A 76-year-old man presents with progressive fatigue, shortness of breath, and brownish discoloration of the urine for the past 5 weeks. Past medical history is significant for aortic valve replacement surgery 2 years ago. His vital signs include: temperature 36.7°C (98.0°F), blood pressure 130/85 mm Hg, pulse 87/min. Physical examination reveals generalized pallor. Skin appears jaundiced. Laboratory findings are significant for the following:
Hemoglobin 9.7 g/dL
Reticulocyte count 8%
Indirect bilirubin 4 mg/dL
Lactate dehydrogenase 250 U/L
Direct antiglobulin test Negative
Which of the following would most likely be found on a peripheral blood smear in this patient?
Q32
A 15-year-old African-American male with a BMI of 22 is brought to his physician by his mother to address concerns about a change in his dietary habits. The patient's mother notes that he is constantly hungry and thirsty, despite his eating and drinking water in excess. She also reports an increase in his use of the bathroom. The physician begins explaining that her son's symptoms are likely due to which of the following?
Q33
A 28-year-old man seeks evaluation at a medical office for facial swelling and blood in his urine during the last 3 days. He claims that he has had weakness, malaise, and low-grade fevers for the past 3 months. On physical examination, the blood pressure is 160/96 mm Hg and he has periorbital edema bilaterally. The lab testing is significant for leukocytosis, elevated blood urea nitrogen, and elevated serum creatinine. Urinalysis shows gross hematuria, proteinuria, and red blood cell casts. You suspect that this patient has Goodpasture’s disease and decide to order additional tests to confirm the diagnosis. Antibodies to which of the following would most likely be present in this patient if your suspicion is correct?
Q34
A 44-year-old female presents to her primary care physician complaining of fatigue. She reports a four-month history of increasing fatigue accompanied by occasional constipation. She also reports a 15-pound weight gain over the same time period. She is otherwise healthy and takes no medications. She has never been pregnant. On physical examination, her skin is dry and cracked. Patellar reflexes are 1+ bilaterally. Laboratory analysis reveals an elevated serum TSH and decreased serum and free T4. Her blood is positive for the presence of specific antibodies. A biopsy of this patient’s thyroid gland would most likely reveal which of the following?
Q35
A 53-year-old woman seeks medical care for superficial erosions and blisters over the skin of her head and trunk. She also has significant involvement of her buccal mucosa, which has made eating difficult. A year earlier, she developed tender sores on the oral mucosa and soft palate of her mouth, which was initially treated as herpes simplex stomatitis. Her condition worsened despite treatment, resulting in the development of eroded areas over her trunk and extremities, with a 10 kg weight loss. Upon further questioning, she denies itching, but she notes that the top layer of her skin could be easily removed when firm horizontal pressure was applied. What is the most likely diagnosis for this patient’s condition?
Q36
A 4-month-old boy with a history of multiple infections presents with muscle stiffness. On physical exam, he is found to have carpopedal spasm as well as a heart murmur. Based on your clinical suspicion you decide to obtain a chest X-ray which shows a diminished shadow in the mediastinum. A mutation in which of the following chromosomes is the most likely cause of this patient's presentation?
Q37
A 7-year-old girl is brought to the emergency department because she has had abdominal pain and vomiting for the past day. The pain is intermittent, diffuse in nature, and worse after meals. She does not have loose or bloody stools. She has had a nonpruritic rash on her legs and swelling of her ankles for 6 days. She was treated with oral amoxicillin for a sore throat 2 weeks ago. Her immunizations are up-to-date. Vital signs are within normal limits. Examination of the lower extremities shows non-blanching, raised erythematous papules. The left ankle joint is swollen and warm, and its range of motion is limited by pain. Abdominal examination shows tenderness to palpation in the left lower quadrant without guarding or rebound. Bowel sounds are normal. Test of the stool for occult blood is positive. Laboratory studies show:
Hemoglobin 10.1 g/dL
Leukocyte count
11,800/mm3
Platelet count 431,000/mm3
Erythrocyte sedimentation rate 45 mm/h
Serum
Glucose 72 mg/dL
Creatinine 0.9 mg/dL
Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?
