A 35-year-old man presents with acute onset of chest pain, trouble breathing, and abdominal pain. He says he had recently been training for a triathlon competition when, over the past week, he noticed that he was getting more tired than usual. He figured that it was due to his age since most of the people training with him were in their 20s. However, after completing a particularly difficult workout over this last weekend he noticed left-sided chest pain that did not radiate, and abdominal pain, worse on the right side. The pain persisted after he stopped exercising. This morning he noticed red urine. The patient reports similar past episodes of red urine after intense exercise or excessive alcohol intake for the past 5 years, but says it has never been accompanied by pain. Past medical history is significant for a urinary tract infection last week, treated with trimethoprim-sulfamethoxazole. Physical examination is significant for a systolic flow murmur loudest at the right upper sternal border and right upper quadrant tenderness without guarding or rebound. Laboratory findings are significant for the following:
Hemoglobin 8.5 g/dL
Platelets 133,000/µL
Total bilirubin 6.8 mg/dL
LDH 740 U/L
Haptoglobin 25 mg/dL
An abdominal MRI with contrast is performed which reveals hepatic vein thrombosis. Which of the following laboratory tests would most likely to confirm the diagnosis in this patient?
Q322
A 29-year-old woman comes to the clinic for complaints of fatigue and palpitations for the past 3 days. She reports that even standing up and walking around takes “a lot of energy.” She was forced to call in sick today to her work as a kindergarten teacher. She denies any previous episodes but does endorse symmetric joint pain of her hands, wrists, knees, and ankles that was worse in the morning over the past week that self-resolved. She also reports a runny nose and congestion. Past medical history is unremarkable. Physical examination demonstrates splenomegaly, pallor, and generalized weakness; there is no lymphadenopathy. What is the most likely explanation for this patient’s symptoms?
Q323
A 52-year-old man comes to the physician because of right knee pain and swelling for 2 days. Four days ago, he tripped at home and landed on his knees. He reports an episode of diarrhea 3 weeks ago that resolved after 4 days without treatment. He has a history of hypertension and hypercholesterolemia, and was recently diagnosed with parathyroid disease. He drinks 1–2 ounces of whiskey daily and occasionally more on weekends. His brother has ankylosing spondylitis. Vital signs are within normal limits. Examination of the right leg shows an abrasion below the patella. There is swelling and tenderness of the right knee; range of motion is limited by pain. Arthrocentesis of the right knee joint yields 15 mL of cloudy fluid with a leukocyte count of 26,300/mm3 (91% segmented neutrophils). Microscopic examination of the synovial fluid under polarized light shows rhomboid-shaped, weakly positively birefringent crystals. Which of the following is the strongest predisposing factor for this patient's condition?
Q324
A 63-year-old man is brought to the emergency department by the police after he was found in the streets lying unconscious on the ground. Both of his pupils are normal in size and reactive to light. There are no obvious signs of head trauma. The finger prick test shows a blood glucose level of 20 mg/dL. He has been brought to the emergency department due to acute alcohol intoxication several times. The vital signs include: blood pressure 100/70 mm Hg, heart rate 110/min, respiratory rate 22/min, and temperature 35℃ (95℉). On general examination, he is pale looking and disheveled with an odor of EtOH. On physical examination, the abdomen is soft and non-tender with no hepatosplenomegaly. After giving a bolus of intravenous dextrose, thiamine, and naloxone, he spontaneously opens his eyes. Blood and urine samples are drawn for toxicology screening. The blood alcohol level comes out to be 300 mg/dL. What will be the most likely laboratory findings in this patient?
Q325
A 4-year-old boy presents to the emergency department with a 1 hour history of severe knee pain after he bumped his knee against a door. He has no past medical history though his parents say that he seems to bruise fairly easily. His parents say that they are afraid he may have accidentally taken his grandfather's warfarin medication. On presentation, he is found to have an erythematous, warm, swollen knee. Based on this presentation, a panel of laboratory tests are ordered with the following results:
Bleeding time: 3 minutes
Prothrombin time (PT): 12 seconds
Partial thromboplastin time (PTT): 56 seconds
Mixing studies show correction of the PTT
Which of the following is most likely the cause of this patient's symptoms?
