A 3-week-old boy is brought to the pediatrician by his parents for a circumcision. The circumcision was uncomplicated; however, after a few hours, the diaper contained blood, and the bleeding has not subsided. A complete blood count was ordered, which was significant for a platelet count of 70,000/mm3. On peripheral blood smear, the following was noted (figure A). The prothrombin time was 12 seconds, partial thromboplastin time was 32 seconds, and bleeding time was 13 minutes. On platelet aggregation studies, there was no response with ristocetin. This result was not corrected with the addition of normal plasma. There was a normal aggregation response with the addition of ADP. Which of the following is most likely true of this patient's underlying disease?
Q332
A 37-year-old man who had undergone liver transplantation 7 years ago, presents to the physician because of yellowish discoloration of the skin, sclera, and urine. He is on regular immunosuppressive therapy and is well-adherent to the treatment. He has no comorbidities and is not taking any other medication. He provides a history of similar episodes of yellowish skin discoloration 6–7 times since he underwent liver transplantation. Physical examination shows clinical jaundice. Laboratory studies show:
While blood cell (WBC) count 4,400/mm3
Hemoglobin 11.1 g/dL
Serum creatinine 0.9 mg/dL
Serum bilirubin (total) 44 mg/dL
Aspartate transaminase (AST) 1,111 U/L
Alanine transaminase (ALT) 671 U/L
Serum gamma-glutamyl transpeptidase 777 U/L
Alkaline phosphatase 888 U/L
Prothrombin time 17 seconds
A Doppler ultrasound shows significantly reduced blood flow into the transplanted liver. A biopsy of the transplanted liver is likely to show which of the following histological features?
Q333
A 4-year-old male is evaluated for frequent epistaxis and mucous membrane bleeding. Physical examination shows diffuse petechiae on the patient’s distal extremities. Peripheral blood smear shows an absence of platelet clumping. An ELISA binding assay reveals that platelet surfaces are deficient in GIIb/IIIa receptors. Serum platelet count is normal. Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?
Q334
An otherwise healthy 27-year-old man presents to the Emergency Department with dark urine and left flank pain. He has had a fever, sore throat, and malaise for the last 2 days. Vital signs reveal a temperature of 38.1°C (100.5°F), blood pressure of 120/82 mm Hg, and a pulse of 95/min. His family history is noncontributory. Physical examination reveals enlarged tonsils with tender anterior cervical lymphadenopathy. Urinalysis shows pink urine with 20–25 red cells/high power field and 2+ protein. This patient’s condition is most likely due to which of the following?
Q335
A 63-year-old man presents to the emergency department with periorbital swelling. He states that he was gardening, came inside, looked in the mirror, and then noticed his eyelids were swollen. He denies pain, pruritus, or visual disturbances. He states that he was drinking “a lot of water" to prevent dehydration, because it was hot outside this morning. His medical history is significant for rheumatoid arthritis. He takes methotrexate and acetaminophen as needed. The patient’s temperature is 98°F (36.7°C), blood pressure is 168/108 mmHg, and pulse is 75/min. Physical examination is notable for periorbital edema, hepatomegaly, and bilateral 1+ pitting lower extremity edema. Labs and a urinalysis are obtained, as shown below:
Leukocyte count: 11,000/mm^3
Hemoglobin: 14 g/dL
Serum:
Na: 138 mEq/L
K+: 4.3 mEq/L
Cl-: 104 mEq/L
HCO3-: 25 mEq/L
Urea nitrogen: 26 mg/dL
Creatinine: 1.4 mg/dL
Glucose: 85 mg/dL
Aspartate aminotransferase (AST, GOT): 15 U/L
Alanine aminotransferase (ALT, GPT): 19 U/L
Albumin: 2.0 g/dL
Urine:
Protein: 150 mg/dL
Creatinine: 35 mg/dL
An abdominal ultrasound reveals an enlarged liver with heterogeneous echogenicity and enlarged kidneys with increased echogenicity in the renal parenchyma. A biopsy of the kidney is obtained. Which of the following biopsy findings is associated with the patient’s most likely diagnosis?
Q336
A 24-year-old male was in a motor vehicle accident that caused him to fracture his femur and pelvis. After 2 days in the hospital, the patient became delirious, tachypneic, and a petechial rash was found in his upper extremities. Which of the following is most likely responsible for this patient’s symptoms?
