A 66-year-old woman comes to the physician because of a 1-week history of pruritic blister formation. Physical examination shows multiple 1–3 cm bullae on the palms, soles, lower legs, and inguinal folds. Gentle rubbing of the skin does not result in sloughing of the epidermis. Immunofluorescence studies of a perilesional skin biopsy specimen are most likely to show deposition of antibodies in which of the following areas?
Q42
A 52-year-old woman presents to the clinic complaining of dry mouth for the past 2 months. The patient states that she drinks a lot of water but that her mouth is always dry. She says that she recently went to the dentist and had 3 cavities, which is more than she has ever had in her adult life. She has a history of type 2 diabetes and rheumatoid arthritis. Her vital signs are within normal limits. Her physical exam is unremarkable except that her sclera are dry and erythematous and she has a deformity in the joints of her hands, bilaterally. What is the etiology of this patient’s symptoms?
Q43
A 69-year-old man presents to the urgent care clinic with a history of hypertension and a variety of systemic complaints including fatigue, occasional fever, abdominal pain, and diffuse palpable, pruritic eruptions over his lower extremities. He is currently unemployed. His medical history is significant for gout, hypertension, hypercholesterolemia, diabetes mellitus type II, HIV, and hepatitis C. He currently smokes 2 packs of cigarettes per day, drinks a 6-pack of beer per day, and endorses a history of injection drug use in the past with heroin but currently denies any drug use. His vital signs include: temperature 40.0°C (104.0°F), blood pressure 126/74 mm Hg, heart rate 111/min, and respiratory rate 23/min. On physical examination, the patient has motor weakness on dorsiflexion. Laboratory analysis shows an elevated erythrocyte sedimentation rate, elevated C-reactive protein, and proteinuria, increasing your suspicion of polyarteritis nodosa. Of the following options, which is the reaction mechanism that underlies polyarteritis nodosa?
Q44
A 32-year-old Caucasian female required a kidney transplant 3 years ago. She presents with elevated creatinine levels (2.6 mg/dl) and an elevated blood pressure (160/90 mmHg). A biopsy is taken of the transplanted kidney. Following histological findings, a diagnosis of chronic graft rejection is made. Which of the following is NOT a likely finding?
Q45
A 55-year-old woman presents with pain in both hands and wrists for several years. It is associated with morning stiffness that lasts for almost an hour. She has a blood pressure of 124/76 mm Hg, heart rate of 71/min, and respiratory rate of 14/min. Physical examination reveals tenderness and swelling in both hands and wrists. Laboratory investigations reveal the presence of anti-cyclic citrullinated peptide. Which of the following immune-mediated processes is responsible for this patient’s condition?
Q46
A 26-year-old African-American woman presents to the clinic for a routine check-up. Review of systems reveals that she often feels nervous and has recently developed a slight tremor. Of note, she has lost 15 pounds in the past 3 months, despite an increased appetite. The patient’s temperature is 99°F (37.2°C), blood pressure is 130/78 mmHg, pulse is 85/min, and respirations are 14/min with an oxygen saturation of 98% on room air. On physical exam, her skin is warm and she has mild exophthalmos. Which of the following is the direct mechanism causing the patient's ophthalmologic findings?
Q47
Six days after undergoing open reduction and internal fixation of a left-sided femur fracture that he sustained in a motor vehicle collision, a 67-year-old man has sudden-onset severe pain and paresthesia in his right arm. The operation and the immediate postoperative course were uneventful. Prior to hospitalization, he did not take any medications. He has smoked 1 pack of cigarettes daily for 25 years. His temperature is 37.3°C (99.2°F), pulse is 105/min and regular, respirations are 22/min, and blood pressure is 156/94 mm Hg. Physical examination of the right arm shows decreased brachial and radial pulses, and a capillary refill time of 6 seconds. The skin over the right arm is pale and cold to the touch. His left leg is casted. Preoperative laboratory studies were within the reference range. Current laboratory studies show:
Hemoglobin 13.8 g/dL
Leukocyte count 8,300/mm3
Platelet count 60,000/mm3
Serum
Partial thromboplastin time, activated 55 sec
Prothrombin time 14 seconds
D-Dimer positive
Arterial Doppler ultrasonography shows occlusion of the right brachial artery. Which of the following is the most likely explanation for this patient's current symptoms?
