injuries) raises suspicion, as minor falls typically don't cause such severe injuries or multiple fractures.
*Bacterial meningitis*
- While **fever**, **lethargy**, and a **full fontanelle** can be seen in meningitis, the presence of **retinal hemorrhages** and **posterior rib fractures** are not typical findings for this diagnosis.
- Meningitis primarily affects the central nervous system and would not explain the skeletal or ocular trauma.
*Vitamin K deficiency*
- This condition primarily manifests with **bleeding diathesis**, such as intracranial hemorrhage or mucosal bleeding, due to impaired coagulation.
- It would not cause **posterior rib fractures** or directly lead to the specific pattern of retinal hemorrhages seen without other widespread bleeding.
*Unintentional head injury*
- A simple fall from crawling would be highly unlikely to cause the severe constellation of injuries observed, including **bilateral retinal hemorrhages**, a **full fontanelle** (indicating increased intracranial pressure), and **posterior rib fractures**.
- **Posterior rib fractures** are particularly indicative of non-accidental trauma, as they result from forceful compression of the chest.
*Osteogenesis imperfecta*
- This is a genetic disorder characterized by **brittle bones** and frequent fractures, which could explain the rib fractures.
- However, it would not account for the **retinal hemorrhages**, **full fontanelle**, or the acute neurological decline (lethargy, decreased activity) in this manner.
Question 155: A 4-year-old girl is brought to the physician with a 3-month history of progressive intermittent pain and swelling involving both knees, right ankle, and right wrist. The patient has been undergoing treatment with acetaminophen and ice packs, both of which relieved her symptoms. The affected joints feel "stuck" and are difficult to move immediately upon waking up in the morning. However, the patient can move her joints freely after a few minutes. She also complains of occasional mild eye pain that resolves spontaneously. Five months ago, she was diagnosed with an upper respiratory tract infection that resolved without treatment. Vital signs are within normal limits. Physical examination shows swollen and erythematous joints, which are tender to touch. Slit-lamp examination shows an anterior chamber flare with signs of iris inflammation bilaterally. Laboratory studies show:
Blood parameters
Hemoglobin 12.6 g/dL
Leukocyte count 8,000/mm3
Segmented neutrophils 76%
Eosinophils 1%
Lymphocytes 20%
Monocytes 3%
Platelet count 360,000/mm3
Erythrocyte sedimentation rate 36 mm/hr
Serum parameters
Antinuclear antibodies 1:320
Rheumatoid factor negative
Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?
A. Enthesitis-related arthritis
B. Oligoarticular juvenile idiopathic arthritis (Correct Answer)
C. Acute lymphocytic leukemia
D. Postinfectious arthritis
E. Seronegative polyarticular juvenile idiopathic arthritis
Explanation: **Oligoarticular juvenile idiopathic arthritis**
- The patient's presentation with arthritis in less than five joints (knees, ankle, wrist), morning stiffness, and **anterior uveitis** (eye pain, flare, iris inflammation) is classic for **oligoarticular juvenile idiopathic arthritis (JIA)**.
- The **positive antinuclear antibodies (ANA)**, negative rheumatoid factor (RF), and elevated erythrocyte sedimentation rate (ESR) further support this diagnosis.
*Enthesitis-related arthritis*
- This subtype of JIA typically affects older boys and is characterized by inflammation at the **tendon insertion sites** (enthesitis) and often involves the spine.
- While the patient has arthritis, there is no mention of enthesitis, and her age and sex do not fit the typical profile for this subtype.
*Acute lymphocytic leukemia*
- Although **arthralgia** can occur in acute lymphocytic leukemia due to bone marrow expansion, it is usually accompanied by other systemic symptoms like **fever, pallor, fatigue**, and significant changes in blood counts (e.g., **cytopenias** or **blast cells**), which are not present here.
- The patient's blood counts are relatively stable, and the primary issue is joint inflammation and uveitis.
*Postinfectious arthritis*
- This condition usually presents with acute arthritis following an infection, but it is typically **self-limiting** and resolves within a few weeks to months.
- The patient's symptoms have been ongoing for 3 months and include **chronic uveitis**, which is not typical for postinfectious arthritis.
*Seronegative polyarticular juvenile idiopathic arthritis*
- This subtype involves **five or more joints** within the first 6 months of the disease onset, which is not the case here (only 4 joints are affected).