Q38
A 28-year-old woman at 36 weeks gestation presents with severe headache, epigastric pain, and visual disturbances. Her blood pressure is 160/110 mmHg. Laboratory studies show a hematocrit of 32%, leukocyte count of 9,400/mm³, and platelet count of 96,000/mm³. Serum studies reveal an aspartate aminotransferase of 94 U/L and an alanine aminotransferase of 92 U/L. Which of the following is the most likely cause of this patient's condition?
Q39
A 16-month-old girl presents for a routine examination. The patient’s mother says that the child is craving ice and often gasps for breath while walking or playing. Family history is unremarkable. The patient is afebrile, and vital signs are within normal limits. Her weight is at the 20th percentile and height is at the 35th percentile for age and sex. Conjunctival pallor is noted on physical examination. Laboratory findings are significant for the following:
Hemoglobin 9.2 g/dL
Mean corpuscular volume 72 μm3
Mean corpuscular hemoglobin 21 pg/cell
Serum ferritin 9 ng/mL
Red cell distribution width 16% (ref: 11.5–14.5%)
Which of the following additional laboratory findings would most likely be found in this patient?
Q40
A 23-year-old man is brought to the emergency department by ambulance. The patient was found unconscious in his bedroom after a suicide attempt. The patient had cut his wrists using a kitchen knife. The patient is unresponsive and pale. His temperature is 96°F (35.6°C), blood pressure is 70/35 mmHg, pulse is 190/min, respirations are 19/min, and oxygen saturation is 92% on room air. Pressure is applied to his bilateral wrist lacerations. His Glasgow Coma Scale (GCS) is 7. A full trauma assessment is performed and reveals no other injuries. IV fluids are started as well as a rapid transfusion sequence. Norepinephrine is administered. Repeat vitals demonstrate that his blood pressure is 100/65 mmHg and pulse is 100/min. The patient is responsive and seems mildly confused. Resuscitation is continued and the patient's GCS improves to 15. Thirty minutes later, the patient's GCS is 11. His temperature is 103°F (39.4°C), blood pressure is 90/60 mmHg, pulse is 122/min, respirations are 22/min, and oxygen saturation is 99% on room air. The patient complains of flank pain. Laboratory values are ordered and demonstrate the following:
Hemoglobin: 9 g/dL
Hematocrit: 27%
Leukocyte count: 10,500 cells/mm^3 with normal differential
Haptoglobin: 11 mg/dL
Platelet count: 198,000/mm^3
Serum:
Na+: 139 mEq/L
Cl-: 101 mEq/L
K+: 4.4 mEq/L
HCO3-: 23 mEq/L
BUN: 27 mg/dL
Glucose: 99 mg/dL
Creatinine: 1.5 mg/dL
Ca2+: 10.0 mg/dL
Bilirubin: 3.2 mg/dL
AST: 22 U/L
ALT: 15 U/L
Which of the following describes the most likely diagnosis?
Systemic Pathology US Medical PG Practice Questions and MCQs
Question 31: A 76-year-old man presents with progressive fatigue, shortness of breath, and brownish discoloration of the urine for the past 5 weeks. Past medical history is significant for aortic valve replacement surgery 2 years ago. His vital signs include: temperature 36.7°C (98.0°F), blood pressure 130/85 mm Hg, pulse 87/min. Physical examination reveals generalized pallor. Skin appears jaundiced. Laboratory findings are significant for the following:
Hemoglobin 9.7 g/dL
Reticulocyte count 8%
Indirect bilirubin 4 mg/dL
Lactate dehydrogenase 250 U/L
Direct antiglobulin test Negative
Which of the following would most likely be found on a peripheral blood smear in this patient?
A. Spherocytes
B. Schistocytes (Correct Answer)
C. Elliptocytes
D. Target cells
E. Ringed sideroblasts
Explanation: ***Schistocytes***
- The patient's history of **aortic valve replacement** and laboratory findings (anemia, elevated reticulocytes, indirect bilirubin, LDH, and negative direct antiglobulin test) are highly suggestive of **mechanical hemolytic anemia**.
- **Schistocytes** (fragmented red blood cells) are pathognomonic for microangiopathic hemolytic anemias, including those caused by artificial heart valves which shear red blood cells as they pass through.
*Spherocytes*
- **Spherocytes** are typically seen in immune hemolytic anemias or hereditary spherocytosis, conditions ruled out by the negative direct antiglobulin test and the context of valve replacement.
- They result from loss of red cell membrane without a corresponding decrease in cell volume, leading to a denser, more spherical appearance.