Q48
A 41-year-old man comes to the physician for generalized fatigue and weakness of his left hand for 4 weeks. During this period he also had multiple episodes of cramping abdominal pain and nausea. He works at a battery manufacturing plant. His temperature is 37°C (98.6°F), pulse is 75/min, and blood pressure is 124/74 mm Hg. Examination shows pale conjunctivae and gingival hyperpigmentation. There is weakness when extending the left wrist against resistance. The brachioradialis reflex is 1+ on the left and 2+ on the right. The radial pulse is palpable bilaterally. The remainder of the examination shows no abnormalities. Further evaluation of this patient is most likely to show which of the following?
Q49
A 31-year-old woman presents with pruritic vesicles on the right side of her torso. She notes that the lesions appeared 2 days ago and have not improved. One day prior to their appearance, she says that she experienced a burning sensation in the affected area. The patient is afebrile and vital signs are within normal limits. Upon physical examination, there are painful vesicles noted that are localized to the right T10 skin dermatome. Which of the following complications is associated with this patient’s likely diagnosis?
Q50
A previously healthy 38-year-old woman is brought to the emergency department by her husband because of left-sided weakness. As she was getting dressed this morning, she was suddenly unable to button up her shirt. When she showed her husband, he noticed that she seemed confused. She has a 3-year history of diabetes mellitus, for which she takes metformin. She had a knee operation 2 days ago. Her temperature is 38.9°C (102°F), pulse is 98/min, respirations are 17/min, and blood pressure is 138/85 mm Hg. She is confused and oriented only to person. Neurologic examination shows diminished muscle strength on the left side. There are scattered petechiae over the chest, arms, and legs. Laboratory studies show:
Hemoglobin 7.5 g/dL
Leukocyte count 10,500/mm3
Platelet count 40,000/mm3
Prothrombin time 15 seconds
Partial thromboplastin time 36 seconds
Serum
Bilirubin
Total 3.5 mg/dL
Direct 0.3 mg/dL
Urea nitrogen 35 mg/dL
Creatinine 2.5 mg/dL
Lactate dehydrogenase 1074 U/L
A peripheral smear shows numerous schistocytes. Further evaluation is most likely going to show which of the following findings?
Systemic Pathology US Medical PG Practice Questions and MCQs
Question 41: A 66-year-old woman comes to the physician because of a 1-week history of pruritic blister formation. Physical examination shows multiple 1–3 cm bullae on the palms, soles, lower legs, and inguinal folds. Gentle rubbing of the skin does not result in sloughing of the epidermis. Immunofluorescence studies of a perilesional skin biopsy specimen are most likely to show deposition of antibodies in which of the following areas?
A. In dermal papillae
B. Between epidermal keratinocytes
C. No staining
D. In dermal vessel walls
E. At the dermoepidermal junction (Correct Answer)
Explanation: ***At the dermoepidermal junction***
- This presentation of **tense bullae** on flexural surfaces in an elderly patient, with a negative **Nikolsky's sign** (no epidermal sloughing with rubbing), is classic for **bullous pemphigoid**.
- **Direct immunofluorescence** in bullous pemphigoid typically reveals linear deposits of **IgG** and/or **C3** at the **dermoepidermal junction (basement membrane zone)**.
*In dermal papillae*
- Deposition in dermal papillae is characteristic of **dermatitis herpetiformis**, which typically presents with intensely pruritic papules and vesicles, often on extensor surfaces.
- The morphology and distribution of lesions in this patient (large bullae on palms, soles, inguinal folds) are not consistent with dermatitis herpetiformis.
*Between epidermal keratinocytes*
- Deposition of autoantibodies (IgG) between epidermal keratinocytes is a hallmark of **pemphigus vulgaris**, resulting in suprabasal blistering and a positive **Nikolsky's sign**.
- This patient exhibits **tense bullae** and a **negative Nikolsky's sign**, which rules out pemphigus vulgaris.
*No staining*
- The presence of pruritic blister formation in an elderly patient strongly suggests an autoimmune bullous disease, for which direct immunofluorescence is a key diagnostic tool.
- A lack of staining would indicate a non-immunological cause of blistering or a different type of dermatological condition, which is unlikely given the clinical picture.
*In dermal vessel walls*
- Immune complex deposition in dermal vessel walls is characteristic of diseases like **leukocytoclastic vasculitis**, which presents with palpable purpura rather than tense bullae.
- The clinical presentation of pruritic bullae in this patient is inconsistent with a vasculitis.
