An 8-year-old boy is brought to the pediatrician because his mother is concerned about recent behavioral changes. His mother states that she has started to notice that he is slurring his speech and seems to be falling more than normal. On exam, the pediatrician observes the boy has pes cavus, hammer toes, and kyphoscoliosis. Based on these findings, the pediatrician is concerned the child has a trinucleotide repeat disease. Which of the following trinucleotide repeats is this child most likely to possess?
Q292
A 52-year-old man presents to the Emergency Department because of bilateral leg swelling and puffiness of both eyes in the morning. His symptoms started about 2 weeks ago. He denies smoking or alcohol use and his family history is noncontributory. Today, his vital signs include a temperature of 36.8°C (98.2°F), blood pressure of 162/87 mm Hg, and a pulse of 85/min. On physical examination, he is jaundiced and there is hepatosplenomegaly and 2+ lower extremity edema up to the mid-thigh. Laboratory results are shown:
Anti-HCV
reactive
Serum albumin
3 g/dL
Urine dipstick
3+ protein
Urinalysis
10–15 red blood cells/high power field and red cell casts
Which of the following is a feature of this patient’s condition?
Q293
A 22-year-old man comes to the physician because of a 2-week history of cough and decreased urination. The cough was initially nonproductive, but in the last few days he has coughed up small amounts of blood-tinged sputum with clots. He has not had any fevers, chills, or weight loss. He has smoked one pack of cigarettes daily for 5 years. Pulse is 115/min and blood pressure is 125/66 mm Hg. Physical examination shows dried blood around the lips. Serum studies show a creatinine of 2.9 mg/dL. Results of a serum antineutrophil cytoplasm antibody test are negative. A biopsy specimen of the kidney is most likely to show which of the following light microscopy findings?
Q294
A 4-year-old girl is brought to the physician because of worsening jaundice that started 8 days ago. She has had similar episodes in the past. Her father underwent a splenectomy during adolescence. Physical examination shows mild splenomegaly. Laboratory studies show:
Hemoglobin 10.1 g/dL
WBC count 7200/mm3
Mean corpuscular volume 81 μm3
Mean corpuscular hemoglobin concentration 41% Hb/cell
Platelet count 250,000/mm3
Red cell distribution width 16% (N=13%–15%)
Reticulocytes 11%
Erythrocyte sedimentation rate 10 mm/h
Serum
Na+ 139 mEq/L
K+ 4.2 mEq/L
Cl- 100 mEq/L
Urea nitrogen 16 mg/dL
A peripheral blood smear shows red blood cells that appear round, smaller, and without central pallor. Which of the following is the most sensitive test for confirming this patient's condition?
Q295
An otherwise healthy 47-year-old woman comes to the physician for the evaluation of a 4-month history of worsening fatigue and constipation. She has also noticed that her cheeks appear fuller and her voice has become hoarse. Her temperature is 36.3°C (97.3°F) and pulse is 59/min. Examination of the neck shows a painless, mildly enlarged thyroid gland. Her skin is dry and cool and her nails appear brittle. Serum studies show antibodies against thyroid peroxidase. A biopsy of the thyroid gland is most likely to show which of the following?
Q296
A 19-year-old woman presents to her primary care physician because she has been feeling increasingly lethargic over the last 6 months. Specifically, she says that she feels tired easily and has been cold even though she is wearing lots of layers. Her medical history is significant for seasonal allergies but is otherwise unremarkable. When prompted, she also says that she has a hard time swallowing food though she has no difficulty drinking liquids. Physical exam reveals a midline mass in her neck. Which of the following structures would most likely be seen if this patient's mass was biopsied?
Q297
A 27-year-old man presents to the emergency room complaining of shortness of breath and productive cough for a few days. He says that his sputum is mostly yellow with tiny red specks. He denies fever, chills, recent weight loss, or joint pain. He has no history of recent travel or sick contacts. His medical history is unremarkable. He smokes a pack of cigarettes daily. He has had 3 sexual partners in the past year. His temperature is 37°C (98.6°F), blood pressure is 110/70 mm Hg, pulse is 98/min, and respirations are 20/min. On physical examination, the patient is in mild respiratory distress. Cardiopulmonary auscultation reveals diffuse bilateral rales. An HIV test is negative. His laboratory results are as follow:
Complete blood count
Hemoglobin 12 gm/dL
Serum chemistry
Sodium 143 mEq/L
Potassium 4.1 mEq/L
Chloride 98 mEq/L
Bicarbonate 22 mEq/L
Blood urea nitrogen 26 mg/dL
Creatinine 2.3 mg/dL
Glucose 86 mg/dL
Urine dipstick
Protein trace
Blood positive
Leukocytes negative
Nitrates negative
Which of the following is the most likely cause of his current condition?