Q326
A previously healthy 17-year-old boy is brought to the emergency department by his mother for further evaluation after elective removal of his wisdom teeth. During the procedure, the patient had persistent bleeding from the teeth's surrounding gums. Multiple gauze packs were applied with minimal effect. The patient has a history of easy bruising. The mother says her brother had similar problems when his wisdom teeth were removed, and that he also has a history of easy bruising and joint swelling. The patient takes no medications. His temperature is 37°C (98.6°F), pulse is 90/min, and blood pressure is 108/74 mm Hg. Laboratory studies show:
Hematocrit 35%
Leukocyte count 8,500/mm3
Platelet count 160,000/mm3
Prothrombin time 15 sec
Partial thromboplastin time 60 sec
Bleeding time 6 min
Fibrin split products negative
Serum
Urea nitrogen 20 mg/dL
Creatinine 1.0 mg/dL
Bilirubin
Total 1.0 mg/dL
Direct 0.5 mg/dL
Lactate dehydrogenase 90 U/L
Peripheral blood smear shows normal-sized platelets. Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?
Q327
A 34-year-old man presents with acute-onset fever and weakness followed by shifting neurologic deficits (aphasia, motor deficits), which have lasted for a few days. His relatives add that his quantity of urine has reduced significantly over the last few days. He has never had any similar symptoms. Laboratory findings are significant for the following:
Hb 8.6 g/dL
WBC 6.5 × 1000/mm3
Platelets 43 × 1000/mm3
Cr 3.1 mg/dL
BUN 25 mg/dL
Na+ 136 mg/dL
K+ 4.2 mg/dL
Cl- 101 mg/dL
HCO3- 24 mg/dL
Glu 101 mg/dL
Examination of the peripheral smear shows the presence of schistocytes, helmet cells, and spherocytes.
Which of the following is true regarding this patient's condition?
Q328
A 43-year-old woman comes to the office with a 5-day history of a rash. She's had a rash across her neck, shoulders, and the palms of her hands for the past five days. She's also had large-volume watery diarrhea for the same period of time. Past medical history is notable for acute myeloid leukemia, for which she received a stem cell transplant from a donor about two months prior. Physical exam reveals a faint red maculopapular rash across her neck, shoulders, and hands, as well as an enlarged liver and spleen. Labs are notable for a total bilirubin of 10. Which of the following is the mechanism of this patient's pathology?
Q329
A 29-year-old African American woman presents with incidentally noted bilateral hilar lymphadenopathy on a recent chest radiograph for the evaluation of pneumonia 1 month earlier. Upon questioning, she reports a cough and dyspnea. The report provided by a previous ophthalmologic consultation did not demonstrate any eye abnormalities. Clinical laboratory pathologic analysis reveals an elevated level of angiotensin-converting enzyme. Her physical examination reveals no obvious abnormalities. Her vital signs show a heart rate of 76/min, respiratory rate of 16/min, and blood pressure of 123/73 mm Hg. Of the following options, which is the mechanism of the reaction causing hilar adenopathy in this patient?
Q330
A 47-year-old woman presents to her physician for difficulty swallowing. She states that she intentionally delayed seeing a physician for this issue. She says her primary issue with swallowing is that her mouth always feels dry so she has difficulty chewing food to the point that it can be swallowed. On physical examination, her oral mucosa appears dry. Both of her eyes also appear dry. Several enlarged lymph nodes are palpated. Which of the following patterns of reactive lymphadenitis is most commonly associated with this patient’s presentation?
Systemic Pathology US Medical PG Practice Questions and MCQs
Question 321: A 35-year-old man presents with acute onset of chest pain, trouble breathing, and abdominal pain. He says he had recently been training for a triathlon competition when, over the past week, he noticed that he was getting more tired than usual. He figured that it was due to his age since most of the people training with him were in their 20s. However, after completing a particularly difficult workout over this last weekend he noticed left-sided chest pain that did not radiate, and abdominal pain, worse on the right side. The pain persisted after he stopped exercising. This morning he noticed red urine. The patient reports similar past episodes of red urine after intense exercise or excessive alcohol intake for the past 5 years, but says it has never been accompanied by pain. Past medical history is significant for a urinary tract infection last week, treated with trimethoprim-sulfamethoxazole. Physical examination is significant for a systolic flow murmur loudest at the right upper sternal border and right upper quadrant tenderness without guarding or rebound. Laboratory findings are significant for the following:
Hemoglobin 8.5 g/dL
Platelets 133,000/µL
Total bilirubin 6.8 mg/dL
LDH 740 U/L
Haptoglobin 25 mg/dL
An abdominal MRI with contrast is performed which reveals hepatic vein thrombosis. Which of the following laboratory tests would most likely to confirm the diagnosis in this patient?
