A 67-year-old man presents to the physician because of low-back pain for 6 months. The pain is more localized to the left lower back and sacral area. It is constant without any radiation to the leg. He has no significant past medical history. He takes ibuprofen for pain control. His father developed a bone disease at 60 years of age and subsequently had a fracture in the spine and another in the lower leg. The patient’s vital signs are within normal limits. The neurologic examination shows no focal findings. He has mild tenderness on deep palpation of the left pelvis. The physical examination of the lower extremities shows no abnormalities other than bowed legs. A radiograph of the pelvis is shown in the image. Which of the following serum tests is the most important initial diagnostic study?
Q22
A 68-year-old man presents with blisters on the flexor surfaces of his arms and legs. He notes that the lesions appeared 2 days ago and have not improved. He says that he has had similar blisters in the past but has not sought medical attention until now. The man has no significant past medical history. He is afebrile and his vital signs are within normal limits. On physical examination, there are tense bullae present on the flexor surfaces of his arms and legs. Biopsy of a lesion and histopathologic examination reveal a subepidermal blister with a polymorphous but predominantly eosinophilic infiltrate. Which of the following is the best next diagnostic step in this patient?
Q23
A 67-year-old man presents to his physician for a follow-up examination. During his last visit 1 month ago, splenomegaly was detected. He has had night sweats for the past several months and has lost 5 kg (11 lb) unintentionally during this period. He has no history of severe illness and takes no medications. The vital signs are within normal limits. The examination shows no abnormalities other than splenomegaly. The laboratory studies show the following:
Hemoglobin 9 g/dL
Mean corpuscular volume 95 μm3
Leukocyte count 12,000/mm3
Platelet count 260,000/mm3
Ultrasound shows a spleen size of 15 cm and mild hepatomegaly. A peripheral blood smear shows teardrop-shaped and nucleated red blood cells (RBCs) and immature myeloid cells. The marrow is very difficult to aspirate but reveals hyperplasia of all 3 lineages. The tartrate-resistant acid phosphatase (TRAP) test is negative. Clonal marrow plasma cells are not seen. JAK-2 is positive. The cytogenetic analysis is negative for translocation between chromosomes 9 and 22. Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?
Q24
A 45-year-old African American man presents with nausea and severe abdominal pain. He denies vomiting. He says that, 2 days ago, his divorce was finalized, so he went to a bar and had multiple shots of tequila and vodka. This morning, upon waking, he noticed his urine was red, which lasted throughout the day. The patient denies any history of similar symptoms. Past medical history is significant for low blood counts diagnosed on routine laboratory work 6 months ago, which was not followed up due to the stress of the divorce. A review of systems is significant for erectile dysfunction and chronic fatigue. His temperature is 37.2°C (99.0°F), the heart rate is 90/min, the blood pressure is 136/88 mm Hg, and the respiratory rate is 20/min. Physical examination shows scleral icterus. Mucous membranes are pale. Cardiac auscultation reveals a systolic flow murmur loudest along the left sternal border. There is moderate right upper quadrant abdominal tenderness with no rebound or guarding. The remainder of the exam is unremarkable. Laboratory findings are significant for the following:
Hematocrit 27%
Mean corpuscular volume 81 µm3
Leukocytes 6,000/mm3
Platelets 130,000/µL
Haptoglobin 30 mg/dL (50–150 mg/dL)
Reticulocyte count 3%
Total bilirubin 7.1 mg/dL
LDH 766 U/L
AST 150 U/L
ALT 195 U/L
HbA1 96%
HbA2 2%
HbF 2%
CD55 50% of expected
The peripheral smear is unremarkable. Which of the following would be the most likely cause of mortality given this patient’s likely diagnosis?