Question 42: A 52-year-old woman presents to the clinic complaining of dry mouth for the past 2 months. The patient states that she drinks a lot of water but that her mouth is always dry. She says that she recently went to the dentist and had 3 cavities, which is more than she has ever had in her adult life. She has a history of type 2 diabetes and rheumatoid arthritis. Her vital signs are within normal limits. Her physical exam is unremarkable except that her sclera are dry and erythematous and she has a deformity in the joints of her hands, bilaterally. What is the etiology of this patient’s symptoms?
A. Autoimmune destruction of exocrine glands (Correct Answer)
B. Obstruction of salivary ducts
C. Uncontrolled blood glucose levels
D. Poor hygiene due to inability to care for self
E. Deposition of collagen in the salivary glands
Explanation: ***Autoimmune destruction of exocrine glands***
- The patient's symptoms of **dry mouth (xerostomia)**, dry eyes (suggested by dry and erythematous sclera), and increased dental caries point towards **Sjögren's syndrome**, an autoimmune disease characterized by lymphocytic infiltration and destruction of **exocrine glands**, particularly salivary and lacrimal glands.
- Her history of **rheumatoid arthritis** further supports this, as Sjögren's syndrome frequently **co-occurs with other autoimmune disorders**, especially rheumatoid arthritis and systemic lupus erythematosus.
*Obstruction of salivary ducts*
- Salivary duct obstruction, often due to **sialolithiasis (salivary stones)**, typically presents with sudden onset of pain and swelling exacerbated by eating, which is not described.
- This condition primarily affects one or a few ducts, and it does not usually cause the **systemic dryness** affecting both the eyes and mouth seen in this patient.
*Uncontrolled blood glucose levels*
- **Uncontrolled diabetes** can cause **polyuria and polydipsia**, leading to dehydration and dry mouth; however, it is less likely to cause the specific combination of **dry eyes** and **increased dental caries** as the primary etiology of the dry mouth.
- The patient's primary complaint is persistent dry mouth despite drinking a lot of water, which is more suggestive of a **glandular dysfunction** rather than simply dehydration from high glucose.
*Poor hygiene due to inability to care for self*
- While poor oral hygiene can lead to increased dental caries, it does not explain the **dry mouth** or the **dry and erythematous sclera**.
- There is no information in the vignette to suggest that the patient has an inability to care for herself.
*Deposition of collagen in the salivary glands*
- **Collagen deposition** in salivary glands can occur in diseases like **systemic sclerosis (scleroderma)**, leading to xerostomia due to glandular fibrosis.
- However, scleroderma would typically present with other prominent features like **skin thickening, Raynaud's phenomenon**, or **internal organ involvement**, which are not mentioned in this patient.
Question 43: A 69-year-old man presents to the urgent care clinic with a history of hypertension and a variety of systemic complaints including fatigue, occasional fever, abdominal pain, and diffuse palpable, pruritic eruptions over his lower extremities. He is currently unemployed. His medical history is significant for gout, hypertension, hypercholesterolemia, diabetes mellitus type II, HIV, and hepatitis C. He currently smokes 2 packs of cigarettes per day, drinks a 6-pack of beer per day, and endorses a history of injection drug use in the past with heroin but currently denies any drug use. His vital signs include: temperature 40.0°C (104.0°F), blood pressure 126/74 mm Hg, heart rate 111/min, and respiratory rate 23/min. On physical examination, the patient has motor weakness on dorsiflexion. Laboratory analysis shows an elevated erythrocyte sedimentation rate, elevated C-reactive protein, and proteinuria, increasing your suspicion of polyarteritis nodosa. Of the following options, which is the reaction mechanism that underlies polyarteritis nodosa?
A. Type IV–cell-mediated (delayed) hypersensitivity reaction
B. Type II–cytotoxic hypersensitivity reaction
C. Type I–anaphylactic hypersensitivity reaction
D. Type III–immune complex-mediated hypersensitivity reaction (Correct Answer)
E. Type I and IV–mixed anaphylactic and cell-mediated hypersensitivity reactions
Explanation: ***Type III–immune complex-mediated hypersensitivity reaction***
- Polyarteritis nodosa (PAN) is characterized by **necrotizing vasculitis** of medium-sized muscular arteries, a hallmark of **Type III hypersensitivity** involving antigen-antibody immune complexes.