Q337
A 19-year-old man comes to the physician for the evaluation of progressive difficulty climbing stairs over the last 2 years. During this period, he has also had problems with running, occasional falls, and standing from a chair. He has not had any vision problems or muscle cramping. There is no personal or family history of serious illness. Neurological examination shows deep tendon reflexes are 2+ bilaterally and sensation to pinprick and light touch is normal. Musculoskeletal examination shows enlarged calf muscles bilaterally. He has a waddling gait. Laboratory studies show a creatine kinase level of 1700 U/L. Which of the following is the most appropriate next step to confirm the diagnosis?
Q338
A 34-year-old man with AIDS comes to the physician because of a 2-day history of decreasing vision and seeing black spots in his right eye. He has no pain and the left eye is asymptomatic. He was treated for fungal esophagitis 6 months ago with fluconazole. He was diagnosed with Kaposi's sarcoma 2 years ago. Current medications include efavirenz, tenofovir, emtricitabine, azithromycin, trimethoprim-sulfamethoxazole, multivitamins, and a nutritional supplement. He is 170 cm (5 ft 7 in) tall and weighs 45 kg (99 lbs); BMI is 15.6 kg/m2. His temperature is 37°C (98.6°F), pulse is 89/min, and blood pressure is 110/70 mm Hg. Examination shows cervical lymphadenopathy. There are multiple violaceous plaques seen over his trunk and extremities. Fundoscopic examination shows granular yellow-white opacities around the retinal vessels and multiple areas of dot-blot hemorrhages. His CD4+ T-lymphocyte count is 36/mm3. Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?
Q339
A 65-year-old man was picked up by the security personnel for voiding urine and defecating at an inappropriate place in the community. On questioning, he was making offensive remarks and behaving inappropriately. On physical examination, the physician observed signs of cognitive impairment and amnesia. Initial urine drug screen is negative for any drugs of abuse. Which is the most likely pathological finding present in this patient?
Q340
A 54-year-old woman comes to the physician because of a painful skin lesion on her right leg for 1 month. It initially started out as a small red spot but has rapidly increased in size during this period. She remembers an ant bite on her leg prior to the lesion occurring. She was treated for anterior uveitis 8 months ago with corticosteroids. She has Crohn's disease, type 2 diabetes mellitus, and hypertension. Current medications include insulin, mesalamine, enalapril, and aspirin. She returned from Wisconsin after visiting her son 2 months ago. Her temperature is 37.6°C (98°F), pulse is 98/min, and blood pressure is 126/88 mm Hg. Examination shows pitting pedal edema of the lower extremities. There is a 4-cm tender ulcerative lesion on the anterior right leg with a central necrotic base and purplish irregular borders. There are dilated tortuous veins in both lower legs. Femoral and pedal pulses are palpated bilaterally. Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?
Systemic Pathology US Medical PG Practice Questions and MCQs
Question 331: A 3-week-old boy is brought to the pediatrician by his parents for a circumcision. The circumcision was uncomplicated; however, after a few hours, the diaper contained blood, and the bleeding has not subsided. A complete blood count was ordered, which was significant for a platelet count of 70,000/mm3. On peripheral blood smear, the following was noted (figure A). The prothrombin time was 12 seconds, partial thromboplastin time was 32 seconds, and bleeding time was 13 minutes. On platelet aggregation studies, there was no response with ristocetin. This result was not corrected with the addition of normal plasma. There was a normal aggregation response with the addition of ADP. Which of the following is most likely true of this patient's underlying disease?
A. Protein C resistance
B. Decreased GpIb (Correct Answer)
C. Responsive to desmopressin
D. Adding epinephrine would not lead to platelet aggregation
E. Decreased GpIIb/IIIa
Explanation: ***Decreased GpIb***
- The presentation of **persistent severe bleeding** after circumcision, **thrombocytopenia (70,000/mm3)**, and **giant platelets** on blood smear are classic findings for **Bernard-Soulier syndrome**.
- **Bernard-Soulier syndrome** is characterized by a defect in the platelet glycoprotein Ib-IX-V (GpIb) complex, which is crucial for **platelet adhesion** to **von Willebrand factor (vWF)** on exposed subendothelium. The **lack of aggregation response to ristocetin** (which induces vWF binding to GpIb) and its **non-correction with normal plasma** further confirm this diagnosis.