Q25
A 55-year-old African American male presents to his primary care physician with complaints of persistent back pain and fatigue over 12 months. Physical examination reveals a blood pressure of 190/150 mm Hg, and laboratory tests reveal hyperlipidemia and a serum creatinine level of 3.0 mg/dL. 4.5 g of protein are excreted in the urine over 24 hours. Renal biopsy shows eosinophilic, acellular material in the glomerular tuft and capillary walls that display apple green-colored birefringence in polarized light upon Congo red tissue staining. The patient most likely suffers from which of the following:
Q26
A 30-year-old woman was brought in by ambulance after being struck by a truck while crossing the street. She has lost a large volume of blood, and a transfusion of packed RBCs is indicated. The patient’s blood type is confirmed to be AB+. She is to be given two units of packed red blood cells (RBCs). Which of the following type(s) of packed RBCs would be safe to transfuse into this patient?
Q27
A 35-year-old man comes to the physician because of progressive swelling of his legs over the past 2 months. During this period, the patient has had an unintentional 5-kg (11-lb) weight gain. He also reports frequent numbness of the tips of his fingers and cramping in his back and leg muscles. He has a history of HIV infection treated with combined antiretroviral therapy. The patient immigrated to the US from Nigeria 3 years ago. His temperature is 37°C (98.6°F), pulse is 80/min, and blood pressure 150/90 mm Hg. Physical examination shows 3+ periorbital and lower extremity edema bilaterally. Sensation to pinprick and light touch is decreased around the mouth and along the fingers. Laboratory studies show:
Serum
Albumin 2.5 g/dL
Total cholesterol 270 mg/dL
HIV antibody positive
Urine
Blood negative
Protein +4
RBC 1-2/hpf
RBC casts negative
A kidney biopsy is most likely to show which of the following findings under light microscopy?
Q28
A 71-year-old male with worsening memory, behavior changes, and disorientation over the span of several years was admitted to the hospital for signs of severe pneumonia. He passes away after failed antibiotic therapy. Which of the following findings would most likely be identified on autopsy?
Q29
A 46-year-old man is admitted to the hospital with a 3-day history of productive cough with purulent sputum and fever with chills. On the second day of admission, he develops bloody vomiting, altered mental status, and multiple red spots all over the body. He is oriented only to self. His temperature is 39.3°C (102.7°F), pulse is 110/min, respirations are 26/min, and blood pressure is 86/50 mm Hg. Physical examination shows ecchymoses on both lower extremities. Crackles are heard at the right lung base. Laboratory studies show a platelet count of 45,000/mm3, with a prothrombin time of 44 sec and partial thromboplastin time of 62 sec. D-dimer concentrations are elevated. Which of the following is the most likely cause of this patient's ecchymoses?
Q30
A 66-year-old man is brought to the clinic with a history of recurrent falls. He has been slow in his movements and walks clumsily. He denies fever, vision problems, limb weakness, numbness, abnormal sensation in his limbs, trauma, or inability to pass urine. The past medical history is unremarkable, and he only takes calcium and vitamin D supplements. The vital signs include: blood pressure 128/72 mm Hg, heart rate 85/min, respiratory rate 16/min, and temperature 36.9°C (98.4°F). He is awake, alert, and oriented to time, place, and person. His eye movements are normal. There is a tremor in his hands bilaterally, more in the left-hand which decreases with voluntary movements. The muscle tone in all 4 limbs is increased with normal deep tendon reflexes. He walks with a stooped posture and takes small steps with decreased arm swinging movements. During walking, he has difficulty in taking the first few steps and also in changing directions. The speech is slow and monotonous. His mini-mental state examination (MMSE) score is 26/30. What is the most likely pathophysiology of the patient’s condition?
Systemic Pathology US Medical PG Practice Questions and MCQs
Question 21: A 67-year-old man presents to the physician because of low-back pain for 6 months. The pain is more localized to the left lower back and sacral area. It is constant without any radiation to the leg. He has no significant past medical history. He takes ibuprofen for pain control. His father developed a bone disease at 60 years of age and subsequently had a fracture in the spine and another in the lower leg. The patient’s vital signs are within normal limits. The neurologic examination shows no focal findings. He has mild tenderness on deep palpation of the left pelvis. The physical examination of the lower extremities shows no abnormalities other than bowed legs. A radiograph of the pelvis is shown in the image. Which of the following serum tests is the most important initial diagnostic study?