- In many cases, **Hepatitis B virus (HBV)** infection is a known trigger, leading to the formation of HBV antigen-antibody complexes that deposit in vessel walls, as seen in this patient's history of hepatitis C which can act similarly.
*Type IV–cell-mediated (delayed) hypersensitivity reaction*
- This type of reaction involves **T-lymphocytes** and **macrophages**, causing tissue damage that is delayed, such as in contact dermatitis or transplant rejection.
- While inflammation is present in PAN, the primary mechanism of vascular damage is not mediated directly by T-cells but by immune complex deposition.
*Type II–cytotoxic hypersensitivity reaction*
- This reaction involves **antibodies binding to antigens on cell surfaces** or extracellular matrices, leading to cell destruction, as seen in hemolytic anemia or Graves' disease.
- PAN is a vasculitis where circulating immune complexes deposit in vessels, rather than antibodies directly targeting vessel wall cells.
*Type I–anaphylactic hypersensitivity reaction*
- This is an **immediate hypersensitivity reaction** mediated by **IgE antibodies** binding to mast cells and basophils, leading to histamine release, as seen in allergies or anaphylaxis.
- The chronic inflammatory nature and systemic symptoms of PAN are not characteristic of an acute, IgE-mediated response.
*Type I and IV–mixed anaphylactic and cell-mediated hypersensitivity reactions*
- There is currently **no established evidence** to support a combined Type I and Type IV hypersensitivity mechanism as the underlying cause of polyarteritis nodosa.
- While various immune responses occur in vasculitis, the predominant mechanism directly responsible for the necrotizing inflammation in PAN aligns specifically with **immune complex deposition**.
Question 44: A 32-year-old Caucasian female required a kidney transplant 3 years ago. She presents with elevated creatinine levels (2.6 mg/dl) and an elevated blood pressure (160/90 mmHg). A biopsy is taken of the transplanted kidney. Following histological findings, a diagnosis of chronic graft rejection is made. Which of the following is NOT a likely finding?
A. Tubular atrophy
B. Glomerular destruction
C. Interstitial fibrosis
D. Glomerular crescents (Correct Answer)
E. Graft arteriosclerosis
Explanation: ***Glomerular crescents***
- **Glomerular crescents** are characteristic of rapidly progressive glomerulonephritis, an acute inflammatory process, and not typically associated with chronic allograft nephropathy.
- While crescentic glomerulonephritis can lead to chronic kidney damage, the presence of **active crescents** suggests a more acute, severe immunological injury, rather than the established fibrotic changes of chronic rejection.
*Tubular atrophy*
- **Tubular atrophy** is a common feature in chronic allograft nephropathy, reflecting ongoing injury and loss of functional renal tubules.
- It results from ischemia, inflammation, and fibrotic changes that compromise the tubules' integrity and function over time.
*Glomerular destruction*
- In chronic rejection, **glomeruli can undergo destruction** due to chronic inflammation, scarring, and ischemic changes, leading to glomerulosclerosis and loss of filtration capacity.
- This is a progressive process where glomeruli become non-functional and eventually are replaced by fibrous tissue.
*Interstitial fibrosis*
- **Interstitial fibrosis** is a hallmark of chronic allograft nephropathy, representing the accumulation of fibrous tissue in the renal interstitium.
- It significantly contributes to the decline in kidney function by impairing oxygen and nutrient delivery to tubules and compressing them.
*Graft arteriosclerosis*
- **Graft arteriosclerosis**, also known as transplant vasculopathy, is a key pathological feature of chronic rejection, characterized by concentric intimal thickening of arteries.
- This vascular damage leads to chronic ischemia and contributes to the progressive loss of graft function observed in chronic rejection.
Question 45: A 55-year-old woman presents with pain in both hands and wrists for several years. It is associated with morning stiffness that lasts for almost an hour. She has a blood pressure of 124/76 mm Hg, heart rate of 71/min, and respiratory rate of 14/min. Physical examination reveals tenderness and swelling in both hands and wrists. Laboratory investigations reveal the presence of anti-cyclic citrullinated peptide. Which of the following immune-mediated processes is responsible for this patient’s condition?
A. Self-tolerance
B. Type IV hypersensitivity
C. IgE-mediated immune responses only
D. Both type II and III hypersensitivities
E. Type III hypersensitivity (Correct Answer)
Explanation: ***Type III hypersensitivity***
- Rheumatoid arthritis (RA), suggested by **symmetric joint pain**, **morning stiffness >1 hour**, and **positive anti-CCP antibodies**, is primarily mediated by **Type III hypersensitivity** (immune complex-mediated).