*Elliptocytes*
- **Elliptocytes** (ovalocytes) are characteristic of hereditary elliptocytosis and occasionally observed in myelodysplastic syndromes or iron deficiency.
- They are not associated with mechanical hemolytic anemia or the patient's clinical presentation.
*Target cells*
- **Target cells** are associated with liver disease, thalassemia, and iron deficiency anemia, where there is an increased surface area-to-volume ratio of red blood cells.
- They are not a feature of hemolytic anemia caused by mechanical shearing.
*Ringed sideroblasts*
- **Ringed sideroblasts** are red blood cell precursors with abnormal iron accumulation in the mitochondria, found in the bone marrow in conditions like myelodysplastic syndromes and sideroblastic anemias.
- They are not a feature observed on a peripheral blood smear and are irrelevant to the patient's hemolytic anemia.
Question 32: A 15-year-old African-American male with a BMI of 22 is brought to his physician by his mother to address concerns about a change in his dietary habits. The patient's mother notes that he is constantly hungry and thirsty, despite his eating and drinking water in excess. She also reports an increase in his use of the bathroom. The physician begins explaining that her son's symptoms are likely due to which of the following?
A. Pancreatic islet hyperplasia and hypertrophy
B. The patient's weight
C. Insulitis (Correct Answer)
D. Amyloid deposition in pancreatic islets
E. Insensitivity to insulin
Explanation: ***Insulitis***
- This patient's symptoms of **polyphagia**, **polydipsia**, and **polyuria** are classic for **Type 1 Diabetes Mellitus (T1DM)**.
- **Insulitis** is the characteristic autoimmune inflammation of the pancreatic islets that destroys insulin-producing beta cells in T1DM.
*Pancreatic islet hyperplasia and hypertrophy*
- This is typically seen in conditions of **chronic insulin resistance**, such as early **Type 2 Diabetes Mellitus**, as the body attempts to compensate for increased insulin demand.
- It does not explain the acute onset of classic diabetic symptoms in a lean adolescent.
*The patient's weight*
- With a **BMI of 22**, the patient is within a healthy weight range and is not considered overweight or obese.
- While obesity is a major risk factor for **Type 2 Diabetes**, it is not typical for **Type 1 Diabetes**.
*Amyloid deposition in pancreatic islets*
- **Amyloid deposition**, specifically from **islet amyloid polypeptide (IAPP)**, is a pathological hallmark of **Type 2 Diabetes Mellitus**, not Type 1.
- This process contributes to beta-cell dysfunction and death in Type 2 Diabetes, but is secondary to the disease process, not the primary autoimmune destruction seen in Type 1.
*Insensitivity to insulin*
- **Insulin insensitivity** or **insulin resistance** is the defining feature of **Type 2 Diabetes Mellitus**.
- This patient's presentation of sudden symptoms in a lean adolescent strongly points to an absolute **deficiency of insulin**, not resistance.
Question 33: A 28-year-old man seeks evaluation at a medical office for facial swelling and blood in his urine during the last 3 days. He claims that he has had weakness, malaise, and low-grade fevers for the past 3 months. On physical examination, the blood pressure is 160/96 mm Hg and he has periorbital edema bilaterally. The lab testing is significant for leukocytosis, elevated blood urea nitrogen, and elevated serum creatinine. Urinalysis shows gross hematuria, proteinuria, and red blood cell casts. You suspect that this patient has Goodpasture’s disease and decide to order additional tests to confirm the diagnosis. Antibodies to which of the following would most likely be present in this patient if your suspicion is correct?
A. Collagen type IV (Correct Answer)
B. Collagen type III
C. Collagen type V
D. Collagen type I
E. Collagen type II
Explanation: ***Collagen type IV***
- **Goodpasture's disease** is characterized by the presence of **autoantibodies** directed against the **non-collagenous 1 (NC1) domain** of the alpha-3 chain of type IV collagen.
- This **type IV collagen** is a major component of the **glomerular and alveolar basement membranes**, explaining the renal and pulmonary manifestations.
*Collagen type III*
- **Collagen type III** is found in **reticular fibers** and is abundant in distensible tissues like the skin, lungs, and blood vessels.
- Antibodies against **collagen type III** are not implicated in the pathogenesis of Goodpasture's disease.