A. Alkaline phosphatase (Correct Answer)
B. Phosphorus
C. Parathyroid hormone
D. Calcium
E. Osteocalcin
Explanation: ***Alkaline phosphatase***
- Elevated alkaline phosphatase (ALP) is a hallmark of **Paget's disease of bone**, indicating increased **bone turnover** due to osteoblast activity.
- The patient's presentation with localized lower back pain, a family history of bone disease with fractures, bowed legs, and the radiographic findings of cortical thickening, sclerosis, and bone enlargement are highly suggestive of Paget's disease.
*Phosphorus*
- Serum phosphorus levels are typically **normal** in Paget's disease and do not serve as an initial diagnostic marker for this condition.
- While phosphorus is crucial for bone health, its levels are more relevant in disorders of mineral metabolism like hypophosphatemia or hyperphosphatemia, which are not suggested here.
*Parathyroid hormone*
- Parathyroid hormone (PTH) levels are primarily used to diagnose disorders of **calcium regulation**, such as hyperparathyroidism or hypoparathyroidism.
- PTH is usually **normal** in Paget's disease, as the primary pathology lies within bone remodeling, not systemic calcium homeostasis.
*Calcium*
- Serum calcium levels are generally **normal** in Paget's disease, unless the patient is immobilized, which can lead to mild hypercalcemia.
- Therefore, calcium is not the most important initial diagnostic test for suspected Paget's disease.
*Osteocalcin*
- Osteocalcin is a marker of **bone formation**, reflecting osteoblast activity, and can be elevated in Paget's disease.
- However, **alkaline phosphatase** is generally considered a more sensitive and widely accepted initial diagnostic and monitoring tool for Paget's disease compared to osteocalcin.
Question 22: A 68-year-old man presents with blisters on the flexor surfaces of his arms and legs. He notes that the lesions appeared 2 days ago and have not improved. He says that he has had similar blisters in the past but has not sought medical attention until now. The man has no significant past medical history. He is afebrile and his vital signs are within normal limits. On physical examination, there are tense bullae present on the flexor surfaces of his arms and legs. Biopsy of a lesion and histopathologic examination reveal a subepidermal blister with a polymorphous but predominantly eosinophilic infiltrate. Which of the following is the best next diagnostic step in this patient?
A. Swab and culture of the blister
B. Indirect immunofluorescence study
C. Bacteriological examination of fluid drained from the blister
D. Potassium hydroxide preparation (KOH prep) of the blister
E. Direct immunofluorescence study (Correct Answer)
Explanation: ***Direct immunofluorescence study***
- A **direct immunofluorescence (DIF) study** on a perilesional skin biopsy is the **gold standard** for diagnosing bullous pemphigoid.
- It demonstrates the presence of **IgG and C3 deposits at the dermoepidermal junction** (basement membrane zone), characteristic of bullous pemphigoid.
- DIF provides **direct visualization of antibody deposition** within the skin lesions, confirming the autoimmune nature of the disease.
*Indirect immunofluorescence study*
- Indirect immunofluorescence (IIF) detects circulating autoantibodies in the patient's serum, which can be positive in bullous pemphigoid but is **less sensitive than DIF** for initial diagnosis.
- While IIF can support the diagnosis, it does not provide direct evidence of antibody deposition at the basement membrane zone.
*Swab and culture of the blister*
- Swab and culture are used to identify **bacterial infections**, which might present as secondary complications of bullous lesions but are not the primary diagnostic step for immune-mediated blistering disorders.
- The clinical presentation and biopsy results (subepidermal blister, eosinophilic infiltrate) point away from a primary bacterial cause.
*Potassium hydroxide preparation (KOH prep) of the blister*
- A KOH preparation is used to identify **fungal elements** in skin scrapings or nail samples.
- It is not indicated for the diagnosis of bullous skin conditions like bullous pemphigoid, which is an autoimmune disease.
*Bacteriological examination of fluid drained from the blister*
- Similar to swab and culture, bacteriological examination of blister fluid is primarily for detecting **secondary bacterial infection**.