- **Immune complexes** (rheumatoid factor-IgG complexes, anti-CCP complexes) deposit in the **synovium**, activate **complement**, and recruit inflammatory cells causing **chronic synovitis** and joint destruction.
- Note: Type IV hypersensitivity (T cell-mediated) also contributes significantly to RA pathogenesis, though this option is not provided.
*Self-tolerance*
- **Self-tolerance** is the immune system's ability to recognize and not attack self-antigens.
- RA represents a **breakdown of self-tolerance** (an autoimmune disease), not a mechanism of tissue damage itself.
*Type IV hypersensitivity*
- **Type IV hypersensitivity** (delayed-type, T cell-mediated) does play an important role in RA pathogenesis, with CD4+ T cells driving chronic inflammation.
- However, the **primary mechanism** involves immune complex deposition (Type III), making Type III the more complete answer when Type IV is not combined with it.
*IgE-mediated immune responses only*
- **IgE-mediated responses** (Type I hypersensitivity) cause **allergic reactions** like anaphylaxis, asthma, and hay fever.
- This involves IgE binding to mast cells/basophils with histamine release, which is **not characteristic of RA**.
*Both type II and III hypersensitivities*
- While **Type III hypersensitivity** is central to RA, **Type II hypersensitivity** (antibody-mediated cytotoxicity against cell surface antigens) is **not a primary mechanism** in RA.
- Type II occurs in diseases like Goodpasture syndrome, Graves' disease, and myasthenia gravis, where antibodies directly target cell surface receptors or tissue antigens.
- In RA, autoantibodies (RF, anti-CCP) primarily form **immune complexes** (Type III), not direct cell targeting (Type II).
Question 46: A 26-year-old African-American woman presents to the clinic for a routine check-up. Review of systems reveals that she often feels nervous and has recently developed a slight tremor. Of note, she has lost 15 pounds in the past 3 months, despite an increased appetite. The patient’s temperature is 99°F (37.2°C), blood pressure is 130/78 mmHg, pulse is 85/min, and respirations are 14/min with an oxygen saturation of 98% on room air. On physical exam, her skin is warm and she has mild exophthalmos. Which of the following is the direct mechanism causing the patient's ophthalmologic findings?
A. Decreased levels of T4/T3
B. Anti-myelin antibodies
C. Lymphocytic infiltration (Correct Answer)
D. Anti-thyroglobulin antibodies
E. Anti-thyroid peroxidase antibodies
Explanation: ***Lymphocytic infiltration***
- **Exophthalmos** in Graves' disease is caused by an **autoimmune inflammatory process** involving the **extraocular muscles** and **orbital connective tissue**.
- This inflammation leads to **lymphocytic infiltration**, **fibrosis**, and the accumulation of **hyaluronic acid** and **glycosaminoglycans**, causing orbital tissue expansion and protrusion of the eyeballs.
*Decreased levels of T4/T3*
- **Decreased T4/T3 levels** are characteristic of **hypothyroidism**, not hyperthyroidism, as seen in this patient.
- Hypothyroidism does not directly cause exophthalmos; rather, it can lead to **periorbital edema** due to generalized fluid retention.
*Anti-myelin antibodies*
- **Anti-myelin antibodies** are associated with **demyelinating diseases** like **multiple sclerosis**, affecting the central nervous system.
- They are not involved in the pathogenesis of exophthalmos or thyroid-related ophthalmopathy.
*Anti-thyroglobulin antibodies*
- **Anti-thyroglobulin antibodies** are often seen in **Hashimoto's thyroiditis**, a cause of hypothyroidism, but can also be present in Graves' disease.
- While they are markers of thyroid autoimmunity, they do not directly cause the **ophthalmologic changes** of Graves' disease.
*Anti-thyroid peroxidase antibodies*
- **Anti-thyroid peroxidase antibodies (TPOAbs)** are also primarily associated with **Hashimoto's thyroiditis** and, less commonly, Graves' disease.
- Like anti-thyroglobulin antibodies, they indicate thyroid autoimmunity but are not the direct cause of the **orbital inflammation** and exophthalmos.