*Collagen type V*
- **Collagen type V** is a minor fibrillar collagen that plays a role in regulating the assembly of type I collagen fibrils and is found in connective tissues.
- Antibodies against **collagen type V** are not associated with Goodpasture's disease.
*Collagen type I*
- **Collagen type I** is the most abundant collagen in the human body, found in bone, skin, tendons, and ligaments.
- Antibodies against **collagen type I** are not involved in the autoimmune response seen in Goodpasture's disease.
*Collagen type II*
- **Collagen type II** is the primary collagen found in **cartilage** and is essential for its structural integrity.
- Antibodies primarily targeting **collagen type II** are associated with **rheumatoid arthritis** or other forms of autoimmune arthritis, not Goodpasture's disease.
Question 34: A 44-year-old female presents to her primary care physician complaining of fatigue. She reports a four-month history of increasing fatigue accompanied by occasional constipation. She also reports a 15-pound weight gain over the same time period. She is otherwise healthy and takes no medications. She has never been pregnant. On physical examination, her skin is dry and cracked. Patellar reflexes are 1+ bilaterally. Laboratory analysis reveals an elevated serum TSH and decreased serum and free T4. Her blood is positive for the presence of specific antibodies. A biopsy of this patient’s thyroid gland would most likely reveal which of the following?
A. Lymphocytic infiltrate with germinal center formation (Correct Answer)
B. Spindle cells with stromal amyloid deposition
C. Hyperplasia and hypertrophy of follicular cells
D. Large pleomorphic cells with vascular invasion and necrosis
E. Randomly oriented papillae with pleomorphic cells and dense fibrosis
Explanation: ***Lymphocytic infiltrate with germinal center formation***
- The patient presents with **hypothyroidism** (fatigue, constipation, weight gain, dry skin, decreased reflexes, elevated TSH, decreased free T4) and **positive antibodies**, which strongly suggests **Hashimoto's thyroiditis**.
- Biopsy of a thyroid gland affected by Hashimoto's thyroiditis typically shows a **dense lymphocytic infiltrate**, often with well-formed **germinal centers**, and destruction of thyroid follicles.
*Spindle cells with stromal amyloid deposition*
- This finding is characteristic of **medullary thyroid carcinoma**, a neuroendocrine tumor arising from parafollicular C cells.
- Medullary thyroid carcinoma does not present with the clinical or laboratory findings of hypothyroidism described in this patient.
*Hyperplasia and hypertrophy of follicular cells*
- This microscopic appearance is characteristic of **Graves' disease**, which causes **hyperthyroidism** due to diffuse follicular hyperplasia, not hypothyroidism.
- The patient's symptoms and lab results (elevated TSH, decreased T4) are inconsistent with Graves' disease.
*Large pleomorphic cells with vascular invasion and necrosis*
- This describes features of **anaplastic thyroid carcinoma**, an extremely aggressive and undifferentiated malignancy.
- Anaplastic thyroid carcinoma typically presents as a rapidly enlarging neck mass, not primarily with symptoms of hypothyroidism and positive antibodies.
*Randomly oriented papillae with pleomorphic cells and dense fibrosis*
- This description is most consistent with **papillary thyroid carcinoma**, which is characterized by specific nuclear features (Orphan Annie eye nuclei, nuclear grooves, intranuclear inclusions) and often a papillary architecture.
- Patients with papillary thyroid carcinoma are typically euthyroid, and the presentation here is clearly one of hypothyroidism.
Question 35: A 53-year-old woman seeks medical care for superficial erosions and blisters over the skin of her head and trunk. She also has significant involvement of her buccal mucosa, which has made eating difficult. A year earlier, she developed tender sores on the oral mucosa and soft palate of her mouth, which was initially treated as herpes simplex stomatitis. Her condition worsened despite treatment, resulting in the development of eroded areas over her trunk and extremities, with a 10 kg weight loss. Upon further questioning, she denies itching, but she notes that the top layer of her skin could be easily removed when firm horizontal pressure was applied. What is the most likely diagnosis for this patient’s condition?
A. Dermatitis herpetiformis
B. Toxic epidermal necrolysis
C. Pemphigus vulgaris (Correct Answer)
D. Bullous pemphigoid
E. Behcet’s disease
Explanation: ***Pemphigus vulgaris***
- This condition is characterized by **superficial erosions and blisters**, significant **mucosal involvement** (especially oral), and a **positive Nikolsky sign** (skin easily removed with pressure), all classic features of pemphigus vulgaris.