- It will not provide information on the autoimmune etiology of the blisters, which is suggested by the biopsy findings.
Question 23: A 67-year-old man presents to his physician for a follow-up examination. During his last visit 1 month ago, splenomegaly was detected. He has had night sweats for the past several months and has lost 5 kg (11 lb) unintentionally during this period. He has no history of severe illness and takes no medications. The vital signs are within normal limits. The examination shows no abnormalities other than splenomegaly. The laboratory studies show the following:
Hemoglobin 9 g/dL
Mean corpuscular volume 95 μm3
Leukocyte count 12,000/mm3
Platelet count 260,000/mm3
Ultrasound shows a spleen size of 15 cm and mild hepatomegaly. A peripheral blood smear shows teardrop-shaped and nucleated red blood cells (RBCs) and immature myeloid cells. The marrow is very difficult to aspirate but reveals hyperplasia of all 3 lineages. The tartrate-resistant acid phosphatase (TRAP) test is negative. Clonal marrow plasma cells are not seen. JAK-2 is positive. The cytogenetic analysis is negative for translocation between chromosomes 9 and 22. Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?
A. Primary myelofibrosis (Correct Answer)
B. Polycythemia vera
C. Chronic myeloid leukemia
D. Multiple myeloma
E. Hodgkin’s lymphoma
Explanation: ***Primary myelofibrosis***
- The patient presents with **splenomegaly**, **constitutional symptoms** (night sweats, weight loss), **anemia**, **teardrop cells** and **nucleated red blood cells** on peripheral smear, **dry bone marrow tap**, and a **positive JAK-2 mutation**, all highly characteristic of primary myelofibrosis.
- The negative Philadelphia chromosome (BCR-ABL translocation) excludes CML, and the significant bone marrow fibrosis (implied by dry tap and presence of extramedullary hematopoiesis indicators like teardrop cells) points away from PV alone.
*Polycythemia vera*
- While polycythemia vera (PV) is associated with a **JAK-2 mutation** and splenomegaly, its hallmark is **erythrocytosis** (high hemoglobin/hematocrit), which is not present; instead, the patient has anemia.
- **Teardrop cells** and significant marrow fibrosis are less prominent in untreated PV and more suggestive of secondary myelofibrosis, but the constellation of findings strongly favors primary myelofibrosis.
*Chronic myeloid leukemia*
- Chronic myeloid leukemia (CML) is characterized by a high leukocyte count, splenomegaly, and immature myeloid cells, but the definitive diagnostic feature is the presence of the **Philadelphia chromosome (BCR-ABL1 translocation)**, which is explicitly stated as negative in this case.
- While CML can cause splenomegaly and constitutional symptoms, the absence of the specific cytogenetic marker rules it out.
*Multiple myeloma*
- Multiple myeloma is a plasma cell malignancy characterized by **bone lesions**, **renal failure**, **hypercalcemia**, and **anemia**, but it does not typically cause splenomegaly or teardrop cells, and the marrow findings would show clonal plasma cells, which are noted as absent.
- The **TRAP test** is irrelevant for multiple myeloma; it is used to diagnose hairy cell leukemia.
*Hodgkin’s lymphoma*
- Hodgkin’s lymphoma is a lymphatic malignancy that can present with **lymphadenopathy**, splenomegaly, and B symptoms (night sweats, weight loss, fever), but the peripheral blood smear findings (teardrop cells, nucleated RBCs, immature myeloid cells) and **JAK-2 mutation** are not characteristic of Hodgkin’s lymphoma.
- Diagnosis typically relies on identifying **Reed-Sternberg cells** in lymph node biopsies, not peripheral blood or bone marrow findings like those described.