Q298
A 29-year-old woman presents with skin lesions on her elbows and forearms. She notes that they first started appearing 2 months ago and have not improved. She describes the lesions as painless and rarely itchy. She denies any similar symptoms in the past, and has no other significant past medical history. Review of systems is significant for recent joint pain, conjunctivitis, and corneal dryness. The patient is afebrile and vital signs are within normal limits. Non-tender, raised, inflamed, white-silver maculopapular lesions are present. Which of the following are the most likely histopathologic findings in this patient's skin biopsy?
Q299
A 43-year-old male visits the emergency room around 4 weeks after getting bitten by a bat during a cave diving trip. After cleansing the wound with water, the patient reports that he felt well enough not to seek medical attention immediately following his trip. He does endorse feeling feverish in the past week but a new onset of photophobia and irritability led him to seek help today. What would the post-mortem pathology report show if the patient succumbs to this infection?
Q300
A 44-year-old man is brought to the emergency department by his daughter for a 1-week history of right leg weakness, unsteady gait, and multiple falls. During the past 6 months, he has become more forgetful and has sometimes lost his way along familiar routes. He has been having difficulties operating simple kitchen appliances such as the dishwasher and the coffee maker. He has recently become increasingly paranoid, agitated, and restless. He has HIV, hypertension, and type 2 diabetes mellitus. His last visit to a physician was more than 2 years ago, and he has been noncompliant with his medications. His temperature is 37.2 °C (99.0 °F), blood pressure is 152/68 mm Hg, pulse is 98/min, and respirations are 14/min. He is somnolent and slightly confused. He is oriented to person, but not place or time. There is mild lymphadenopathy in the cervical, axillary, and inguinal areas. Neurological examination shows right lower extremity weakness with normal tone and no other focal deficits. Laboratory studies show:
Hemoglobin 9.2 g/dL
Leukocyte count 3600/mm3
Platelet count 140,000/mm3
CD4+ count 56/μL
HIV viral load > 100,000 copies/mL
Serum
Cryptococcal antigen negative
Toxoplasma gondii IgG positive
An MRI of the brain shows disseminated, nonenhancing white matter lesions with no mass effect. Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?
Systemic Pathology US Medical PG Practice Questions and MCQs
Question 291: An 8-year-old boy is brought to the pediatrician because his mother is concerned about recent behavioral changes. His mother states that she has started to notice that he is slurring his speech and seems to be falling more than normal. On exam, the pediatrician observes the boy has pes cavus, hammer toes, and kyphoscoliosis. Based on these findings, the pediatrician is concerned the child has a trinucleotide repeat disease. Which of the following trinucleotide repeats is this child most likely to possess?
A. CTG
B. GAA (Correct Answer)
C. CGG
D. CAG
E. GCC
Explanation: ***GAA***
- This trinucleotide repeat is associated with **Friedreich's ataxia**, an autosomal recessive neurodegenerative disorder.
- The presented symptoms of **ataxia** (slurred speech, falling), **pes cavus**, **hammer toes**, and **kyphoscoliosis** are classic features of Friedreich's ataxia.
*CTG*
- This trinucleotide repeat is associated with **myotonic dystrophy type 1**, an autosomal dominant disorder.
- While it causes muscle weakness, it is characterized by **myotonia** (delayed muscle relaxation), cataracts, and frontal baldness, which are not described here.
*CGG*
- This trinucleotide repeat is associated with **fragile X syndrome**, an X-linked dominant disorder.
- Fragile X syndrome primarily causes intellectual disability, behavioral issues (e.g., autism spectrum disorder), and characteristic facial features, but not the specific neurological and orthopedic findings seen in this patient.