*Protein C resistance*
- **Protein C resistance** is associated with an **increased risk of thrombosis**, not bleeding, and is typically due to a mutation in **Factor V (Factor V Leiden)**, which makes it resistant to inactivation by activated Protein C.
- This condition would manifest with **venous thromboembolism** or recurrent miscarriages, which contradicts the patient's bleeding symptoms.
*Responsive to desmopressin*
- **Desmopressin** (DDAVP) primarily acts by releasing **von Willebrand factor (vWF)** and **Factor VIII** from endothelial cells. It is effective in certain types of **von Willebrand disease** and **mild hemophilia A**.
- Since the issue here is with the **platelet receptor (GpIb)** for vWF, and not with vWF quantity or quality, desmopressin would **not be an effective treatment** for Bernard-Soulier syndrome.
*Adding epinephrine would not lead to platelet aggregation*
- In **Bernard-Soulier syndrome**, the defect is specific to the **GpIb-vWF interaction**. Platelet aggregation responses to other agonists like **ADP, collagen, and epinephrine** are typically **normal** or at least partially preserved, although the defect in GpIb can subtly impair secondary aggregation.
- The aggregation studies showing a **normal response to ADP** in this patient support that other aggregation pathways are intact, making this statement incorrect.
*Decreased GpIIb/IIIa*
- **Decreased GpIIb/IIIa** (or qualitative defects in it) is characteristic of **Glanzmann thrombasthenia**, another inherited platelet disorder.
- Patients with Glanzmann thrombasthenia also present with **bleeding** and **impaired platelet aggregation**, but their platelets are usually **normal in size and count**, and they show **absent aggregation to ADP, collagen, and epinephrine**, while aggregation to ristocetin is normal, which is different from this patient's findings.
Question 332: A 37-year-old man who had undergone liver transplantation 7 years ago, presents to the physician because of yellowish discoloration of the skin, sclera, and urine. He is on regular immunosuppressive therapy and is well-adherent to the treatment. He has no comorbidities and is not taking any other medication. He provides a history of similar episodes of yellowish skin discoloration 6–7 times since he underwent liver transplantation. Physical examination shows clinical jaundice. Laboratory studies show:
While blood cell (WBC) count 4,400/mm3
Hemoglobin 11.1 g/dL
Serum creatinine 0.9 mg/dL
Serum bilirubin (total) 44 mg/dL
Aspartate transaminase (AST) 1,111 U/L
Alanine transaminase (ALT) 671 U/L
Serum gamma-glutamyl transpeptidase 777 U/L
Alkaline phosphatase 888 U/L
Prothrombin time 17 seconds
A Doppler ultrasound shows significantly reduced blood flow into the transplanted liver. A biopsy of the transplanted liver is likely to show which of the following histological features?
A. Ballooning degeneration of hepatocytes
B. Normal architecture of bile ducts and hepatocytes
C. Irregularly shaped nodules of regenerating hepatocytes with peripheral halo
D. Broad fibrous septations with formation of micronodules
E. Interstitial cellular infiltration with parenchymal fibrosis, obliterative arteritis (Correct Answer)
Explanation: ***Interstitial cellular infiltration with parenchymal fibrosis, obliterative arteritis***
- The patient's history of **repeated jaundice episodes** after liver transplantation, coupled with **elevated liver enzymes** and **significantly reduced transplanted liver blood flow** on Doppler, points to **chronic rejection**.
- **Chronic rejection** is histologically characterized by **interstitial cellular infiltration**, **parenchymal fibrosis**, and hallmark **obliterative arteritis**, which describes the progressive luminal narrowing and obliteration of hepatic arteries due to intimal proliferation.
*Ballooning degeneration of hepatocytes*
- This feature is typically associated with **acute hepatitis**, often viral or alcoholic, and indicates **hepatocyte swelling and necrosis**.
- While reflecting liver injury, it doesn't specifically point to **chronic rejection** in a transplanted liver with repeated episodes and vascular changes.
*Normal architecture of bile ducts and hepatocytes*
- This finding would suggest a **healthy liver** or a successful response to treatment, which contradicts the patient's symptoms of **jaundice**, highly elevated **liver enzymes**, and **reduced blood flow**.
- The presence of clinical symptoms and abnormal lab values rules out a normal liver architecture.
*Irregularly shaped nodules of regenerating hepatocytes with peripheral halo*
- This description is characteristic of **biliary hamartomas** (von Meyenburg complexes) or focal nodular hyperplasia, which are typically benign lesions and not indicative of the **severe liver injury** seen here.