A. Peripheral blood smear
B. Sucrose hemolysis test
C. Hemoglobin electrophoresis
D. Flow cytometry (Correct Answer)
E. Genetic testing
Explanation: ***Flow cytometry***
- **Flow cytometry** is the gold standard for diagnosing **paroxysmal nocturnal hemoglobinuria (PNH)** by detecting the absence of **GPI-anchored proteins (CD55 and CD59)** on the surface of red blood cells, granulocytes, and monocytes.
- The patient's symptoms (fatigue, exertional dyspnea, acute chest and abdominal pain, dark urine after exercise, hemolytic anemia with low haptoglobin and elevated LDH, and hepatic vein thrombosis) are classic for PNH in the setting of physical stress and prior infection.
*Peripheral blood smear*
- A peripheral blood smear might show features of **hemolytic anemia** (e.g., **polychromasia**, occasionally spherocytes or schistocytes if there is concurrent microangiopathy), but it is not specific for PNH.
- PNH is characterized by a defect in red blood cell surface proteins, which is not directly visualizable on a standard blood smear.
*Sucrose hemolysis test*
- The **sucrose hemolysis test** (or Zucker-Heller test) is an older screening test for PNH that detects complement-mediated lysis of red blood cells in a low ionic strength solution.
- It has been largely replaced by flow cytometry due to its lower sensitivity and specificity compared to modern methods.
*Hemoglobin electrophoresis*
- **Hemoglobin electrophoresis** is used to detect abnormal hemoglobin variants, such as those seen in **sickle cell disease** or **thalassemias**.
- While these can cause hemolytic anemia, they do not present with the specific constellation of symptoms, including thrombotic episodes like hepatic vein thrombosis, characteristic of PNH.
*Genetic testing*
- Genetic testing for mutations in the **PIGA gene**, which is responsible for the GPI anchor defect in PNH, can be performed but is generally reserved for atypical cases or research.
- It is not the primary diagnostic test and is typically performed after flow cytometry has established the diagnosis.
Question 322: A 29-year-old woman comes to the clinic for complaints of fatigue and palpitations for the past 3 days. She reports that even standing up and walking around takes “a lot of energy.” She was forced to call in sick today to her work as a kindergarten teacher. She denies any previous episodes but does endorse symmetric joint pain of her hands, wrists, knees, and ankles that was worse in the morning over the past week that self-resolved. She also reports a runny nose and congestion. Past medical history is unremarkable. Physical examination demonstrates splenomegaly, pallor, and generalized weakness; there is no lymphadenopathy. What is the most likely explanation for this patient’s symptoms?
A. Rheumatoid arthritis
B. Substitution of glutamic acid with valine at the beta chain
C. Anemia of chronic disease
D. Mutation of ankyrin
E. Infection with Epstein-Barr virus (Correct Answer)
Explanation: **Infection with Ebstein-Barr virus**
- The patient's symptoms of **fatigue**, **palpitations**, **splenomegaly**, and recent **runny nose/congestion** are highly suggestive of **infectious mononucleosis**, which is caused by the Epstein-Barr virus (EBV).
- The transient, symmetric polyarthralgia followed by resolution is consistent with a viral prodrome, and the pallor and generalized weakness point towards **anemia**, a common complication of infectious mononucleosis.
*Rheumatoid arthritis*
- While **symmetric joint pain** is characteristic of rheumatoid arthritis, the rapid onset, transient nature, and association with a viral-like prodrome and splenomegaly make this diagnosis less likely.
- Rheumatoid arthritis typically causes chronic, progressive joint inflammation and destruction, not self-resolving symptoms followed by systemic signs like splenomegaly.
*Substitution of glutamic acid with valine at the beta chain*
- This describes the genetic mutation responsible for **sickle cell anemia**. The patient's symptoms are acute and associated with a viral illness, not chronic hemolytic anemia or sickle cell crisis.
- There is no mention of a history of anemia or family history to suggest a genetic hemoglobinopathy.
*Anemia of chronic disease*
- Anemia of chronic disease typically presents with more insidious onset and is associated with chronic inflammatory conditions, infections, or malignancies.
- While fatigue and pallor are present, the acute presentation, viral prodrome, and splenomegaly point towards a more acute infectious process rather than a chronic disease.
*Mutation of ankyrin*
- A mutation in ankyrin or spectrin is associated with **hereditary spherocytosis**, a genetic hemolytic anemia.
- This condition usually presents with chronic or episodic hemolysis, jaundice, and often a family history of anemia, which are not described in this patient's acute presentation.