Question 47: Six days after undergoing open reduction and internal fixation of a left-sided femur fracture that he sustained in a motor vehicle collision, a 67-year-old man has sudden-onset severe pain and paresthesia in his right arm. The operation and the immediate postoperative course were uneventful. Prior to hospitalization, he did not take any medications. He has smoked 1 pack of cigarettes daily for 25 years. His temperature is 37.3°C (99.2°F), pulse is 105/min and regular, respirations are 22/min, and blood pressure is 156/94 mm Hg. Physical examination of the right arm shows decreased brachial and radial pulses, and a capillary refill time of 6 seconds. The skin over the right arm is pale and cold to the touch. His left leg is casted. Preoperative laboratory studies were within the reference range. Current laboratory studies show:
Hemoglobin 13.8 g/dL
Leukocyte count 8,300/mm3
Platelet count 60,000/mm3
Serum
Partial thromboplastin time, activated 55 sec
Prothrombin time 14 seconds
D-Dimer positive
Arterial Doppler ultrasonography shows occlusion of the right brachial artery. Which of the following is the most likely explanation for this patient's current symptoms?
A. Patent foramen ovale
B. Atrial fibrillation
C. Adverse effect of medication
D. Peripheral arterial disease
E. Disseminated intravascular coagulation (Correct Answer)
Explanation: ***Disseminated intravascular coagulation***
- The patient's **sudden-onset severe pain**, **paresthesia**, **decreased pulses**, **pallor**, and **coldness** in the right arm, along with **occlusion of the brachial artery**, are highly suggestive of **acute limb ischemia** due to **arterial thrombosis**. The laboratory findings of **thrombocytopenia (platelet count 60,000/mm3)**, **prolonged aPTT (55 sec)**, and **positive D-dimer** in a patient with a recent major trauma and surgery are classic signs of **disseminated intravascular coagulation (DIC)**. DIC involves widespread microvascular thrombosis and consumption of clotting factors and platelets, leading to both clotting and bleeding manifestations.
- DIC is a severe condition that can follow **major trauma** (like a femur fracture from a motor vehicle collision) and **surgery**, especially when complicated by **sepsis** or prolonged immobility, which increases the inflammatory response and activates coagulation. The clinical picture points to a consumptive coagulopathy leading to thrombotic occlusion.
*Patent foramen ovale*
- While a **patent foramen ovale (PFO)** can allow for **paradoxical embolism** (e.g., a venous clot crossing to the arterial circulation), it typically doesn't present with the specific laboratory abnormalities of **thrombocytopenia**, **prolonged aPTT**, and **elevated D-dimer** that point to a systemic coagulopathy.
- A PFO itself doesn't cause the hypercoagulable state or consume platelets and clotting factors, though it can provide a pathway for an embolus if a clot forms elsewhere.
*Atrial fibrillation*
- **Atrial fibrillation** is a common cause of **arterial emboli**, particularly to the brain and peripheral arteries due to thrombus formation in the left atrium. However, the patient's pulse is described as **105/min and regular**, which argues against atrial fibrillation as the primary cause.
- Furthermore, atrial fibrillation would not explain the **thrombocytopenia** or **prolonged aPTT** seen in this patient, which are key indicators of DIC.
*Adverse effect of medication*
- While adverse drug reactions can cause a wide array of symptoms, there is no information about new medications started prior to the sudden onset of symptoms that would directly explain acute arterial occlusion, thrombocytopenia, and prolonged aPTT.
- Heparin-induced thrombocytopenia and thrombosis (HITT) could cause similar symptoms, but it typically occurs 5-10 days after heparin exposure, and the patient's history doesn't mention recent heparin initiation as the cause, nor does it typically present with such a significant prolongation of aPTT in combination with severe thrombocytopenia and D-dimer elevation from global coagulopathy like DIC.
*Peripheral arterial disease*
- **Peripheral arterial disease (PAD)** is a chronic condition causing **atherosclerotic narrowing** of the arteries, and while it could lead to acute on chronic limb ischemia, it typically develops over time and is not characterized by the sudden onset of symptoms in a limb that was previously healthy or symptoms in conjunction with **acute onset thrombocytopenia**, **prolonged aPTT**, and **elevated D-dimer**.
- Although the patient's smoking history increases his risk for PAD, the acute timing, severity, and associated laboratory findings are more indicative of an acute thrombotic process from a systemic coagulopathy rather than chronic PAD.