- It does not align with the progressive nature of the patient's recurrent jaundice and vascular compromise identified.
*Broad fibrous septations with formation of micronodules*
- This histological pattern is typical of **cirrhosis**, a condition characterized by diffuse **fibrosis** and the formation of **regenerative nodules**, often resulting from chronic liver diseases like hepatitis or alcohol abuse.
- While fibrosis is part of chronic rejection, the description does not capture the specific **vascular and inflammatory changes** of **obliterative arteritis** that are central to chronic rejection.
Question 333: A 4-year-old male is evaluated for frequent epistaxis and mucous membrane bleeding. Physical examination shows diffuse petechiae on the patient’s distal extremities. Peripheral blood smear shows an absence of platelet clumping. An ELISA binding assay reveals that platelet surfaces are deficient in GIIb/IIIa receptors. Serum platelet count is normal. Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?
A. Idiopathic thrombocytopenic purpura
B. Thrombotic thrombocytopenic purpura
C. Bernard-Soulier disease
D. Hemophilia A
E. Glanzmann’s thrombasthenia (Correct Answer)
Explanation: ***Glanzmann’s thrombasthenia***
- This condition is characterized by a **deficiency of GIIb/IIIa receptors** on platelets, leading to impaired platelet aggregation despite a normal platelet count.
- The patient's symptoms of **epistaxis**, **mucous membrane bleeding**, and **diffuse petechiae** are consistent with a primary hemostasis disorder.
*Idiopathic thrombocytopenic purpura*
- This autoimmune disorder causes **isolated thrombocytopenia** (low platelet count) due to antibody-mediated destruction of platelets.
- The patient's **normal platelet count** makes ITP an unlikely diagnosis.
*Thrombotic thrombocytopenic purpura*
- TTP is characterized by the **pentad of symptoms**: thrombocytopenia, microangiopathic hemolytic anemia, renal failure, neurological symptoms, and fever.
- The patient does not present with **anemia** or the other systemic features typical of TTP, and their platelet count is normal.
*Bernard-Soulier disease*
- This is a rare inherited disorder involving a **deficiency of GPIb-IX-V receptor** complex on platelets, which affects platelet adhesion to von Willebrand factor.
- While it causes bleeding symptoms and often **giant platelets** on smear, the specific defect mentioned (GIIb/IIIa deficiency) is not consistent with Bernard-Soulier.
*Hemophilia A*
- Hemophilia A is an **X-linked recessive bleeding disorder** caused by a deficiency of factor VIII.
- It primarily affects **secondary hemostasis**, leading to deep tissue bleeding (e.g., hemarthroses, hematomas) rather than petechiae and mucous membrane bleeding, and platelet function is normal.
Question 334: An otherwise healthy 27-year-old man presents to the Emergency Department with dark urine and left flank pain. He has had a fever, sore throat, and malaise for the last 2 days. Vital signs reveal a temperature of 38.1°C (100.5°F), blood pressure of 120/82 mm Hg, and a pulse of 95/min. His family history is noncontributory. Physical examination reveals enlarged tonsils with tender anterior cervical lymphadenopathy. Urinalysis shows pink urine with 20–25 red cells/high power field and 2+ protein. This patient’s condition is most likely due to which of the following?
A. Immune complex deposition
B. C3 nephritic factor
C. Diffuse mesangial IgA deposition (Correct Answer)
D. Inherited abnormalities in type IV collagen
E. Autoantibodies against alpha-3 chain of type IV collagen
Explanation: ***Diffuse mesangial IgA deposition***
- The patient's presentation with **dark urine**, **flank pain**, and a recent **upper respiratory infection** (pharyngitis, fever, malaise, enlarged tonsils) followed by **hematuria** and **proteinuria** is highly suggestive of **IgA nephropathy** (Berger's disease).
- In IgA nephropathy, **IgA immune complexes** deposit in the glomerular mesangium, triggering inflammation and kidney damage.
*Immune complex deposition*
- While IgA nephropathy involves immune complex deposition, this option is too general; it does not specify the type of immune complex or its location, which is crucial for diagnosis.
- Other conditions like post-streptococcal glomerulonephritis also involve immune complex deposition, but they typically have a longer latent period after infection and often involve C3 complement activation.