- While it can be ANA positive and RF negative, the number of affected joints differentiates it from oligoarticular JIA.
Question 156: A 4-week-old male infant is brought to the physician due to a 1-week history of refusing to finish bottle feeds and becoming irritable shortly after feeding. He spits up sour-smelling milk after most feeds. Pregnancy and delivery were uncomplicated. The baby is at the 70th percentile for length and 50th percentile for weight. His temperature is 36.6°C (98°F), pulse is 180/min, respirations are 30/min, and blood pressure is 85/55 mm Hg. He appears lethargic. Examination shows sunken fontanelles and a strong rooting reflex. The abdomen is soft with a 1.5-cm nontender epigastric mass. Which of the following is the most appropriate next step in the management of this patient?
A. Obtain abdominal ultrasound
B. Initiate IV fluid resuscitation (Correct Answer)
C. Upper GI series
D. Nasogastric decompression
E. Surgical consultation for pyloromyotomy
Explanation: ***Initiate IV fluid resuscitation***
- This infant presents with classic **pyloric stenosis** (non-bilious vomiting, palpable epigastric "olive" mass, progressive feeding intolerance) and clear signs of **dehydration** (sunken fontanelles, lethargy, tachycardia).
- **IV fluid resuscitation is the immediate priority** to correct hypovolemia and the characteristic **hypochloremic, hypokalemic metabolic alkalosis** that develops from persistent vomiting.
- **Key principle**: "Pyloric stenosis is never a surgical emergency" - metabolic stabilization must precede any intervention, including surgery.
- Fluid resuscitation with **normal saline** followed by electrolyte correction is essential before proceeding with diagnostic imaging or definitive surgical management.
*Nasogastric decompression*
- **NG decompression** is important to decompress the stomach, reduce vomiting, and minimize aspiration risk.
- However, it should occur **after or concurrent with IV access establishment**, not before fluid resuscitation in a dehydrated infant.
- While helpful, it does not address the life-threatening **hypovolemia and electrolyte abnormalities** that require immediate correction.
*Obtain abdominal ultrasound*
- **Abdominal ultrasound** is the diagnostic test of choice for pyloric stenosis, showing pyloric muscle thickness >3 mm and channel length >15 mm.
- However, in a **clinically dehydrated and hemodynamically unstable infant**, stabilization takes priority over confirmatory imaging.
- The diagnosis is already strongly suggested by clinical findings (palpable olive, typical presentation), so imaging can wait until after resuscitation begins.
*Upper GI series*
- An **upper GI series** can diagnose pyloric stenosis by showing the "string sign" (narrow pyloric channel) or "shoulder sign."
- **Ultrasound is preferred** due to higher sensitivity/specificity, no radiation exposure, and faster results.
- This test is unnecessary when ultrasound is available and should not delay critical fluid resuscitation.
*Surgical consultation for pyloromyotomy*
- **Pyloromyotomy** is the definitive surgical treatment for pyloric stenosis with excellent outcomes.
- Surgery should **never be performed on a dehydrated, metabolically unstable infant** - this significantly increases perioperative morbidity and mortality.
- Typical stabilization requires **24-48 hours** of fluid and electrolyte correction before surgery is appropriate.
Question 157: A mother brings her 10 month-old boy to the pediatrician for a check-up. His birth was without complications and his development to-date has been progressing normally. He currently crawls, pulls himself up to standing, says 'mama' and 'dada' nonspecifically, and responds when called by his name. However, his mother is concerned, as she has noted over the past several weeks that he has periods where he stops breathing when he gets frightened or upset. These episodes last for 20-30 seconds and are accompanied by his lips and face becoming bluish. His breathing has always resumed normally within 45 seconds after the start of the episode, and he acts normally afterwards. One instance resulted in the child passing out for a 5-10 seconds before a spontaneous recovery. Which of the following is the most appropriate management of this patient's condition?
A. Education and reassurance of the mother (Correct Answer)
B. Basic metabolic panel
C. Electroencephalogram
D. Echocardiogram
E. Lung spirometry
Explanation: ***Education and reassurance of the mother***
- The described episodes are classic for **breath-holding spells**, which are benign, self-limited events common in children aged 6 months to 6 years.
- The key management involves **reassuring parents** that these spells are not dangerous and providing guidance on how to respond calmly during an episode.