Question 323: A 52-year-old man comes to the physician because of right knee pain and swelling for 2 days. Four days ago, he tripped at home and landed on his knees. He reports an episode of diarrhea 3 weeks ago that resolved after 4 days without treatment. He has a history of hypertension and hypercholesterolemia, and was recently diagnosed with parathyroid disease. He drinks 1–2 ounces of whiskey daily and occasionally more on weekends. His brother has ankylosing spondylitis. Vital signs are within normal limits. Examination of the right leg shows an abrasion below the patella. There is swelling and tenderness of the right knee; range of motion is limited by pain. Arthrocentesis of the right knee joint yields 15 mL of cloudy fluid with a leukocyte count of 26,300/mm3 (91% segmented neutrophils). Microscopic examination of the synovial fluid under polarized light shows rhomboid-shaped, weakly positively birefringent crystals. Which of the following is the strongest predisposing factor for this patient's condition?
A. Alcohol consumption
B. Dyslipidemia
C. Local skin abrasion
D. Hyperparathyroidism (Correct Answer)
E. Recent gastrointestinal infection
Explanation: ***Hyperparathyroidism***
- The presence of **rhomboid-shaped, weakly positively birefringent crystals** in the synovial fluid indicates **calcium pyrophosphate dihydrate (CPPD) crystal deposition disease**, also known as pseudogout.
- **Hyperparathyroidism** leads to **increased calcium concentration**, which is a significant predisposing factor for CPPD crystal formation and subsequent pseudogout attacks.
*Alcohol consumption*
- While excessive alcohol intake is a risk factor for **gout** (uric acid crystal deposition), it is **not a direct or strong predisposing factor for pseudogout**.
- The crystals found in this patient are characteristic of pseudogout, not gout.
*Dyslipidemia*
- **Dyslipidemia** (high cholesterol) is a risk factor for cardiovascular disease but has **no direct causal link** to the formation of calcium pyrophosphate crystals or pseudogout.
- It is a comorbidity often seen in older adult populations but is not a predisposing factor for this specific arthritic condition.
*Local skin abrasion*
- A **local skin abrasion** could potentially present a portal of entry for infection leading to **septic arthritis**, but the presence of specific crystals in the synovial fluid points away from a primary bacterial infection.
- While trauma can sometimes trigger a pseudogout flare in individuals with CPPD, the abrasion itself is not the underlying predisposing factor for the crystal formation.
*Recent gastrointestinal infection*
- A recent gastrointestinal infection is a known trigger for **reactive arthritis**, which presents with sterile synovitis, but typically involves different clinical features and no crystals.
- This patient's symptoms and synovial fluid analysis (CPPD crystals) are not consistent with reactive arthritis.
Question 324: A 63-year-old man is brought to the emergency department by the police after he was found in the streets lying unconscious on the ground. Both of his pupils are normal in size and reactive to light. There are no obvious signs of head trauma. The finger prick test shows a blood glucose level of 20 mg/dL. He has been brought to the emergency department due to acute alcohol intoxication several times. The vital signs include: blood pressure 100/70 mm Hg, heart rate 110/min, respiratory rate 22/min, and temperature 35℃ (95℉). On general examination, he is pale looking and disheveled with an odor of EtOH. On physical examination, the abdomen is soft and non-tender with no hepatosplenomegaly. After giving a bolus of intravenous dextrose, thiamine, and naloxone, he spontaneously opens his eyes. Blood and urine samples are drawn for toxicology screening. The blood alcohol level comes out to be 300 mg/dL. What will be the most likely laboratory findings in this patient?
A. Howell-Jolly bodies
B. Macrocytosis MCV > 100fL (Correct Answer)
C. Sickle cells
D. Hypersegmented neutrophils
E. Schistocytes
Explanation: ***Macrocytosis MCV > 100fL***
- **Chronic alcohol abuse** is the most common cause of macrocytosis in clinical practice, occurring through **multiple mechanisms**: direct bone marrow toxicity, interference with folate metabolism, and effects on lipid incorporation into RBC membranes.
- **Macrocytosis is nearly universal** in chronic alcoholics and can occur **even without folate or B12 deficiency**, making it the most consistent laboratory finding.
- The patient's history of recurrent acute alcohol intoxication, disheveled appearance, and blood alcohol level of 300 mg/dL strongly indicate chronic alcoholism.
*Howell-Jolly bodies*
- These are **nuclear remnants** in red blood cells that indicate **hyposplenism or asplenism**, meaning the spleen is not effectively removing these inclusions.
- There is no clinical evidence of splenic dysfunction, hyposplenism, or prior splenectomy in this patient.
*Sickle cells*
- **Sickle cells** are characteristic of **sickle cell disease**, an inherited hemolytic disorder caused by a mutation in the beta-globin gene.