*C3 nephritic factor*
- **C3 nephritic factor** is associated with **dense deposit disease** (a form of C3 glomerulopathy) and some cases of membranoproliferative glomerulonephritis, leading to persistent activation of the alternative complement pathway.
- This condition is characterized by distinctive electron-dense deposits within the glomerular basement membrane and presents differently from the acute, infection-associated nephritis described.
*Inherited abnormalities in type IV collagen*
- **Inherited abnormalities in type IV collagen** are characteristic of **Alport syndrome**, a genetic disorder.
- Alport syndrome typically presents with progressive **hematuria**, sensorineural **hearing loss**, and ocular abnormalities, which are not mentioned in this patient's acute presentation.
*Autoantibodies against alpha-3 chain of type IV collagen*
- **Autoantibodies against the alpha-3 chain of type IV collagen** are the hallmark of **Goodpasture syndrome** (anti-GBM disease).
- Goodpasture syndrome typically presents with rapidly progressive glomerulonephritis, often accompanied by **pulmonary hemorrhage**, symptoms not seen in this patient.
Question 335: A 63-year-old man presents to the emergency department with periorbital swelling. He states that he was gardening, came inside, looked in the mirror, and then noticed his eyelids were swollen. He denies pain, pruritus, or visual disturbances. He states that he was drinking “a lot of water" to prevent dehydration, because it was hot outside this morning. His medical history is significant for rheumatoid arthritis. He takes methotrexate and acetaminophen as needed. The patient’s temperature is 98°F (36.7°C), blood pressure is 168/108 mmHg, and pulse is 75/min. Physical examination is notable for periorbital edema, hepatomegaly, and bilateral 1+ pitting lower extremity edema. Labs and a urinalysis are obtained, as shown below:
Leukocyte count: 11,000/mm^3
Hemoglobin: 14 g/dL
Serum:
Na: 138 mEq/L
K+: 4.3 mEq/L
Cl-: 104 mEq/L
HCO3-: 25 mEq/L
Urea nitrogen: 26 mg/dL
Creatinine: 1.4 mg/dL
Glucose: 85 mg/dL
Aspartate aminotransferase (AST, GOT): 15 U/L
Alanine aminotransferase (ALT, GPT): 19 U/L
Albumin: 2.0 g/dL
Urine:
Protein: 150 mg/dL
Creatinine: 35 mg/dL
An abdominal ultrasound reveals an enlarged liver with heterogeneous echogenicity and enlarged kidneys with increased echogenicity in the renal parenchyma. A biopsy of the kidney is obtained. Which of the following biopsy findings is associated with the patient’s most likely diagnosis?
A. Apple green birefringence with Congo red staining (Correct Answer)
B. Subepithelial dense deposits
C. Tubulointerstitial fibrosis
D. Kimmelstiel-Wilson nodules
E. Glomerular basement membrane splitting
Explanation: ***Apple green birefringence with Congo red staining***
- The patient's presentation with **periorbital and pitting edema**, **hepatomegaly**, **renal dysfunction** (elevated creatinine, proteinuria), and **low serum albumin** in the setting of chronic **rheumatoid arthritis** suggests **AA amyloidosis**.
- **Congo red staining** followed by examination under polarized light revealing **apple green birefringence** is the classic diagnostic finding for amyloidosis on tissue biopsy.
*Subepithelial dense deposits*
- **Subepithelial dense deposits** are characteristic of **post-streptococcal glomerulonephritis** (PSGN) or other forms of immune-complex glomerulonephritis.
- PSGN typically presents with a recent history of infection and often hematuria, which is not described in this patient.
*Tubulointerstitial fibrosis*
- **Tubulointerstitial fibrosis** is a non-specific finding that can occur in various chronic kidney diseases, including those caused by long-term use of certain medications like **methotrexate** or chronic hypertension.
- While it might be present, it does not explain the widespread systemic findings or the specific cause of the present nephropathy in this case.
*Kimmelstiel-Wilson nodules*
- **Kimmelstiel-Wilson nodules** are pathognomonic for **diabetic nephropathy**, characterized by specific nodular glomerulosclerosis.
- The patient's glucose levels are normal, and there is no mention of diabetes mellitus in his history.
*Glomerular basement membrane splitting*
- **Glomerular basement membrane splitting** is a key feature of **Alport syndrome** and some forms of **membranoproliferative glomerulonephritis**.
- Alport syndrome is a genetic disorder typically presenting earlier in life with hematuria, hearing loss, and ocular abnormalities, none of which are detailed here.