*CAG*
- This trinucleotide repeat is associated with several neurodegenerative diseases, including **Huntington's disease**, spinocerebellar ataxias, and **dentatorubral-pallidoluysian atrophy**.
- Huntington's disease, for example, presents with chorea, cognitive decline, and psychiatric symptoms, differing from the patient's presentation.
*GCC*
- This trinucleotide repeat is associated with **fragile X-associated tremor/ataxia syndrome (FXTAS)**.
- FXTAS typically affects older adult carriers of premutation alleles for fragile X, presenting with intention tremor and gait ataxia, not the early childhood onset and specific orthopedic deformities seen here.
Question 292: A 52-year-old man presents to the Emergency Department because of bilateral leg swelling and puffiness of both eyes in the morning. His symptoms started about 2 weeks ago. He denies smoking or alcohol use and his family history is noncontributory. Today, his vital signs include a temperature of 36.8°C (98.2°F), blood pressure of 162/87 mm Hg, and a pulse of 85/min. On physical examination, he is jaundiced and there is hepatosplenomegaly and 2+ lower extremity edema up to the mid-thigh. Laboratory results are shown:
Anti-HCV
reactive
Serum albumin
3 g/dL
Urine dipstick
3+ protein
Urinalysis
10–15 red blood cells/high power field and red cell casts
Which of the following is a feature of this patient’s condition?
A. Few immune complex deposits
B. Phospholipase A2 receptor antibodies
C. Subendothelial immune complex deposits (Correct Answer)
D. Renal vasoconstriction and altered autoregulation
E. Normal complement level
Explanation: ***Subendothelial immune complex deposits***
- The patient's presentation with **jaundice**, **hepatosplenomegaly**, **reactive anti-HCV**, and **nephritic-range proteinuria with red cell casts** and edema points to **hepatitis C-associated membranoproliferative glomerulonephritis (MPGN)**, also known as cryoglobulinemic glomerulonephritis.
- MPGN is characterized by **immune complex deposition** within the glomerular capillary walls, specifically in the subendothelial space, often with C3 deposits and mesangial proliferation.
*Few immune complex deposits*
- This is incorrect as **MPGN type I** (the most common type, frequently associated with hepatitis C) is characterized by prominent **immune complex deposition**.
- Conditions with few immune complex deposits often include **minimal change disease** or some forms of **focal segmental glomerulosclerosis (FSGS)**, which do not fit the entire clinical picture.
*Phospholipase A2 receptor antibodies*
- These antibodies are strongly associated with **idiopathic membranous nephropathy**, a different form of glomerulonephritis presenting primarily with **nephrotic syndrome**.
- While membranous nephropathy can cause proteinuria, the presence of **red cell casts** and **hepatosplenomegaly** with **HCV infection** makes MPGN much more likely.
*Renal vasoconstriction and altered autoregulation*
- This describes the pathophysiology of **hepatorenal syndrome**, a complication of advanced liver disease characterized by functional renal failure without intrinsic kidney disease.
- However, the presence of **proteinuria** and especially **red cell casts** in the urine indicates significant glomerular inflammation and **intrinsic kidney disease**, rather than functional renal impairment.
*Normal complement level*
- In **HCV-associated MPGN**, circulating **mixed cryoglobulins** lead to widespread immune complex formation and **complement activation** (primarily via the classical pathway), resulting in **decreased C4 and C3 complement levels**.
- A normal complement level would be unusual for active cryoglobulinemic glomerulonephritis.
Question 293: A 22-year-old man comes to the physician because of a 2-week history of cough and decreased urination. The cough was initially nonproductive, but in the last few days he has coughed up small amounts of blood-tinged sputum with clots. He has not had any fevers, chills, or weight loss. He has smoked one pack of cigarettes daily for 5 years. Pulse is 115/min and blood pressure is 125/66 mm Hg. Physical examination shows dried blood around the lips. Serum studies show a creatinine of 2.9 mg/dL. Results of a serum antineutrophil cytoplasm antibody test are negative. A biopsy specimen of the kidney is most likely to show which of the following light microscopy findings?