Question 48: A 41-year-old man comes to the physician for generalized fatigue and weakness of his left hand for 4 weeks. During this period he also had multiple episodes of cramping abdominal pain and nausea. He works at a battery manufacturing plant. His temperature is 37°C (98.6°F), pulse is 75/min, and blood pressure is 124/74 mm Hg. Examination shows pale conjunctivae and gingival hyperpigmentation. There is weakness when extending the left wrist against resistance. The brachioradialis reflex is 1+ on the left and 2+ on the right. The radial pulse is palpable bilaterally. The remainder of the examination shows no abnormalities. Further evaluation of this patient is most likely to show which of the following?
A. Septal thickening on chest x-ray
B. White bands across the nails
C. Beta‑2 microglobulin in urine
D. Increased total iron binding capacity
E. Basophilic stippling of erythrocytes (Correct Answer)
Explanation: ***Basophilic stippling of erythrocytes***
- This patient's symptoms (fatigue, weakness, abdominal pain, nausea, **wrist drop**, gingival hyperpigmentation) combined with his occupation (battery manufacturing) are highly suggestive of **lead poisoning**.
- **Basophilic stippling** is a classic finding in **lead poisoning**, caused by the inhibition of erythrocyte pyrimidine 5'-nucleotidase, leading to aggregated ribosomes within red blood cells.
*Septal thickening on chest x-ray*
- **Septal thickening** on chest x-ray is often associated with pulmonary conditions like **pulmonary fibrosis** or **pneumoconiosis** (e.g., asbestosis), which are not indicated by the presenting symptoms.
- While occupational exposures can lead to lung disease, the neurological and gastrointestinal symptoms, along with **gingival hyperpigmentation** and **wrist drop**, are not typical for a primary pulmonary pathology.
*White bands across the nails*
- **White bands across the nails** (Mee's lines) are typically associated with **arsenic poisoning**, thallium poisoning, or systemic illnesses like heart failure or Hodgkin's disease.
- Although heavy metal poisoning is suspected, the constellation of symptoms points specifically to lead rather than arsenic.
*Beta-2 microglobulin in urine*
- Elevated **beta-2 microglobulin in urine** is a marker of **tubular proteinuria** and **renal tubular damage**, often seen in conditions like exposure to cadmium, mercury, or some medications.
- While chronic lead exposure can affect renal function, **tubular proteinuria** is not the most immediate or characteristic finding associated with the acute symptoms presented, nor is it as specific as other findings for lead poisoning.
*Increased total iron binding capacity*
- **Increased total iron binding capacity (TIBC)** is typically seen in **iron deficiency anemia**, where the body's iron stores are low, and more transferrin is available to bind iron.
- Lead poisoning causes anemia (often **sideroblastic anemia**), but it is generally characterized by **normal or decreased TIBC** due to impaired heme synthesis and often elevated iron stores rather than iron deficiency.
Question 49: A 31-year-old woman presents with pruritic vesicles on the right side of her torso. She notes that the lesions appeared 2 days ago and have not improved. One day prior to their appearance, she says that she experienced a burning sensation in the affected area. The patient is afebrile and vital signs are within normal limits. Upon physical examination, there are painful vesicles noted that are localized to the right T10 skin dermatome. Which of the following complications is associated with this patient’s likely diagnosis?
A. Cerebellar ataxia
B. Pneumonia
C. Fever
D. Postherpetic neuralgia (Correct Answer)
E. Bacterial superinfection of the affected skin
Explanation: ***Postherpetic neuralgia***
- The patient's symptoms of **pruritic vesicles** on one side of the torso, preceded by a **burning sensation**, localized to a **dermatome**, are highly suggestive of **herpes zoster** (shingles).
- **Postherpetic neuralgia** is the most common and often debilitating complication of herpes zoster, characterized by persistent pain in the affected dermatome after the rash has resolved.
*Cerebellar ataxia*
- **Cerebellar ataxia** is not a typical complication of herpes zoster, although generalized varicella-zoster virus (VZV) infection (chickenpox) can rarely be associated with acute cerebellar ataxia, particularly in children.
- This patient presents with localized herpes zoster, not generalized VZV infection.
*Pneumonia*
- **Pneumonia** can be a complication of primary varicella (chickenpox) in adults, but it is rare with herpes zoster, which represents reactivation of the latent virus.
- The clinical presentation does not suggest respiratory involvement.
*Fever*
- While mild fever can sometimes accompany herpes zoster, it is generally not considered a "complication" but rather a possible systemic symptom during the acute phase.