Question 336: A 24-year-old male was in a motor vehicle accident that caused him to fracture his femur and pelvis. After 2 days in the hospital, the patient became delirious, tachypneic, and a petechial rash was found in his upper extremities. Which of the following is most likely responsible for this patient’s symptoms?
A. Thrombotic clot in the pulmonary artery
B. Aspiration of oropharyngeal contents
C. Alveolar foamy exudates with disc shaped cysts seen with methenamine silver stain
D. Fat microglobules in the microvasculature (Correct Answer)
E. Type I and type II pneumocyte damage due to neutrophils
Explanation: ***Fat microglobules in the microvasculature***
- This scenario describes **fat embolism syndrome (FES)**, often triggered by trauma to long bones (like the femur) or the pelvis.
- The classic triad of FES includes **respiratory distress (tachypnea)**, **neurological symptoms (delirium)**, and a **petechial rash**, which perfectly matches the patient's presentation.
*Thrombotic clot in the pulmonary artery*
- A **pulmonary embolism (PE)** can cause tachypnea and delirium, but it typically does not present with a **petechial rash**.
- PE is usually due to a **venous thromboembolism** from deep leg veins, though trauma can increase risk, the rash points away from a simple thrombotic PE.
*Aspiration of oropharyngeal contents*
- **Aspiration pneumonia** can cause respiratory distress, but it doesn't typically lead to **delirium or a petechial rash** in this timeframe.
- The symptoms would likely include fever, cough, and infiltrates on chest X-ray.
*Alveolar foamy exudates with disc-shaped cysts seen with methenamine silver stain*
- This description is characteristic of **Pneumocystis pneumonia** (*Pneumocystis jirovecii*), an opportunistic infection typically seen in immunocompromised individuals.
- It would not manifest acutely after trauma with a petechial rash.
*Type I and type II pneumocyte damage due to neutrophils*
- This describes **acute respiratory distress syndrome (ARDS)**, which can be a complication of severe trauma.
- While ARDS could cause respiratory distress and potentially delirium, it generally doesn't present with a **petechial rash** as a hallmark symptom in this context.
Question 337: A 19-year-old man comes to the physician for the evaluation of progressive difficulty climbing stairs over the last 2 years. During this period, he has also had problems with running, occasional falls, and standing from a chair. He has not had any vision problems or muscle cramping. There is no personal or family history of serious illness. Neurological examination shows deep tendon reflexes are 2+ bilaterally and sensation to pinprick and light touch is normal. Musculoskeletal examination shows enlarged calf muscles bilaterally. He has a waddling gait. Laboratory studies show a creatine kinase level of 1700 U/L. Which of the following is the most appropriate next step to confirm the diagnosis?
A. Tensilon test
B. Anti-Jo-1 antibodies measurement
C. CT scan of the chest
D. Electromyography
E. Genetic analysis (Correct Answer)
Explanation: ***Genetic analysis***
- The patient's presentation with **progressive proximal muscle weakness**, **calf pseudohypertrophy**, **waddling gait**, and a significantly elevated **creatine kinase** level is highly suggestive of a **dystrophinopathy**.
- Given the patient's **age (19 years) and ambulatory status**, this presentation is most consistent with **Becker muscular dystrophy (BMD)** rather than Duchenne (DMD), as DMD patients typically become wheelchair-bound by age 12-13.
- **Genetic analysis**, specifically testing for **dystrophin gene mutations** (e.g., deletions, duplications, point mutations), is the most definitive method to confirm these diagnoses and distinguish between DMD and BMD based on mutation type and dystrophin expression.
*Tensilon test*
- The **Tensilon test** (edrophonium test) is used to diagnose **myasthenia gravis**, a disorder affecting the neuromuscular junction.
- The patient's symptoms (e.g., progressive onset over years, calf pseudohypertrophy) are not typical of myasthenia gravis, which often presents with **fluctuating weakness** and ocular symptoms.
*Anti-Jo-1 antibodies measurement*
- **Anti-Jo-1 antibodies** are associated with **polymyositis** and dermatomyositis, autoimmune inflammatory myopathies.
- While these conditions cause proximal muscle weakness and elevated CK, they typically have an **inflammatory pattern** and do not cause **calf pseudohypertrophy** or a waddling gait in the same manner as muscular dystrophies.