- The initial presentation often includes painful **oral lesions** that precede cutaneous involvement and can lead to **weight loss** due to difficult eating.
*Dermatitis herpetiformis*
- Typically presents with intensely **pruritic (itchy) urticarial papules and vesicles**, primarily on extensor surfaces, which is contrary to the patient's denial of itching.
- Strongly associated with **celiac disease** and presents with distinct IgA deposits on direct immunofluorescence, unlike the IgG deposits seen in pemphigus vulgaris.
*Toxic epidermal necrolysis*
- Characterized by widespread **epidermal detachment**, often triggered by drugs, with fever and severe systemic symptoms, which are not detailed here.
- The onset is usually acute and rapid, leading to extensive "sheet-like" skin loss, rather than the more gradual progression described.
*Bullous pemphigoid*
- Presents with **tense bullae** on an erythematous or urticarial base, and while oral involvement can occur, it is less common and less severe than in pemphigus vulgaris.
- The **Nikolsky sign is typically negative** in bullous pemphigoid, and the blisters are subepidermal, remaining intact longer.
*Behcet’s disease*
- Characterized by **recurrent oral and genital aphthous ulcers**, along with ocular and skin lesions, but typically does not present with widespread blistering and positive Nikolsky sign.
- It is a multisystem inflammatory disorder, and the skin lesions are usually **erythema nodosum-like** or papulopustular, not extensive superficial erosions and blisters.
Question 36: A 4-month-old boy with a history of multiple infections presents with muscle stiffness. On physical exam, he is found to have carpopedal spasm as well as a heart murmur. Based on your clinical suspicion you decide to obtain a chest X-ray which shows a diminished shadow in the mediastinum. A mutation in which of the following chromosomes is the most likely cause of this patient's presentation?
A. Chromosome 22 (Correct Answer)
B. Chromosome 17
C. Chromosome 5
D. Chromosome 7
E. Chromosome X
Explanation: ***Chromosome 22***
- This patient's presentation with **multiple infections**, **muscle stiffness** (indicating hypocalcemia), **carpopedal spasm**, a **heart murmur**, and a **diminished thymic shadow** on chest X-ray are classic signs of **DiGeorge syndrome**.
- **DiGeorge syndrome** is caused by a microdeletion on **chromosome 22q11**, leading to abnormal development of the third and fourth pharyngeal pouches.
*Chromosome 17*
- Deletions or duplications on chromosome 17 are associated with conditions such as **Charcot-Marie-Tooth disease type 1A** or **Smith-Magenis syndrome**, which do not typically present with this constellation of symptoms.
- While these disorders involve developmental issues, they do not specifically cause thymic aplasia or congenital heart defects characteristic of DiGeorge syndrome.
*Chromosome 5*
- Deletions on chromosome 5 can lead to **Cri-du-chat syndrome**, characterized by a cat-like cry, intellectual disability, and microcephaly.
- This syndrome does not involve the characteristic immune deficiency or hypocalcemia seen in DiGeorge syndrome.
*Chromosome 7*
- Disorders associated with chromosome 7 include **Williams syndrome** (deletion on 7q11.23) and some forms of cystic fibrosis (due to mutations in the CFTR gene on 7q31.2).
- **Williams syndrome** presents with distinct facial features, cardiovascular problems (supravalvular aortic stenosis), and intellectual disability, but not thymic aplasia or hypocalcemia.
*Chromosome X*
- Chromosome X abnormalities are linked to conditions like **Turner syndrome** (XO) or **Klinefelter syndrome** (XXY), which primarily affect sex development and reproduction.
- While X-linked disorders can cause various health issues, they do not typically manifest with the specific combination of thymic hypoplasia, hypocalcemia, and congenital heart defects indicative of DiGeorge syndrome.