A. Thinning of the basement membrane
B. Fibrin crescents in Bowman space (Correct Answer)
C. Expansion of the mesangial matrix
D. Enlarged and hypercellular glomeruli
E. Neutrophilic infiltration of the capillaries
Explanation: ***Fibrin crescents in Bowman space***
- The patient's presentation with **hemoptysis** (coughing up blood) and **acute kidney injury** (decreased urination, elevated creatinine 2.9 mg/dL) suggests a **pulmonary-renal syndrome**. The **negative ANCA** is a key distinguishing feature pointing towards **Goodpasture syndrome (anti-GBM disease)**.
- Goodpasture syndrome is characterized by **rapidly progressive glomerulonephritis**, classically showing **crescent formation** (fibrin and proliferating parietal epithelial cells) in Bowman's space on light microscopy. The linear IgG deposition on basement membrane would be seen on immunofluorescence.
*Thinning of the basement membrane*
- This finding is characteristic of **Alport syndrome**, a hereditary nephritis presenting with hematuria, sensorineural hearing loss, and ocular abnormalities.
- The patient's acute presentation with hemoptysis and rapidly progressive renal failure is inconsistent with Alport syndrome, which typically has a more chronic course.
*Expansion of the mesangial matrix*
- **Mesangial matrix expansion** is seen in **diabetic nephropathy** and **IgA nephropathy**.
- While IgA nephropathy can cause hematuria and occasionally upper respiratory symptoms, it typically does not present with significant hemoptysis and the acute, severe renal failure seen here.
*Enlarged and hypercellular glomeruli*
- **Glomerular enlargement and hypercellularity** are features of **post-streptococcal glomerulonephritis** (diffuse proliferative glomerulonephritis).
- The absence of preceding infection history and the prominent hemoptysis with negative ANCA make this less likely than Goodpasture syndrome.
*Neutrophilic infiltration of the capillaries*
- **Neutrophilic infiltration** (endocapillary proliferation) is characteristic of **acute post-infectious glomerulonephritis**.
- The pulmonary-renal syndrome presentation without clear evidence of recent infection and negative ANCA makes this diagnosis unlikely.
Question 294: A 4-year-old girl is brought to the physician because of worsening jaundice that started 8 days ago. She has had similar episodes in the past. Her father underwent a splenectomy during adolescence. Physical examination shows mild splenomegaly. Laboratory studies show:
Hemoglobin 10.1 g/dL
WBC count 7200/mm3
Mean corpuscular volume 81 μm3
Mean corpuscular hemoglobin concentration 41% Hb/cell
Platelet count 250,000/mm3
Red cell distribution width 16% (N=13%–15%)
Reticulocytes 11%
Erythrocyte sedimentation rate 10 mm/h
Serum
Na+ 139 mEq/L
K+ 4.2 mEq/L
Cl- 100 mEq/L
Urea nitrogen 16 mg/dL
A peripheral blood smear shows red blood cells that appear round, smaller, and without central pallor. Which of the following is the most sensitive test for confirming this patient's condition?
A. Coombs test
B. Osmotic fragility test
C. Serum ferritin level
D. Eosin-5-maleimide binding test (Correct Answer)
E. Hemoglobin electrophoresis
Explanation: ***Eosin-5-maleimide binding test***
- This test measures the binding of **eosin-5-maleimide (EMA)**, a fluorescent dye, to **band 3 protein** on the red blood cell membrane.
- In **hereditary spherocytosis**, there is a deficiency or dysfunction of red cell membrane proteins (e.g., **spectrin, ankyrin, band 3**), leading to decreased EMA binding, making it the most sensitive and specific diagnostic test.
*Coombs test*
- The Coombs test (direct antiglobulin test) is used to detect **antibodies** on the surface of red blood cells, which is characteristic of **autoimmune hemolytic anemia**.
- Hereditary spherocytosis is an **intrinsic red blood cell defect**, not an immune-mediated hemolysis, so the Coombs test would be negative.
*Osmotic fragility test*
- In this test, red blood cells are exposed to **hypotonic solutions**, and the degree of lysis is observed; spherocytes lyse more readily due to their decreased surface area-to-volume ratio.
- While supportive, the **osmotic fragility test** can have false negatives in mild cases and may not be as sensitive or specific as the EMA binding test.
*Serum ferritin level*
- **Serum ferritin** measures the body's iron stores and is used to diagnose **iron deficiency** or **iron overload**.
- It is not directly related to the diagnosis of hereditary spherocytosis, which is a red blood cell membrane disorder.