*CT scan of the chest*
- A **CT scan of the chest** is typically used to investigate conditions such as lung pathology, thymoma (associated with myasthenia gravis), or sarcoidosis.
- It is not a primary diagnostic tool for primary muscle disorders like muscular dystrophy.
*Electromyography*
- **Electromyography (EMG)** can help differentiate between **myopathic** and neuropathic conditions by showing characteristic patterns of muscle fiber degeneration.
- While EMG can support a diagnosis of myopathy, it is not as definitive as **genetic analysis** in confirming a specific muscular dystrophy like BMD, especially given the clear clinical picture.
Question 338: A 34-year-old man with AIDS comes to the physician because of a 2-day history of decreasing vision and seeing black spots in his right eye. He has no pain and the left eye is asymptomatic. He was treated for fungal esophagitis 6 months ago with fluconazole. He was diagnosed with Kaposi's sarcoma 2 years ago. Current medications include efavirenz, tenofovir, emtricitabine, azithromycin, trimethoprim-sulfamethoxazole, multivitamins, and a nutritional supplement. He is 170 cm (5 ft 7 in) tall and weighs 45 kg (99 lbs); BMI is 15.6 kg/m2. His temperature is 37°C (98.6°F), pulse is 89/min, and blood pressure is 110/70 mm Hg. Examination shows cervical lymphadenopathy. There are multiple violaceous plaques seen over his trunk and extremities. Fundoscopic examination shows granular yellow-white opacities around the retinal vessels and multiple areas of dot-blot hemorrhages. His CD4+ T-lymphocyte count is 36/mm3. Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?
A. Cytomegalovirus retinitis (Correct Answer)
B. Toxoplasma retinitis
C. Herpes simplex keratitis
D. Varicella zoster retinitis
E. HIV retinopathy
Explanation: ***Cytomegalovirus retinitis***
- The patient's **severely immunocompromised state** (CD4+ count of 36/mm3), along with the characteristic fundoscopic findings of **"pizza pie" retinopathy** (granular yellow-white opacities around retinal vessels, hemorrhage, and dot-blot hemorrhages), are pathognomonic for CMV retinitis.
- **CMV retinitis** typically causes painless, progressive vision loss and is a common opportunistic infection in advanced AIDS.
*Toxoplasma retinitis*
- While possible in immunocompromised patients, **Toxoplasma retinitis** usually presents with well-demarcated, intensely white, cottony or fluffy lesions often associated with a darker, scarred choroidal lesion, and significant vitreal inflammation, which are not described here.
- The **"pizza pie" appearance** with hemorrhage is more classic for CMV.
*Herpes simplex keratitis*
- **Herpes simplex keratitis** primarily affects the **cornea**, causing symptoms like pain, redness, photophobia, and blurred vision, often with a characteristic dendritic ulcer.
- The patient's symptoms are painless and fundoscopic findings point to a **retinal infection**, not a corneal one.
*Varicella zoster retinitis*
- **Varicella zoster virus (VZV) retinitis** can occur in immunocompromised patients and typically causes acute retinal necrosis, leading to rapid, severe vision loss and often circumferential, peripheral retinal necrosis.
- While VZV retinitis causes retinal damage, the specific fundoscopic description in the patient (granular yellow-white opacities and dot-blot hemorrhages) is more consistent with **CMV**.
*HIV retinopathy*
- **HIV retinopathy** is a microvascular complication of HIV infection, often causing cotton wool spots, retinal hemorrhages, and microaneurysms, but typically **does not cause significant vision loss** or the extensive opacities described.
- The severe changes mentioned, including yellow-white opacities and significant vision loss, are more indicative of an **opportunistic infection** like CMV rather than HIV retinopathy itself.
Question 339: A 65-year-old man was picked up by the security personnel for voiding urine and defecating at an inappropriate place in the community. On questioning, he was making offensive remarks and behaving inappropriately. On physical examination, the physician observed signs of cognitive impairment and amnesia. Initial urine drug screen is negative for any drugs of abuse. Which is the most likely pathological finding present in this patient?
A. Drug abuse
B. Amyloid plaques
C. Lewy bodies
D. Pick bodies (Correct Answer)
E. PrPSC Sheets
Explanation: ***Pick bodies***
- The patient presents with **disinhibition** (inappropriate voiding, defecating in public), **offensive remarks**, and **inappropriate behavior**, which are hallmarks of **frontotemporal dementia (FTD)**, specifically the behavioral variant.