Question 37: A 7-year-old girl is brought to the emergency department because she has had abdominal pain and vomiting for the past day. The pain is intermittent, diffuse in nature, and worse after meals. She does not have loose or bloody stools. She has had a nonpruritic rash on her legs and swelling of her ankles for 6 days. She was treated with oral amoxicillin for a sore throat 2 weeks ago. Her immunizations are up-to-date. Vital signs are within normal limits. Examination of the lower extremities shows non-blanching, raised erythematous papules. The left ankle joint is swollen and warm, and its range of motion is limited by pain. Abdominal examination shows tenderness to palpation in the left lower quadrant without guarding or rebound. Bowel sounds are normal. Test of the stool for occult blood is positive. Laboratory studies show:
Hemoglobin 10.1 g/dL
Leukocyte count
11,800/mm3
Platelet count 431,000/mm3
Erythrocyte sedimentation rate 45 mm/h
Serum
Glucose 72 mg/dL
Creatinine 0.9 mg/dL
Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?
A. Immune thrombocytopenic purpura
B. Juvenile idiopathic arthritis
C. Drug-induced hypersensitivity syndrome
D. Familial mediterranean fever
E. Leukocytoclastic vasculitis (Correct Answer)
Explanation: ***Leukocytoclastic vasculitis***
- This patient's presentation with **palpable purpura** on the legs, **abdominal pain** with gastrointestinal bleeding (**positive occult blood**), and **arthritis** (swollen, warm ankle) after a recent infection (sore throat treated with amoxicillin) is highly characteristic of **Henoch-Schönlein purpura** (HSP), which is a form of leukocytoclastic vasculitis caused by IgA deposition.
- The elevated **ESR** and **leukocyte count** support an inflammatory process consistent with vasculitis.
*Immune thrombocytopenic purpura*
- This condition is characterized by **thrombocytopenia** (low platelet count), leading to petechiae, purpura, and bleeding. The patient's platelet count is elevated, ruling out ITP.
- While purpura is present, the **palpable nature** and association with abdominal pain and arthritis point away from ITP.
*Juvenile idiopathic arthritis*
- JIA primarily presents with **chronic joint inflammation** (arthritis lasting >6 weeks). While arthritis is present here, the acute onset and multisystem involvement (rash, abdominal pain) are not typical.
- JIA does not typically involve a **palpable purpuric rash** or **gastrointestinal bleeding**.
*Drug-induced hypersensitivity syndrome*
- DIHS usually presents with a **widespread morbilliform rash**, fever, lymphadenopathy, and internal organ involvement (e.g., hepatitis, nephritis) typically 2-8 weeks after drug exposure. The rash here is palpable purpura, and the systemic symptoms more closely align with vasculitis.
- While there was prior antibiotic use, the specific constellation of symptoms, particularly **palpable purpura** and **abdominal colicky pain** with GI bleeding, is not classic for DIHS.
*Familial mediterranean fever*
- FMF is an *autoinflammatory disorder* characterized by recurrent, self-limiting episodes of fever, serositis (abdominal pain due to peritonitis, pleuritis), and arthritis. The rash in FMF is typically erysipelas-like, not palpable purpura.
- The persistence of a rash for 6 days and positive occult blood, along with the specific type of rash, make FMF less likely.
Question 38: A 28-year-old woman at 36 weeks gestation presents with severe headache, epigastric pain, and visual disturbances. Her blood pressure is 160/110 mmHg. Laboratory studies show a hematocrit of 32%, leukocyte count of 9,400/mm³, and platelet count of 96,000/mm³. Serum studies reveal an aspartate aminotransferase of 94 U/L and an alanine aminotransferase of 92 U/L. Which of the following is the most likely cause of this patient's condition?
A. Overactivation of the coagulation pathway (Correct Answer)
B. Thrombotic obstruction of hepatic veins
C. Sequestration of platelets in the spleen
D. Embolism of amniotic fluid into maternal circulation
E. Viral reactivation and replication
Explanation: ***Overactivation of the coagulation pathway***
- This patient's symptoms (severe headache, epigastric pain, visual disturbances), hypertension (160/110 mmHg), **thrombocytopenia** (platelet count 96,000/mm³), and elevated liver enzymes (AST 94 U/L, ALT 92 U/L) are classic signs of **HELLP syndrome** (Hemolysis, Elevated Liver enzymes, Low Platelet count), a severe form of preeclampsia.
- HELLP syndrome is characterized by widespread **endothelial dysfunction**, leading to microvascular damage, platelet activation, and consumption, which are consequences of overactive coagulation and fibrin deposition.
*Thrombotic obstruction of hepatic veins*
- This condition, known as **Budd-Chiari syndrome**, typically presents with **ascites**, hepatomegaly, and abdominal pain, which are not primary features in this patient.