Question 24: A 45-year-old African American man presents with nausea and severe abdominal pain. He denies vomiting. He says that, 2 days ago, his divorce was finalized, so he went to a bar and had multiple shots of tequila and vodka. This morning, upon waking, he noticed his urine was red, which lasted throughout the day. The patient denies any history of similar symptoms. Past medical history is significant for low blood counts diagnosed on routine laboratory work 6 months ago, which was not followed up due to the stress of the divorce. A review of systems is significant for erectile dysfunction and chronic fatigue. His temperature is 37.2°C (99.0°F), the heart rate is 90/min, the blood pressure is 136/88 mm Hg, and the respiratory rate is 20/min. Physical examination shows scleral icterus. Mucous membranes are pale. Cardiac auscultation reveals a systolic flow murmur loudest along the left sternal border. There is moderate right upper quadrant abdominal tenderness with no rebound or guarding. The remainder of the exam is unremarkable. Laboratory findings are significant for the following:
Hematocrit 27%
Mean corpuscular volume 81 µm3
Leukocytes 6,000/mm3
Platelets 130,000/µL
Haptoglobin 30 mg/dL (50–150 mg/dL)
Reticulocyte count 3%
Total bilirubin 7.1 mg/dL
LDH 766 U/L
AST 150 U/L
ALT 195 U/L
HbA1 96%
HbA2 2%
HbF 2%
CD55 50% of expected
The peripheral smear is unremarkable. Which of the following would be the most likely cause of mortality given this patient’s likely diagnosis?
A. Hemorrhage
B. High-output cardiac failure
C. Cerebral vein thrombosis
D. Infection
E. Budd-Chiari syndrome (Correct Answer)
Explanation: ***Budd-Chiari syndrome***
- The patient's symptoms, including **abdominal pain**, **fatigue**, **erectile dysfunction**, and **dark urine** after alcohol consumption, along with lab findings like **low haptoglobin**, **elevated LDH and bilirubin**, and **reduced CD55 expression**, are highly suggestive of **paroxysmal nocturnal hemoglobinuria (PNH)**. **Budd-Chiari syndrome**, caused by **hepatic vein thrombosis**, is a life-threatening complication and a common cause of mortality in PNH due to the prothrombotic state.
- **PNH** is characterized by complement-mediated hemolysis due to deficient GPI-anchored proteins (CD55, CD59). The diagnosis is confirmed by **flow cytometry showing decreased CD55 and CD59** on red blood cells, which is indicated by the 50% CD55 of expected finding.
*Hemorrhage*
- While **thrombocytopenia** is present (platelets 130,000/µL), severe hemorrhage is not typically the leading cause of mortality in PNH.
- The clinical picture points more towards thrombotic complications rather than bleeding.
*High-output cardiac failure*
- Chronic anemia can lead to **high-output cardiac failure** over time, but it is less common as an acute cause of mortality compared to thrombotic events in PNH patients.
- The patient's current vital signs and symptoms do not strongly suggest immediate cardiac failure.
*Cerebral vein thrombosis*
- **Cerebral vein thrombosis** is indeed a serious thrombotic complication of PNH, but **Budd-Chiari syndrome** (hepatic vein thrombosis) is more frequently cited as a major and often fatal cause of mortality in PNH.
- Although possible, the abdominal symptoms point more directly to hepatic involvement.
*Infection*
- PNH patients are not typically considered severely immunocompromised. While chronic disease can increase susceptibility, infection is not the primary cause of mortality associated with the pathophysiological mechanisms of PNH.
- The clinical presentation does not strongly suggest an active, life-threatening infection as the most likely cause of mortality.
Question 25: A 55-year-old African American male presents to his primary care physician with complaints of persistent back pain and fatigue over 12 months. Physical examination reveals a blood pressure of 190/150 mm Hg, and laboratory tests reveal hyperlipidemia and a serum creatinine level of 3.0 mg/dL. 4.5 g of protein are excreted in the urine over 24 hours. Renal biopsy shows eosinophilic, acellular material in the glomerular tuft and capillary walls that display apple green-colored birefringence in polarized light upon Congo red tissue staining. The patient most likely suffers from which of the following:
A. Membranous nephropathy
B. Malignant hypertension
C. Focal segmental glomerular sclerosis
D. Amyloidosis (Correct Answer)
E. Multiple myeloma
Explanation: ***Amyloidosis***
- The renal biopsy findings of **eosinophilic, acellular material** in the glomerular tuft and capillary walls with **apple green birefringence on Congo red stain under polarized light** are **pathognomonic for amyloidosis**.