- The clinical presentation is related to alcohol toxicity, not a hemolytic crisis or chronic hemolytic anemia.
*Hypersegmented neutrophils*
- **Hypersegmented neutrophils** (≥ 5 lobes) are a hallmark of **megaloblastic anemia** due to **vitamin B12 or folate deficiency**.
- While chronic alcoholics can develop folate deficiency and may have hypersegmented neutrophils in **advanced cases**, this finding is **less consistent** than macrocytosis.
- **Macrocytosis appears earlier** and is present in virtually all chronic alcoholics, whereas hypersegmented neutrophils require significant nutritional deficiency to develop.
- The question asks for the **most likely** finding, making macrocytosis the better answer.
*Schistocytes*
- **Schistocytes** are **fragmented red blood cells** indicating **microangiopathic hemolytic anemia** (e.g., DIC, TTP, HUS) or mechanical hemolysis (e.g., prosthetic heart valves).
- The patient's presentation does not suggest intravascular hemolysis, coagulopathy, or mechanical RBC destruction.
Question 325: A 4-year-old boy presents to the emergency department with a 1 hour history of severe knee pain after he bumped his knee against a door. He has no past medical history though his parents say that he seems to bruise fairly easily. His parents say that they are afraid he may have accidentally taken his grandfather's warfarin medication. On presentation, he is found to have an erythematous, warm, swollen knee. Based on this presentation, a panel of laboratory tests are ordered with the following results:
Bleeding time: 3 minutes
Prothrombin time (PT): 12 seconds
Partial thromboplastin time (PTT): 56 seconds
Mixing studies show correction of the PTT
Which of the following is most likely the cause of this patient's symptoms?
A. Production of an autoantibody
B. Warfarin toxicity
C. Platelet defect
D. Deficiency in a coagulation factor (Correct Answer)
E. Deficiency of von Willebrand factor
Explanation: ***Deficiency in a coagulation factor***
- The prolonged **partial thromboplastin time (PTT)** with a normal **prothrombin time (PT)** indicates an issue in the **intrinsic coagulation pathway**, suggesting a deficiency in factors VIII, IX, XI, or XII.
- **Mixing studies show correction of the PTT**, which confirms a **factor deficiency** rather than an inhibitor (autoantibody). In factor deficiency, adding normal plasma provides the missing factor, correcting the PTT.
- The presentation of **severe knee pain** after minor trauma, along with easy bruising, strongly points towards **hemarthrosis**, a classic sign of **hemophilia A or B**, caused by deficiency in factor VIII or IX respectively.
- The patient's young age (4 years) and clinical presentation are consistent with **congenital hemophilia**.
*Production of an autoantibody*
- An autoantibody, such as a **factor VIII inhibitor** or **lupus anticoagulant**, would also prolong the PTT, but mixing studies would show **no correction** or incomplete correction because the autoantibody in the patient's plasma inhibits the factors in the normal plasma.
- Since mixing studies show **correction** in this case, an autoantibody is ruled out.
*Warfarin toxicity*
- **Warfarin** primarily inhibits **vitamin K-dependent factors (II, VII, IX, X)**, affecting the **extrinsic** and **common pathways**, which would prolong the **PT** first and more significantly than the PTT.
- The patient's **normal PT** rules out warfarin toxicity.
*Platelet defect*
- A **platelet defect** (e.g., thrombocytopenia or platelet dysfunction) would typically lead to a prolonged **bleeding time**, but the patient's bleeding time is normal (3 minutes).
- Platelet defects are also associated with **mucocutaneous bleeding** (e.g., petechiae, purpura, epistaxis), not typically deep joint bleeding or hemarthrosis.
*Deficiency of von Willebrand factor*
- A deficiency in **von Willebrand factor (vWF)** would typically cause a prolonged **bleeding time** due to impaired platelet adhesion, which is normal in this patient.
- While severe vWF deficiency (Type 3) can also cause a prolonged PTT (as vWF carries and protects factor VIII from degradation), the primary laboratory finding would be an **elevated bleeding time**, which is not present here.