- While it can cause elevated liver enzymes, it doesn't usually explain the widespread microangiopathic changes or severe hypertension seen in HELLP syndrome.
*Sequestration of platelets in the spleen*
- **Hypersplenism** can lead to thrombocytopenia due to increased platelet destruction or sequestration in an enlarged spleen.
- However, this condition does not explain the patient's severe hypertension, elevated liver enzymes, or visual disturbances.
*Embolism of amniotic fluid into maternal circulation*
- **Amniotic fluid embolism** is a rare and catastrophic event presenting with sudden **cardiovascular collapse**, **respiratory distress**, and coagulopathy, often immediately postpartum or during labor.
- This patient's presentation with chronic symptoms like hypertension, epigastric pain, and visual disturbances is not consistent with an acute embolic event.
*Viral reactivation and replication*
- Viral infections, such as those causing **hepatitis**, can lead to elevated liver enzymes and sometimes thrombocytopenia.
- However, they typically do not cause the severe hypertension, visual disturbances, and epigastric pain characteristic of severe preeclampsia or HELLP syndrome.
Question 39: A 16-month-old girl presents for a routine examination. The patient’s mother says that the child is craving ice and often gasps for breath while walking or playing. Family history is unremarkable. The patient is afebrile, and vital signs are within normal limits. Her weight is at the 20th percentile and height is at the 35th percentile for age and sex. Conjunctival pallor is noted on physical examination. Laboratory findings are significant for the following:
Hemoglobin 9.2 g/dL
Mean corpuscular volume 72 μm3
Mean corpuscular hemoglobin 21 pg/cell
Serum ferritin 9 ng/mL
Red cell distribution width 16% (ref: 11.5–14.5%)
Which of the following additional laboratory findings would most likely be found in this patient?
A. ↑ reticulocyte count
B. ↑ total iron binding capacity (TIBC) (Correct Answer)
C. Bone marrow biopsy showing ringed sideroblasts
D. ↑ hemoglobin A2
E. ↑ transferrin saturation
Explanation: ***↑ total iron binding capacity (TIBC)***
- This patient's **microcytic, hypochromic anemia** (low MCV, low MCH) with **low ferritin** and **high RDW** is highly suggestive of **iron deficiency anemia**. In iron deficiency, the body attempts to increase iron absorption and transport, leading to an **elevated TIBC**.
- A **low serum ferritin** (9 ng/mL) is the most definitive indicator of **iron depletion**, and the patient's symptoms like **pica** (craving ice) and **dyspnea on exertion** are classic for significant anemia.
*↑ reticulocyte count*
- An elevated reticulocyte count indicates a **robust bone marrow response** to anemia, typically seen in conditions like hemolytic anemia or acute blood loss.
- In **iron deficiency anemia**, the bone marrow's ability to produce new red blood cells is impaired due to insufficient iron, so the reticulocyte count is usually normal or only slightly elevated, and not significantly increased.
*Bone marrow biopsy showing ringed sideroblasts*
- **Ringed sideroblasts** are characteristic of **sideroblastic anemia**, which is a disorder of heme synthesis that leads to iron accumulation in mitochondria.
- This patient's symptoms and laboratory findings (low ferritin, high TIBC) are inconsistent with sideroblastic anemia, which typically presents with **iron overload**, not iron deficiency.
*↑ hemoglobin A2*
- An elevated **hemoglobin A2 (HbA2)** is a hallmark of **beta-thalassemia trait** (minor).
- While beta-thalassemia can cause microcytic anemia, the patient's **low ferritin** and clinical presentation of iron deficiency (pica, dyspnea) point away from thalassemia, where ferritin levels are usually normal or elevated.
*↑ transferrin saturation*
- **Transferrin saturation** is calculated as (serum iron / TIBC) x 100%. In **iron deficiency anemia**, serum iron is low and TIBC is high, resulting in a **decreased transferrin saturation**.
- An elevated transferrin saturation would suggest **iron overload** conditions like hemochromatosis or certain types of sideroblastic anemia, which contradicts the current patient's clinical picture.