- The clinical presentation of **nephrotic-range proteinuria** (4.5g/24h), **renal failure** (creatinine 3.0 mg/dL), and these characteristic biopsy findings establish the diagnosis of **renal amyloidosis**.
- This patient likely has **AL (light chain) amyloidosis**, which is most commonly associated with plasma cell dyscrasias. The back pain may suggest an underlying multiple myeloma, but the diagnosed condition based on the biopsy is amyloidosis.
- Amyloid deposits consist of misfolded proteins that form β-pleated sheets, which bind Congo red dye and produce the characteristic apple green birefringence.
*Multiple myeloma*
- While multiple myeloma is a common **cause** of AL amyloidosis and could be the underlying condition here (suggested by back pain), the question asks what the patient **suffers from** based on the biopsy findings.
- The biopsy shows **amyloidosis**, not the plasma cell proliferation or light chain casts typical of multiple myeloma itself.
- Further workup (serum/urine protein electrophoresis, bone marrow biopsy) would be needed to confirm multiple myeloma as the underlying cause.
*Membranous nephropathy*
- While it can cause significant proteinuria and nephrotic syndrome, membranous nephropathy shows **thickening of the glomerular basement membrane** with **subepithelial immune deposits**.
- Characteristic findings include **spike and dome pattern** on silver stain or granular IgG/C3 deposits on immunofluorescence, not amyloid deposits.
*Malignant hypertension*
- Although the patient has severe hypertension (190/150 mm Hg), malignant hypertension causes **fibrinoid necrosis** of arterioles and **acute tubular injury**, not amyloid deposition.
- The specific biopsy findings of Congo red-positive material with apple green birefringence are incompatible with hypertensive nephropathy alone.
*Focal segmental glomerular sclerosis*
- **FSGS** shows **segmental scarring** of glomeruli with foot process effacement on electron microscopy, leading to proteinuria.
- The biopsy findings of eosinophilic, acellular amyloid material with characteristic birefringence are completely different from FSGS pathology.
Question 26: A 30-year-old woman was brought in by ambulance after being struck by a truck while crossing the street. She has lost a large volume of blood, and a transfusion of packed RBCs is indicated. The patient’s blood type is confirmed to be AB+. She is to be given two units of packed red blood cells (RBCs). Which of the following type(s) of packed RBCs would be safe to transfuse into this patient?
Explanation: ***A+, A-, B+, B-, AB+, AB-, O+, O-***
- An individual with **AB+ blood type** is considered the **universal recipient** as they have both A and B antigens, and the Rh factor (D antigen) on their red blood cells.
- This means they can receive packed RBCs from **any ABO and Rh blood type** without eliciting an immune reaction, as they do not produce antibodies against A, B, or Rh antigens.
*A+, B+*
- This option is partially correct as **AB+ individuals can receive A+ and B+ blood**, but it is not exhaustive, as they can receive many other types.
- Selecting only these two types would **unnecessarily limit donor options** in an emergency when a broader range of compatible blood types is available.
*A-, B-, O-*
- While **AB+ individuals can receive A-, B-, and O- blood**, this option omits many other compatible types.
- These are **universal donor red blood cell types (O-)** or types compatible based on ABO/Rh antigens, but the list is incomplete for an AB+ recipient.
*AB+, O+*
- **AB+ blood can certainly receive AB+ and O+ blood**, but this option overlooks the fact that they can receive many other blood types for transfusion.
- **O+ is a common donor type**, and AB+ is the patient's own type, but these are not the only safe options.
*A+, B+, AB+, O+*
- This list is also **incomplete** because an AB+ individual can receive all Rh-negative blood types (A-, B-, AB-, O-) as well.
- While safe, excluding Rh-negative types unnecessarily restricts the safe donor pool for an **AB+ universal recipient**.