- The patient in this case is explicitly stated to be **afebrile**.
*Bacterial superinfection of the affected skin*
- **Bacterial superinfection** of zoster lesions can occur due to scratching or poor hygiene, but it is not the *most likely* or hallmark complication associated with herpes zoster.
- There is no information in the vignette to suggest signs of bacterial superinfection, such as active pus, significant erythema beyond the vesicles, or increasing pain despite antiviral treatment (which would typically be administered).
Question 50: A previously healthy 38-year-old woman is brought to the emergency department by her husband because of left-sided weakness. As she was getting dressed this morning, she was suddenly unable to button up her shirt. When she showed her husband, he noticed that she seemed confused. She has a 3-year history of diabetes mellitus, for which she takes metformin. She had a knee operation 2 days ago. Her temperature is 38.9°C (102°F), pulse is 98/min, respirations are 17/min, and blood pressure is 138/85 mm Hg. She is confused and oriented only to person. Neurologic examination shows diminished muscle strength on the left side. There are scattered petechiae over the chest, arms, and legs. Laboratory studies show:
Hemoglobin 7.5 g/dL
Leukocyte count 10,500/mm3
Platelet count 40,000/mm3
Prothrombin time 15 seconds
Partial thromboplastin time 36 seconds
Serum
Bilirubin
Total 3.5 mg/dL
Direct 0.3 mg/dL
Urea nitrogen 35 mg/dL
Creatinine 2.5 mg/dL
Lactate dehydrogenase 1074 U/L
A peripheral smear shows numerous schistocytes. Further evaluation is most likely going to show which of the following findings?
A. Decreased ADAMTS13 activity in serum (Correct Answer)
B. Enterohemorrhagic Escherichia coli on stool culture
C. Elevated fibrin degradation products in serum
D. Decreased megakaryocytes on bone marrow biopsy
E. Positive direct Coombs test
Explanation: **Decreased ADAMTS13 activity in serum**
- The patient's presentation with **neurological symptoms (confusion, left-sided weakness)**, **renal dysfunction (elevated BUN and creatinine)**, **thrombocytopenia (platelet count 40,000/mm³)**, **microangiopathic hemolytic anemia (schistocytes on smear, high LDH, low hemoglobin, elevated bilirubin)**, and **fever** constitutes the classic pentad of **Thrombotic Thrombocytopenic Purpura (TTP)**.
- TTP is characterized by a severe deficiency (<10%) in **ADAMTS13 activity**, a metalloprotease responsible for cleaving large multimers of von Willebrand factor, leading to widespread platelet adhesion and microthrombi formation.
*Enterohemorrhagic Escherichia coli on stool culture*
- This is characteristic of **hemolytic-uremic syndrome (HUS)**, which typically presents with microangiopathic hemolytic anemia, thrombocytopenia, and acute kidney injury, often following a diarrheal illness.
- However, the prominent neurological symptoms and absence of preceding diarrhea in this case make HUS less likely than TTP, though both fall under the umbrella of thrombotic microangiopathies.
*Elevated fibrin degradation products in serum*
- Elevated **fibrin degradation products (FDPs)** and **D-dimers** are hallmarks of **Disseminated Intravascular Coagulation (DIC)**, which involves systemic activation of coagulation leading to widespread microthrombi and consumption of clotting factors and platelets.
- While thrombocytopenia and schistocytes can be seen in DIC, the constellation of prominent neurological findings and severe ADAMTS13 deficiency points more specifically to TTP, and the normal PT/PTT values make DIC less probable as they are typically prolonged in DIC due to consumption of clotting factors.
*Decreased megakaryocytes on bone marrow biopsy*
- A decrease in megakaryocytes would indicate a problem with platelet production in the bone marrow, as seen in **aplastic anemia** or other bone marrow failures.
- In TTP, thrombocytopenia is due to increased peripheral consumption of platelets in thrombi, not decreased production; thus, megakaryocytes in the bone marrow would typically be normal or increased in response to the low platelet count.
*Positive direct Coombs test*
- A positive **direct Coombs test** indicates the presence of antibodies or complement on the surface of red blood cells, which is characteristic of **autoimmune hemolytic anemia**.
- While hemolytic anemia is present, the associated thrombocytopenia, neurological symptoms, and renal dysfunction, along with schistocytes, are not typical features of autoimmune hemolytic anemia in isolation.