Question 40: A 23-year-old man is brought to the emergency department by ambulance. The patient was found unconscious in his bedroom after a suicide attempt. The patient had cut his wrists using a kitchen knife. The patient is unresponsive and pale. His temperature is 96°F (35.6°C), blood pressure is 70/35 mmHg, pulse is 190/min, respirations are 19/min, and oxygen saturation is 92% on room air. Pressure is applied to his bilateral wrist lacerations. His Glasgow Coma Scale (GCS) is 7. A full trauma assessment is performed and reveals no other injuries. IV fluids are started as well as a rapid transfusion sequence. Norepinephrine is administered. Repeat vitals demonstrate that his blood pressure is 100/65 mmHg and pulse is 100/min. The patient is responsive and seems mildly confused. Resuscitation is continued and the patient's GCS improves to 15. Thirty minutes later, the patient's GCS is 11. His temperature is 103°F (39.4°C), blood pressure is 90/60 mmHg, pulse is 122/min, respirations are 22/min, and oxygen saturation is 99% on room air. The patient complains of flank pain. Laboratory values are ordered and demonstrate the following:
Hemoglobin: 9 g/dL
Hematocrit: 27%
Leukocyte count: 10,500 cells/mm^3 with normal differential
Haptoglobin: 11 mg/dL
Platelet count: 198,000/mm^3
Serum:
Na+: 139 mEq/L
Cl-: 101 mEq/L
K+: 4.4 mEq/L
HCO3-: 23 mEq/L
BUN: 27 mg/dL
Glucose: 99 mg/dL
Creatinine: 1.5 mg/dL
Ca2+: 10.0 mg/dL
Bilirubin: 3.2 mg/dL
AST: 22 U/L
ALT: 15 U/L
Which of the following describes the most likely diagnosis?
A. Recipient antibody reaction against foreign leukocytes
B. Non-cardiogenic acute lung injury
C. Decreased IgA levels
D. Major blood group incompatibility (Correct Answer)
E. Minor blood group incompatibility
Explanation: ***Major blood group incompatibility***
- The patient's symptoms (fever, hypotension, expanding shock, flank pain) and laboratory findings (increased bilirubin, acute kidney injury indicated by elevated BUN and creatinine, decreasing hemoglobin despite transfusion) approximately 30 minutes after rapid transfusion of blood products are highly suggestive of an **acute hemolytic transfusion reaction (AHTR)**. AHTR is most commonly caused by **ABO incompatibility**, which leads to rapid intravascular hemolysis.
- The rapid onset of symptoms after transfusion, coupled with signs of severe hemolysis like high bilirubin and decreasing haptoglobin (though haptoglobin levels here are less clear, the overall picture points to hemolysis), and signs of systemic inflammation (fever, declining GCS after initial improvement), are classic for a major blood group incompatibility.
*Recipient antibody reaction against foreign leukocytes*
- This description is characteristic of a **febrile non-hemolytic transfusion reaction (FNHTR)**. While fever is present, the severe **hypotension**, **flank pain**, and evidence of **hemolysis** (elevated bilirubin, acute kidney injury) are not typical features of FNHTR.
- FNHTRs are generally milder and resolve with supportive care, unlike the life-threatening condition seen in this patient, which involves substantial organ dysfunction.
*Non-cardiogenic acute lung injury*
- This describes **transfusion-related acute lung injury (TRALI)**. While TRALI can cause hypoxemia and fever, the primary symptoms are acute respiratory distress and pulmonary infiltrates.
- This patient's prominent symptoms are related to **hemolysis** and **systemic shock** (flank pain, elevated bilirubin, acute kidney injury), without significant mention of respiratory distress or lung involvement as the primary issue.
*Decreased IgA levels*
- **IgA deficiency** can lead to allergic reactions, including **anaphylaxis**, during transfusion if the recipient has anti-IgA antibodies and receives IgA-containing blood products.
- While anaphylaxis can cause hypotension, it typically presents with urticaria, angioedema, bronchospasm, and abdominal pain. The **flank pain** and **biochemical evidence of hemolysis** (elevated bilirubin, acute kidney injury) are not features of IgA-related transfusion reactions.
*Minor blood group incompatibility*
- Reactions to minor blood group incompatibilities (e.g., Rh, Kell, Duffy, Kidd) generally cause **extravascular hemolysis**, which is often delayed (days to weeks post-transfusion) and typically less severe than ABO incompatibility.
- The **immediate and severe intravascular hemolysis**, profound shock, and **acute organ damage** seen in this patient are more characteristic of major ABO incompatibility rather than minor blood group reactions.