*Basic metabolic panel*
- A **basic metabolic panel** generally screens for electrolyte imbalances or kidney dysfunction, which are not indicated by the typical presentation of breath-holding spells.
- While **iron deficiency anemia** can sometimes exacerbate breath-holding spells, a complete blood count (CBC) would be a more appropriate initial blood test to evaluate for this.
*Electroencephalogram*
- An **electroencephalogram (EEG)** is used to detect abnormal brain activity associated with seizure disorders.
- Although some breath-holding spells can be followed by a brief loss of consciousness, they are generally distinguishable from seizures by the **triggering event (fear/upset)**, cyanosis, and the rapid return to normal.
*Echocardiogram*
- An **echocardiogram** evaluates the structure and function of the heart.
- While cardiac causes of syncope can present with similar symptoms, the clear precipitating factors (fear/upset), cyanosis, and the described pattern of spontaneous recovery make a cardiac origin less likely in this context.
*Lung spirometry*
- **Lung spirometry** measures lung function and is typically used to diagnose and monitor respiratory conditions like asthma.
- The child's transient respiratory arrest is not due to a primary lung or airway problem, but rather a reflex response related to the **autonomic nervous system** during emotional distress.
Question 158: A six-year-old male presents to the pediatrician for a well child visit. The patient’s parents report that they are struggling to manage his temper tantrums, which happen as frequently as several times per day. They usually occur in the morning before school and during mealtimes, when his parents try to limit how much he eats. The patient often returns for second or third helpings at meals and snacks throughout the day. The patient’s parents have begun limiting the patient’s food intake because he has been gaining weight. They also report that the patient recently began first grade but still struggles with counting objects and naming letters consistently. The patient sat without support at 11 months of age and walked at 17 months of age. He is in the 99th percentile for weight and 5th percentile for height. On physical exam, he has almond-shaped eyes and a downturned mouth. He has poor muscle tone.
Which of the following additional findings would most likely be seen in this patient?
A. Webbed neck
B. Macroorchidism
C. Ataxia
D. Hemihyperplasia
E. Hypogonadism (Correct Answer)
Explanation: ***Hypogonadism***
- The patient's presentation, including **hyperphagia**, **obesity**, developmental delay, and distinctive facial features (almond-shaped eyes, downturned mouth, poor muscle tone), is highly suggestive of **Prader-Willi Syndrome**.
- **Hypogonadism** (undescended testes in males, delayed puberty) is a classic feature of **Prader-Willi Syndrome** due to hypothalamic dysfunction, which also causes the voracious appetite.
*Webbed neck*
- A **webbed neck** is characteristic of **Turner Syndrome** (45, XO), which affects females and is associated with short stature, but not typically with the hyperphagia and obesity seen here.
- The patient is a male, making Turner Syndrome an unlikely diagnosis.
*Macroorchidism*
- **Macroorchidism** (enlarged testes) is a hallmark feature of **Fragile X Syndrome**, which is associated with intellectual disability and developmental delays.
- While fragile X syndrome involves developmental delay, it does not typically present with the extreme hyperphagia, obesity, and specific facial features described in the patient.
*Ataxia*
- **Ataxia** (lack of voluntary coordination of muscle movements) in conjunction with developmental delays can be seen in various neurological disorders such as **Friedreich's ataxia** or **cerebral palsy**.
- This symptom is not a primary or characteristic finding in Prader-Willi Syndrome, and the other described features point away from ataxia as the most likely additional finding.
*Hemihyperplasia*
- **Hemihyperplasia** (overgrowth of one side of the body) is associated with conditions like **Beckwith-Wiedemann Syndrome**, which also involves macroglossia and an increased risk of tumors.
- This finding is not typically associated with the constellation of symptoms (hyperphagia, obesity, intellectual disability, hypotonia) seen in Prader-Willi Syndrome.
Question 159: During the selection of subjects for a study on infantile vitamin deficiencies, a child is examined by the lead investigator. She is at the 75th percentile for head circumference and the 80th percentile for length and weight. She can lift her chest and shoulders up when in a prone position, but cannot roll over from a prone position. Her eyes follow objects past the midline. She coos and makes gurgling sounds. When the investigator strokes the sole of her foot, her big toe curls upward and there is fanning of her other toes. She makes a stepping motion when she is held upright and her feet are in contact with the examination table. Which of the following additional skills or behaviors would be expected in a healthy patient of this developmental age?