*Hemoglobin electrophoresis*
- **Hemoglobin electrophoresis** is used to identify abnormal hemoglobin variants, such as those found in **sickle cell disease** or **thalassemia**.
- Hereditary spherocytosis is a membrane defect and does not involve abnormal hemoglobin structure.
Question 295: An otherwise healthy 47-year-old woman comes to the physician for the evaluation of a 4-month history of worsening fatigue and constipation. She has also noticed that her cheeks appear fuller and her voice has become hoarse. Her temperature is 36.3°C (97.3°F) and pulse is 59/min. Examination of the neck shows a painless, mildly enlarged thyroid gland. Her skin is dry and cool and her nails appear brittle. Serum studies show antibodies against thyroid peroxidase. A biopsy of the thyroid gland is most likely to show which of the following?
A. Tall follicular cells, scalloped colloid, and vascular congestion
B. Lymphocytic infiltration, Hürthle cells, and germinal centers (Correct Answer)
C. Large, irregular nuclei, nuclear grooves, and Psammoma bodies
D. Spindle cells, pleomorphic giant cells, and mitotic figures
E. Multinucleated giant cells, macrophages, and degenerated follicular cells
Explanation: ***Lymphocytic infiltration, Hürthle cells, and germinal centers***
- The patient's symptoms (fatigue, constipation, fuller cheeks, hoarse voice, dry and cool skin, brittle nails, bradycardia, mildly enlarged thyroid gland) are classic for **hypothyroidism**. The presence of **anti-thyroid peroxidase antibodies** confirms an autoimmune etiology, specifically **Hashimoto's thyroiditis**.
- **Hashimoto's thyroiditis** is characterized pathologically by extensive **lymphocytic infiltration** of the thyroid parenchyma, the presence of **Hürthle cells** (metaplastic follicular cells with abundant eosinophilic cytoplasm), and the formation of **germinal centers** within the thyroid gland.
*Tall follicular cells, scalloped colloid, and vascular congestion*
- This description is characteristic of **Graves' disease**, an autoimmune cause of **hyperthyroidism**.
- The patient's symptoms and signs (e.g., bradycardia, dry skin, constipation) are consistent with **hypothyroidism**, not hyperthyroidism.
*Large, irregular nuclei, nuclear grooves, and Psammoma bodies*
- These are classic histological features of **papillary thyroid carcinoma**, the most common type of thyroid cancer.
- While thyroid nodules can occur in Hashimoto's, the overall clinical picture points strongly to a benign autoimmune inflammatory process, not malignancy.
*Spindle cells, pleomorphic giant cells, and mitotic figures*
- This describes **anaplastic thyroid carcinoma**, a highly aggressive and undifferentiated thyroid malignancy.
- Anaplastic carcinoma typically presents as a rapidly enlarging, painful neck mass in older individuals, which is not consistent with this patient's chronic, milder presentation.
*Multinucleated giant cells, macrophages, and degenerated follicular cells*
- This histological pattern is characteristic of **subacute granulomatous thyroiditis (de Quervain's thyroiditis)**.
- Subacute thyroiditis typically presents with painful thyroid enlargement and often follows a viral infection, which is not suggested by the patient's symptoms or antibody findings.
Question 296: A 19-year-old woman presents to her primary care physician because she has been feeling increasingly lethargic over the last 6 months. Specifically, she says that she feels tired easily and has been cold even though she is wearing lots of layers. Her medical history is significant for seasonal allergies but is otherwise unremarkable. When prompted, she also says that she has a hard time swallowing food though she has no difficulty drinking liquids. Physical exam reveals a midline mass in her neck. Which of the following structures would most likely be seen if this patient's mass was biopsied?
A. Lymphatic ducts
B. Neutrophilic invasion
C. Blood vessels
D. Follicles with colloid (Correct Answer)
E. Hollow epithelial duct
Explanation: ***Follicles with colloid***
- The patient's symptoms (lethargy, cold intolerance, difficulty swallowing solids, midline neck mass) are highly suggestive of **hypothyroidism** due to a **goiter**, which often arises from an enlarged thyroid gland.
- The **thyroid gland** is composed of follicles filled with **colloid**, which is the storage form of thyroid hormones. A biopsy of an enlarged thyroid gland would therefore show these structures.