Question 326: A previously healthy 17-year-old boy is brought to the emergency department by his mother for further evaluation after elective removal of his wisdom teeth. During the procedure, the patient had persistent bleeding from the teeth's surrounding gums. Multiple gauze packs were applied with minimal effect. The patient has a history of easy bruising. The mother says her brother had similar problems when his wisdom teeth were removed, and that he also has a history of easy bruising and joint swelling. The patient takes no medications. His temperature is 37°C (98.6°F), pulse is 90/min, and blood pressure is 108/74 mm Hg. Laboratory studies show:
Hematocrit 35%
Leukocyte count 8,500/mm3
Platelet count 160,000/mm3
Prothrombin time 15 sec
Partial thromboplastin time 60 sec
Bleeding time 6 min
Fibrin split products negative
Serum
Urea nitrogen 20 mg/dL
Creatinine 1.0 mg/dL
Bilirubin
Total 1.0 mg/dL
Direct 0.5 mg/dL
Lactate dehydrogenase 90 U/L
Peripheral blood smear shows normal-sized platelets. Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?
A. Hemophilia
B. Bernard-Soulier syndrome
C. Glanzmann thrombasthenia
D. Von Willebrand disease (Correct Answer)
E. Immune thrombocytopenia
Explanation: ***Von Willebrand disease***
- This patient presents with a **history of easy bruising** and **persistent bleeding after a surgical procedure**, along with a **prolonged bleeding time** and **prolonged PTT**. The family history of similar bleeding issues and joint swelling (which can represent hemarthroses) in his maternal uncle is also highly suggestive of an inherited bleeding disorder. These findings, particularly the prolonged bleeding time with normal platelet count and the prolonged PTT (due to Factor VIII deficiency), are classic for **von Willebrand disease (vWD)**.
- Von Willebrand disease is the **most common inherited bleeding disorder**, characterized by a deficiency or dysfunction of **von Willebrand factor (vWF)**. vWF plays a dual role in hemostasis: it mediates platelet adhesion to the subendothelium (reflected by prolonged bleeding time) and also chaperones and protects **Factor VIII** from degradation, leading to a mild to moderate deficiency of Factor VIII (reflected by prolonged PTT).
*Hemophilia*
- Hemophilia A (Factor VIII deficiency) or Hemophilia B (Factor IX deficiency) would present with a **prolonged PTT** but a **normal bleeding time** and **platelet count**.
- While the patient has a prolonged PTT and family history of joint swelling (consistent with hemarthroses seen in hemophilia), his **prolonged bleeding time** is inconsistent with hemophilia alone.
*Bernard-Soulier syndrome*
- This syndrome is characterized by a defect in **platelet adhesion** due to a deficiency of **glycoprotein Ib (GP Ib)**, leading to **macrothrombocytopenia** (large platelets and reduced platelet count) and a **prolonged bleeding time**.
- The patient has a **normal platelet count** and **normal-sized platelets** on peripheral smear, which makes Bernard-Soulier syndrome less likely.
*Glanzmann thrombasthenia*
- This is a disorder of **platelet aggregation** due to a deficiency in **glycoprotein IIb/IIIa (GP IIb/IIIa)**, resulting in a **prolonged bleeding time** despite a normal platelet count and morphology.
- However, Glanzmann thrombasthenia typically presents with a **normal PTT**, whereas this patient has a **prolonged PTT**, making it less likely.
*Immune thrombocytopenia*
- **Immune thrombocytopenia (ITP)** is characterized by an **isolated low platelet count** (thrombocytopenia) and a **prolonged bleeding time**, with other coagulation parameters (PT, PTT) being normal.
- The patient has a **normal platelet count** (160,000/mm3) and a **prolonged PTT**, which is inconsistent with ITP.
Question 327: A 34-year-old man presents with acute-onset fever and weakness followed by shifting neurologic deficits (aphasia, motor deficits), which have lasted for a few days. His relatives add that his quantity of urine has reduced significantly over the last few days. He has never had any similar symptoms. Laboratory findings are significant for the following:
Hb 8.6 g/dL
WBC 6.5 × 1000/mm3
Platelets 43 × 1000/mm3
Cr 3.1 mg/dL
BUN 25 mg/dL
Na+ 136 mg/dL
K+ 4.2 mg/dL
Cl- 101 mg/dL
HCO3- 24 mg/dL
Glu 101 mg/dL
Examination of the peripheral smear shows the presence of schistocytes, helmet cells, and spherocytes.
Which of the following is true regarding this patient's condition?
A. A platelet transfusion should be given.
B. Bleeding time will be normal.
C. The condition is caused by the deficiency of a sodium transporter.
D. Plasmapheresis is the treatment of choice. (Correct Answer)
E. Splenectomy should be performed as early as possible.
Explanation: ***Plasmapheresis is the treatment of choice.***
- This patient presents with the classic pentad of **Thrombotic Thrombocytopenic Purpura (TTP)**: **fever, neurologic deficits, renal impairment, microangiopathic hemolytic anemia (schistocytes, low Hb), and thrombocytopenia (low platelets)**.