A. Cries when separated from her mother
B. Smiles at her mother (Correct Answer)
C. Rolls over from her back
D. Responds to calling of own name
E. Reaches out for objects
Explanation: ***Smiles at her mother***
- The child exhibits developmental milestones consistent with a **2-month-old infant**, such as lifting her chest in a prone position, following objects past the midline, cooing, and gurgling. Social smiling typically emerges around **2 months of age**.
- Primitive reflexes like the **Babinski reflex** (big toe curling upward and fanning of other toes) and **stepping reflex** are normally present at this age, supporting the approximate age of 2 months.
*Cries when separated from her mother*
- This behavior suggests **separation anxiety**, which typically develops much later, usually around **8-9 months of age**.
- A 2-month-old infant does not yet have the cognitive understanding or object permanence needed to exhibit true separation anxiety.
*Rolls over from her back*
- Rolling over from the back to the stomach is usually achieved between **4 and 6 months of age**.
- The child in the vignette cannot even roll over from a prone position, indicating she is not yet at the age for rolling from her back.
*Responds to calling of own name*
- Responding to one's own name is a more advanced auditory and cognitive milestone, generally developing between **6 and 9 months of age**.
- At 2 months, infants respond to voices and sounds but do not associate specific words with themselves.
*Reaches out for objects*
- Purposeful reaching and grasping for objects (palmar grasp) typically develops around **4 to 6 months of age**.
- A 2-month-old infant may swat at objects reflexively but does not exhibit coordinated, intentional reaching.
Question 160: A 6-year-old boy presents to the office to establish care after recently being assigned to a shelter run by the local child protective services authority. The nurse who performed the vitals and intake says that, when offered an age-appropriate book to read while waiting for the physician, the patient said that he has never attended a school of any sort and is unable to read. He answers questions with short responses and avoids eye contact for most of the visit. His father suffers from alcoholism and physically abused the patient’s mother. Physical examination is negative for any abnormal findings, including signs of fracture or bruising. Which of the following types of abuse has the child most likely experienced?
A. Sexual abuse
B. Child neglect (Correct Answer)
C. Physical abuse
D. No abuse
E. Emotional abuse
Explanation: ***Child neglect***
- This child's inability to read and complete lack of schooling at age 6 represents **educational neglect**, a failure to provide for basic developmental and educational needs
- Educational neglect is a specific subtype of child neglect recognized by child protective services and involves failure to enroll a child in school or provide required special education
- The avoidance of eye contact and limited verbal interaction suggest possible **emotional neglect** and lack of appropriate developmental stimulation
- The combination of no schooling, developmental delays in social interaction, and removal by CPS strongly indicates **neglect** as the primary form of maltreatment
*Sexual abuse*
- **Sexual abuse** involves engaging a child in sexual activities, exposure to sexual content, or sexual exploitation
- Nothing in the clinical presentation suggests sexual abuse—no concerning physical findings, no behavioral indicators specific to sexual abuse (such as age-inappropriate sexual knowledge or sexualized behavior)
*Physical abuse*
- **Physical abuse** involves non-accidental physical injury to a child
- While the father physically abused the mother, the physical examination of the child is **negative for signs of physical abuse** (no fractures, bruising, or other injuries)
- The child's presentation is primarily characterized by developmental and educational deficits, not physical trauma
*No abuse*
- A 6-year-old who has never attended school and cannot read has clearly experienced a **failure to meet basic educational needs**, which constitutes neglect
- The child's behavioral presentation (avoidance of eye contact, limited verbal responses) and the family environment (paternal alcoholism, domestic violence) further indicate an unsafe and neglectful home environment
- Removal by child protective services confirms that maltreatment has occurred
*Emotional abuse*
- While witnessing domestic violence can constitute **emotional abuse**, and the child may have experienced some degree of emotional maltreatment, this is not the **most likely** or primary form of abuse
- The most prominent and documentable form of maltreatment is the complete **failure to provide education**, which is specifically categorized as **educational neglect** rather than emotional abuse
- Emotional abuse typically involves patterns of behavior that harm a child's emotional development (terrorizing, rejecting, isolating), which may be present but is less clearly documented than the educational neglect