*Lymphatic ducts*
- **Lymphatic ducts** are part of the lymphatic system, which is involved in immune function and fluid balance, not typically found in a thyroid biopsy under these circumstances.
- While neck masses can sometimes be enlarged lymph nodes, the symptoms point specifically to thyroid dysfunction rather than a lymphatic issue.
*Neutrophilic invasion*
- **Neutrophilic invasion** indicates an acute inflammatory or infectious process, which is not suggested by the chronic and systemic symptoms presented here.
- This finding would be more typical of an abscess or acute thyroiditis, which usually presents with pain and fever.
*Blood vessels*
- While **blood vessels** are present in all tissues, including the thyroid, they are not the *most characteristic* or defining structure seen during a biopsy of a mass suspected to be an enlarged thyroid gland.
- The question asks for the structure *most likely* to be seen, implying a unique and diagnostic histological feature.
*Hollow epithelial duct*
- **Hollow epithelial ducts** are characteristic of structures like salivary glands or cysts formed from developmental remnants (e.g., thyroglossal duct cyst), but less likely to be the primary finding in an enlarged thyroid gland causing systemic symptoms of hypothyroidism.
- A thyroglossal duct cyst would typically present as a midline neck mass that moves with tongue protrusion, and while it could cause dysphagia, it typically doesn't cause symptoms of hypothyroidism.
Question 297: A 27-year-old man presents to the emergency room complaining of shortness of breath and productive cough for a few days. He says that his sputum is mostly yellow with tiny red specks. He denies fever, chills, recent weight loss, or joint pain. He has no history of recent travel or sick contacts. His medical history is unremarkable. He smokes a pack of cigarettes daily. He has had 3 sexual partners in the past year. His temperature is 37°C (98.6°F), blood pressure is 110/70 mm Hg, pulse is 98/min, and respirations are 20/min. On physical examination, the patient is in mild respiratory distress. Cardiopulmonary auscultation reveals diffuse bilateral rales. An HIV test is negative. His laboratory results are as follow:
Complete blood count
Hemoglobin 12 gm/dL
Serum chemistry
Sodium 143 mEq/L
Potassium 4.1 mEq/L
Chloride 98 mEq/L
Bicarbonate 22 mEq/L
Blood urea nitrogen 26 mg/dL
Creatinine 2.3 mg/dL
Glucose 86 mg/dL
Urine dipstick
Protein trace
Blood positive
Leukocytes negative
Nitrates negative
Which of the following is the most likely cause of his current condition?
A. Heart failure
B. Ruptured alveolar bleb
C. Basement membrane antibodies (Correct Answer)
D. Pneumocystis pneumonia
E. Pulmonary embolism
Explanation: ***Basement membrane antibodies***
- The patient's **shortness of breath**, productive cough with **yellow sputum and red specks**, and diffuse **bilateral rales** suggest a pulmonary etiology, while the **elevated BUN and creatinine** with **trace proteinuria** and **positive blood on urine dipstick** point to renal involvement. This combination of **pulmonary-renal syndrome** in a young patient is highly suggestive of **Goodpasture syndrome**, which is caused by antibodies against the glomerular and alveolar basement membranes.
- The absence of fever, negative HIV test, and relatively acute presentation further support **Goodpasture syndrome** over infectious or other systemic vasculitic causes. His smoking history is a known risk factor for developing Goodpasture's syndrome.
*Heart failure*
- While **shortness of breath** and **bilateral rales** can be seen in heart failure, the patient's **normal blood pressure** and **unremarkable medical history** (no history of cardiac disease) make it less likely.
- The presence of **renal failure (elevated BUN and creatinine)** and **hemoptysis (red specks in sputum)** are not typical primary manifestations of heart failure.
*Ruptured alveolar bleb*
- A ruptured alveolar bleb typically presents as a **spontaneous pneumothorax**, causing **sudden onset of pleuritic chest pain** and **shortness of breath** due to lung collapse.
- This condition does not explain the **productive cough with hemoptysis**, **bilateral rales**, or the **acute kidney injury** observed in this patient.
*Pneumocystis pneumonia*
- While **Pneumocystis pneumonia** causes **shortness of breath** and cough, it is typically seen in **immunocompromised individuals**, especially those with **HIV/AIDS**. The patient's **HIV test is negative**.