- **Plasmapheresis** (plasma exchange) is the definitive treatment for TTP, as it removes antibodies targeting **ADAMTS13** and replaces deficient ADAMTS13 with healthy plasma.
*A platelet transfusion should be given.*
- **Platelet transfusions are generally contraindicated in TTP** because they can worsen thrombosis by adding more platelets to an already hypercoagulable state.
- This can exacerbate the microvascular occlusions responsible for organ damage.
*Bleeding time will be normal.*
- The patient has severe **thrombocytopenia (43 × 1000/mm³)** which directly impairs primary hemostasis.
- **Bleeding time** is a measure of platelet function and will be **prolonged** significantly in patients with such low platelet counts.
*The condition is caused by the deficiency of a sodium transporter.*
- TTP is caused by a severe deficiency or inhibition of the **ADAMTS13 enzyme**, which is a metalloprotease responsible for cleaving **ultralarge von Willebrand factor (vWF)** multimers.
- A deficiency in a sodium transporter is unrelated to TTP and would be associated with conditions like certain renal tubular disorders.
*Splenectomy should be performed as early as possible.*
- **Splenectomy** is not a primary or early treatment for TTP.
- While it may be considered in rare, refractory cases of TTP that do not respond to plasmapheresis and rituximab, it is not the initial or preferred approach due to its invasiveness and potential complications.
Question 328: A 43-year-old woman comes to the office with a 5-day history of a rash. She's had a rash across her neck, shoulders, and the palms of her hands for the past five days. She's also had large-volume watery diarrhea for the same period of time. Past medical history is notable for acute myeloid leukemia, for which she received a stem cell transplant from a donor about two months prior. Physical exam reveals a faint red maculopapular rash across her neck, shoulders, and hands, as well as an enlarged liver and spleen. Labs are notable for a total bilirubin of 10. Which of the following is the mechanism of this patient's pathology?
A. Drug hypersensitivity reaction
B. Host CD8+ T cells against graft antigens
C. Graft T cells against host antigens (Correct Answer)
D. Pre-existing host antibodies against graft antigens
E. Host antibodies that have developed against graft antigens
Explanation: ***Graft T cells against host antigens***
- This patient's symptoms (rash, diarrhea, hepatosplenomegaly, elevated bilirubin) occurring after a stem cell transplant are classic for **graft-versus-host disease (GVHD)**.
- GVHD occurs when **donor T cells** from the graft recognize the recipient's (host's) tissues as foreign and mount an immune attack against them.
*Drug hypersensitivity reaction*
- While drug rashes can occur, the widespread nature, severe GI involvement (large-volume watery diarrhea), and liver dysfunction, especially in the context of a recent stem cell transplant, point away from a simple **hypersensitivity reaction**.
- A drug reaction would typically not cause such severe systemic effects or splenomegaly.
*Host CD8+ T cells against graft antigens*
- This describes **host-versus-graft rejection**, where the recipient's immune system attacks the transplanted cells.
- In a stem cell transplant setting, the host's immune system is typically severely suppressed to prevent this, and the clinical picture here is characteristic of the donor cells attacking the host.
*Pre-existing host antibodies against graft antigens*
- Pre-existing antibodies would cause a **hyperacute or acute rejection** much earlier after transplantation, often within minutes to days.
- This patient's symptoms developed two months post-transplant, which is more typical for acute GVHD, mediated by T cells.
*Host antibodies that have developed against graft antigens*
- The development of host antibodies against graft antigens would lead to **humoral rejection**, which typically manifests differently and less commonly causes the specific constellation of symptoms seen here (skin rash, severe diarrhea, cholestatic hepatitis in the context of stem cell transplant).
- T-cell-mediated responses are the primary drivers of GVHD in this scenario.
Question 329: A 29-year-old African American woman presents with incidentally noted bilateral hilar lymphadenopathy on a recent chest radiograph for the evaluation of pneumonia 1 month earlier. Upon questioning, she reports a cough and dyspnea. The report provided by a previous ophthalmologic consultation did not demonstrate any eye abnormalities. Clinical laboratory pathologic analysis reveals an elevated level of angiotensin-converting enzyme. Her physical examination reveals no obvious abnormalities. Her vital signs show a heart rate of 76/min, respiratory rate of 16/min, and blood pressure of 123/73 mm Hg. Of the following options, which is the mechanism of the reaction causing hilar adenopathy in this patient?