- **Pick bodies** are aggregates of **tau protein** found in neurons of the frontal and temporal lobes, characteristic of Pick's disease, a subtype of FTD.
- Behavioral variant FTD characteristically presents with **personality changes**, **loss of social awareness**, and **executive dysfunction** before significant memory impairment.
*Drug abuse*
- While drug abuse can lead to inappropriate behavior and neuropsychiatric symptoms, the **negative urine drug screen** makes this diagnosis unlikely.
- Drug abuse typically doesn't present with the progressive cognitive decline and specific behavioral pattern seen here.
*Amyloid plaques*
- **Amyloid plaques** (along with neurofibrillary tangles) are characteristic pathological findings in **Alzheimer's disease**, which typically presents with **memory impairment** as the predominant initial symptom.
- Although Alzheimer's disease can lead to behavioral changes in later stages, the **prominent early disinhibition** and preserved memory (relative to behavioral changes) are more typical of FTD than Alzheimer's.
*Lewy bodies*
- **Lewy bodies** are associated with **dementia with Lewy bodies (DLB)** and **Parkinson's disease dementia**.
- DLB is characterized by **fluctuating cognition**, **visual hallucinations**, and **parkinsonism** (rigidity, bradykinesia), which are not the predominant features in this patient's presentation.
*PrPSC Sheets*
- **PrPSC sheets** refer to the misfolded prion protein found in **prion diseases** such as Creutzfeldt-Jakob disease (CJD).
- CJD typically manifests with **rapidly progressive dementia** (over weeks to months), **myoclonus**, and **cerebellar signs**, with a much faster progression than the clinical picture suggested here.
Question 340: A 54-year-old woman comes to the physician because of a painful skin lesion on her right leg for 1 month. It initially started out as a small red spot but has rapidly increased in size during this period. She remembers an ant bite on her leg prior to the lesion occurring. She was treated for anterior uveitis 8 months ago with corticosteroids. She has Crohn's disease, type 2 diabetes mellitus, and hypertension. Current medications include insulin, mesalamine, enalapril, and aspirin. She returned from Wisconsin after visiting her son 2 months ago. Her temperature is 37.6°C (98°F), pulse is 98/min, and blood pressure is 126/88 mm Hg. Examination shows pitting pedal edema of the lower extremities. There is a 4-cm tender ulcerative lesion on the anterior right leg with a central necrotic base and purplish irregular borders. There are dilated tortuous veins in both lower legs. Femoral and pedal pulses are palpated bilaterally. Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?
A. Pyoderma gangrenosum (Correct Answer)
B. Basal cell carcinoma
C. Squamous cell carcinoma
D. Ecthyma gangrenosum
E. Blastomycosis
Explanation: ***Pyoderma gangrenosum***
- The patient's history of **Crohn's disease**, **anterior uveitis**, and a rapidly progressing, **tender ulcerative lesion** with a **necrotic base** and **purplish irregular borders** are highly characteristic of pyoderma gangrenosum.
- The phenomenon of **pathergy** (exacerbation of lesions after minor trauma like a bug bite) further supports this diagnosis.
*Basal cell carcinoma*
- Typically presents as a **slow-growing lesion** with **pearly borders** and **telangiectasias**, not a rapidly enlarging, tender ulcer with a necrotic base.
- It is often associated with sun exposure and rarely presents with the systemic associations seen in this case.
*Squamous cell carcinoma*
- Usually appears as a **scaly, erythematous patch** or an **indurated nodule** that may ulcerate, but it is generally a chronic lesion and less acutely painful or rapidly progressing.
- While it can be aggressive, the clinical presentation and rapid progression with a necrotic center and systemic associations point away from this diagnosis.
*Ecthyma gangrenosum*
- This condition is caused by **Pseudomonas aeruginosa bacteremia** and is characterized by a central necrotic area surrounded by an erythematous halo, typically in immunocompromised patients.
- While there is some overlap in appearance, ecthyma gangrenosum is usually associated with **sepsis** and systemic signs of infection, which are not prominent here.
*Blastomycosis*
- A **fungal infection** endemic to the Great Lakes region (including Wisconsin), which can cause skin lesions that may be verrucous, ulcerative, or plaque-like.
- However, the description of a rapidly progressing, deeply ulcerative lesion with purplish, undermined borders and strong association with inflammatory bowel disease is more consistent with pyoderma gangrenosum.