- Furthermore, **Pneumocystis pneumonia** does not typically cause **hemoptysis** (red specks in sputum) or **acute kidney injury**.
*Pulmonary embolism*
- A pulmonary embolism often presents with **sudden onset of dyspnea**, **pleuritic chest pain**, and sometimes **hemoptysis**. However, **bilateral rales** are not a typical finding.
- A **pulmonary embolism** would not explain the **acute kidney injury** (elevated BUN and creatinine, positive urine blood) in the absence of other systemic conditions.
Question 298: A 29-year-old woman presents with skin lesions on her elbows and forearms. She notes that they first started appearing 2 months ago and have not improved. She describes the lesions as painless and rarely itchy. She denies any similar symptoms in the past, and has no other significant past medical history. Review of systems is significant for recent joint pain, conjunctivitis, and corneal dryness. The patient is afebrile and vital signs are within normal limits. Non-tender, raised, inflamed, white-silver maculopapular lesions are present. Which of the following are the most likely histopathologic findings in this patient's skin biopsy?
A. Intercellular edema with detachment at basal level
B. Acanthosis, hyperkeratosis with parakeratosis, and dermal papillary capillary proliferation (Correct Answer)
C. Cytoplasmic vacuolation
D. Nuclear atypia, cellular pleomorphism, and a disorganized structure of cells from basal to apical layers of the tissue
E. Subepidermal blister with detachment at dermal-epidermal junction
Explanation: ***Acanthosis, hyperkeratosis with parakeratosis, and dermal papillary capillary proliferation***
- The patient's presentation with **raised, inflamed, white-silver maculopapular lesions** on elbows and forearms, along with joint pain and conjunctivitis, is highly suggestive of **psoriasis**.
- **Acanthosis** (epidermal hyperplasia), **hyperkeratosis with parakeratosis** (retained nuclei in the stratum corneum), and **dermal papillary capillary proliferation** (elongated dermal papillae with dilated blood vessels) are classic histopathological findings in psoriasis.
*Intercellular edema with detachment at basal level*
- This description is more consistent with conditions causing **spongiosis** (intercellular edema in the epidermis) or **dermatitis**, which typically present with different clinical features (e.g., vesicles, oozing).
- Basal layer detachment can be seen in **bullous pemphigoid** or other blistering disorders, which are characterized by large tense blisters, unlike the described lesions.
*Cytoplasmic vacuolation*
- **Cytoplasmic vacuolation** is a non-specific finding that can be observed in various conditions, including **viral infections** (e.g., HPV), certain **drug reactions**, or **degenerative changes**.
- It does not specifically describe the characteristic changes seen in psoriasis.
*Subepidermal blister with detachment at dermal-epidermal junction*
- A **subepidermal blister** (detachment of the epidermis from the dermis at the dermal-epidermal junction) is characteristic of conditions like **bullous pemphigoid**.
- The patient's lesions are described as maculopapular, not blistering, making this diagnosis unlikely.
*Nuclear atypia, cellular pleomorphism, and a disorganized structure of cells from basal to apical layers of the tissue*
- These findings (**nuclear atypia**, **cellular pleomorphism**, **disorganized cell structure**) are hallmarks of **dysplasia** or **carcinoma in situ**.
- The patient's symptoms are recent onset, widespread, and associated with joint pain, which are not typical of a malignant skin lesion.
Question 299: A 43-year-old male visits the emergency room around 4 weeks after getting bitten by a bat during a cave diving trip. After cleansing the wound with water, the patient reports that he felt well enough not to seek medical attention immediately following his trip. He does endorse feeling feverish in the past week but a new onset of photophobia and irritability led him to seek help today. What would the post-mortem pathology report show if the patient succumbs to this infection?
A. Howell-Jolly bodies
B. Heinz bodies
C. Psammoma bodies
D. Pick bodies
E. Negri bodies (Correct Answer)
Explanation: ***Negri bodies***
- This patient's symptoms (fever, photophobia, irritability) and history of a bat bite point to rabies. **Negri bodies** are eosinophilic inclusions found in the cytoplasm of hippocampal and Purkinje cells in cases of rabies.