A. Type III and IV–mixed immune complex and cell-mediated hypersensitivity reactions
B. Type I–anaphylactic hypersensitivity reaction
C. Type II–cytotoxic hypersensitivity reaction
D. Type IV–cell-mediated (delayed) hypersensitivity reaction (Correct Answer)
E. Type III–immune complex-mediated hypersensitivity reaction
Explanation: ***Type IV–cell-mediated (delayed) hypersensitivity reaction***
- Sarcoidosis, characterized by **bilateral hilar lymphadenopathy**, cough, dyspnea, and elevated **angiotensin-converting enzyme (ACE)** levels, is a classic example of a **Type IV hypersensitivity reaction**.
- This reaction involves the accumulation of **T lymphocytes** and macrophages, leading to the formation of **non-caseating granulomas** in affected tissues.
*Type III and IV–mixed immune complex and cell-mediated hypersensitivity reactions*
- While sarcoidosis involves a chronic inflammatory process and granuloma formation (Type IV), there isn't significant evidence pointing towards **immune complex deposition** (Type III) as a primary mechanism in its pathogenesis.
- This option incorrectly suggests a mixed mechanism when the predominant feature aligns with a single, specific type of hypersensitivity.
*Type I–anaphylactic hypersensitivity reaction*
- This type involves **IgE-mediated mast cell degranulation**, leading to immediate allergic reactions such as **anaphylaxis** or asthma, which is not consistent with the patient's presentation.
- Clinical signs like **hives, angioedema, and bronchospasm** are characteristic, none of which are described.
*Type II–cytotoxic hypersensitivity reaction*
- This reaction involves **antibody-mediated destruction of cells** or tissues, typically seen in conditions like **autoimmune hemolytic anemia** or **Goodpasture syndrome**.
- There is no indication of direct antibody-mediated cellular destruction in sarcoidosis.
*Type III–immune complex-mediated hypersensitivity reaction*
- This reaction involves the formation and deposition of **antigen-antibody immune complexes** in tissues, leading to inflammation, as seen in **serum sickness** or certain vasculitides.
- While inflammation is present in sarcoidosis, the primary mechanism of tissue damage is not due to widespread immune complex deposition.
Question 330: A 47-year-old woman presents to her physician for difficulty swallowing. She states that she intentionally delayed seeing a physician for this issue. She says her primary issue with swallowing is that her mouth always feels dry so she has difficulty chewing food to the point that it can be swallowed. On physical examination, her oral mucosa appears dry. Both of her eyes also appear dry. Several enlarged lymph nodes are palpated. Which of the following patterns of reactive lymphadenitis is most commonly associated with this patient’s presentation?
A. Sinus hyperplasia
B. Follicular hyperplasia (Correct Answer)
C. Diffuse hyperplasia
D. Mixed B and T cell hyperplasia
E. Paracortical hyperplasia
Explanation: ***Follicular hyperplasia***
- The patient's symptoms of **dry mouth (xerostomia)** and **dry eyes (xerophthalmia)** strongly suggest **Sjögren syndrome**. This autoimmune disease selectively affects **exocrine glands**, particularly the salivary and lacrimal glands.
- Lymphoid hyperplasia, especially **follicular hyperplasia**, is a common feature in Sjögren syndrome due to chronic B-cell activation, which is linked to a higher risk of developing **MALT lymphoma**.
*Sinus hyperplasia*
- **Sinus hyperplasia**, also known as **reticular hyperplasia**, is characterized by an increase in the number and size of macrophages within the subcapsular and medullary sinuses of lymph nodes.
- It is typically associated with **lymph nodes draining a site of malignancy** or conditions involving histiocytic proliferation.
*Diffuse hyperplasia*
- **Diffuse hyperplasia** involves a generalized expansion of all lymphoid components within the lymph node, without a predominance of any specific area.
- This pattern is less specific and can be seen in various **chronic inflammatory conditions** or reactive processes, but it is not the most characteristic pattern for Sjögren syndrome.
*Mixed B and T cell hyperplasia*
- While both B and T cells are involved in immune responses, **mixed B and T cell hyperplasia** refers to the expansion of both populations in a less defined pattern than follicular or paracortical types.
- Conditions like **toxoplasmosis** can present with mixed hyperplasia, but it is not the classic pattern seen in Sjögren syndrome.
*Paracortical hyperplasia*
- **Paracortical hyperplasia** involves the expansion of the paracortical areas of the lymph node, which are rich in T-lymphocytes.
- This pattern is typically seen in response to **viral infections** (e.g., infectious mononucleosis) or certain drug reactions, where T-cell activation is a prominent feature.