- They are **pathognomonic** for rabies infection and represent viral nucleocapsid proteins.
*Howell-Jolly bodies*
- These are **nuclear remnants** found in red blood cells that indicate impaired splenic function or asplenia.
- They are not associated with viral infections like rabies and are observed in conditions like sickle cell disease or after splenectomy.
*Heinz bodies*
- **Heinz bodies** are inclusions within red blood cells composed of denatured hemoglobin.
- They are typically seen in conditions involving **oxidative stress** to red blood cells, such as G6PD deficiency or alpha-thalassemia, not rabies.
*Psammoma bodies*
- These are **calcified, laminated, concentric spherules** found in some tumors (e.g., papillary thyroid carcinoma, meningioma, serous ovarian cystadenocarcinoma).
- They are a marker of specific neoplastic conditions and have no relevance to viral infections.
*Pick bodies*
- **Pick bodies** are aggregates of tau protein found in neurons, characteristic of **Pick's disease**, a type of frontotemporal dementia.
- They are neurodegenerative markers and are unrelated to infectious diseases.
Question 300: A 44-year-old man is brought to the emergency department by his daughter for a 1-week history of right leg weakness, unsteady gait, and multiple falls. During the past 6 months, he has become more forgetful and has sometimes lost his way along familiar routes. He has been having difficulties operating simple kitchen appliances such as the dishwasher and the coffee maker. He has recently become increasingly paranoid, agitated, and restless. He has HIV, hypertension, and type 2 diabetes mellitus. His last visit to a physician was more than 2 years ago, and he has been noncompliant with his medications. His temperature is 37.2 °C (99.0 °F), blood pressure is 152/68 mm Hg, pulse is 98/min, and respirations are 14/min. He is somnolent and slightly confused. He is oriented to person, but not place or time. There is mild lymphadenopathy in the cervical, axillary, and inguinal areas. Neurological examination shows right lower extremity weakness with normal tone and no other focal deficits. Laboratory studies show:
Hemoglobin 9.2 g/dL
Leukocyte count 3600/mm3
Platelet count 140,000/mm3
CD4+ count 56/μL
HIV viral load > 100,000 copies/mL
Serum
Cryptococcal antigen negative
Toxoplasma gondii IgG positive
An MRI of the brain shows disseminated, nonenhancing white matter lesions with no mass effect. Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?
A. Vascular dementia
B. Primary CNS lymphoma
C. Neurocysticercosis
D. Cerebral toxoplasmosis
E. Progressive multifocal leukoencephalopathy (Correct Answer)
Explanation: ***Progressive multifocal leukoencephalopathy***
- The patient's severe **immunosuppression** (CD4 count 56/μL) and **non-enhancing white matter lesions** disseminated throughout the brain are highly characteristic of **PML**, caused by the **JC virus**.
- **Progressive neurological deficits** including cognitive decline, motor weakness, and personality changes are typical presentations of PML in advanced HIV.
*Vascular dementia*
- While the patient has **hypertension** and a history of falls, the MRI findings of **disseminated non-enhancing white matter lesions** are not classic for vascular dementia, which typically shows lacunar infarcts or larger areas of ischemic damage.
- The rapid progression of symptoms and severe immunosuppression also point away from typical vascular dementia as the primary cause.
*Primary CNS lymphoma*
- **Primary CNS lymphoma** in HIV patients usually presents as **solitary or multiple mass lesions** that are typically **ring-enhancing** on MRI, which contradicts the described non-enhancing lesions.
- While it can cause neurological deficits, the MRI findings are a strong differentiating factor.
*Neurocysticercosis*
- **Neurocysticercosis** is caused by the parasite *Taenia solium* and is more common in endemic areas; MRI typically shows **cysts, calcifications, or enhancing lesions**, often with associated edema.
- The patient's non-enhancing white matter lesions and high HIV viral load make this diagnosis less likely, despite the global prevalence of the infection.
*Cerebral toxoplasmosis*
- **Cerebral toxoplasmosis** is common in HIV patients with low CD4 counts and positive *Toxoplasma gondii* IgG, but it typically presents with **multiple ring-enhancing lesions** on MRI, often with **mass effect**.
- The absence of enhancement and mass effect on MRI makes toxoplasmosis less probable despite the positive IgG serology.