Question 27: A 35-year-old man comes to the physician because of progressive swelling of his legs over the past 2 months. During this period, the patient has had an unintentional 5-kg (11-lb) weight gain. He also reports frequent numbness of the tips of his fingers and cramping in his back and leg muscles. He has a history of HIV infection treated with combined antiretroviral therapy. The patient immigrated to the US from Nigeria 3 years ago. His temperature is 37°C (98.6°F), pulse is 80/min, and blood pressure 150/90 mm Hg. Physical examination shows 3+ periorbital and lower extremity edema bilaterally. Sensation to pinprick and light touch is decreased around the mouth and along the fingers. Laboratory studies show:
Serum
Albumin 2.5 g/dL
Total cholesterol 270 mg/dL
HIV antibody positive
Urine
Blood negative
Protein +4
RBC 1-2/hpf
RBC casts negative
A kidney biopsy is most likely to show which of the following findings under light microscopy?
A. Segmental sclerosis (Correct Answer)
B. Thickened glomerular capillary loops
C. Crescent formation, monocytes, and macrophages
D. No changes
E. Mesangial proliferation
Explanation: ***Segmental sclerosis***
- The patient's presentation with **nephrotic syndrome** (edema, proteinuria, hypoalbuminemia, hyperlipidemia) in the setting of **HIV infection** points toward **HIV-associated nephropathy (HIVAN)**.
- **HIVAN** is a form of **focal segmental glomerulosclerosis (FSGS)**, specifically the collapsing variant, which is characterized by **segmental sclerosis** and collapse of the glomerular tuft on light microscopy.
*Thickened glomerular capillary loops*
- **Thickened glomerular capillary loops** are characteristic of **membranous nephropathy** or **diabetic nephropathy**.
- While both can cause nephrotic syndrome, they are not typically seen with HIVAN and the patient's other symptoms do not suggest these conditions.
*Crescent formation, monocytes, and macrophages*
- **Crescent formation** is a hallmark of **rapidly progressive glomerulonephritis (RPGN)**, an aggressive inflammatory kidney disease.
- RPGN typically presents with nephritic syndrome (hematuria, red blood cell casts) and rapid decline in kidney function, which is not the primary presentation here.
*No changes*
- The patient has clear clinical and laboratory evidence of significant kidney disease, including **nephrotic syndrome** and **proteinuria**, making it highly unlikely that there would be no changes on kidney biopsy.
- A normal kidney biopsy would contradict the strong clinical picture of renal pathology.
*Mesangial proliferation*
- **Mesangial proliferation** is characteristic of several glomerular diseases, including **IgA nephropathy** and early **lupus nephritis**.
- While some forms of FSGS might show mild mesangial changes, prominent mesangial proliferation is not the primary diagnostic feature of HIVAN.
Question 28: A 71-year-old male with worsening memory, behavior changes, and disorientation over the span of several years was admitted to the hospital for signs of severe pneumonia. He passes away after failed antibiotic therapy. Which of the following findings would most likely be identified on autopsy?
A. A spongiform cortex with large intracellular vacuoles
B. Pick bodies
C. Extracellular amyloid forming parenchymal plaques (Correct Answer)
D. Lewy bodies
E. Degeneration of the caudate nucleus
Explanation: ***Extracellular amyloid forming parenchymal plaques***
- The patient's symptoms of progressive memory loss, behavioral changes, and disorientation over several years are characteristic of **Alzheimer's disease**.
- **Amyloid plaques** (extracellular deposits of amyloid-beta protein) and **neurofibrillary tangles** (intracellular aggregates of hyperphosphorylated tau protein) are the hallmark pathological findings in Alzheimer's disease on autopsy.
*A spongiform cortex with large intracellular vacuoles*
- This description is characteristic of **Creutzfeldt-Jakob disease**, a prion disease, which typically progresses much more rapidly (months) than the several years described in the patient.
- While it causes dementia, the pace and specific neuropathological features are distinct from those presented.
*Pick bodies*
- **Pick bodies** (intracellular inclusions of tau protein) are characteristic of **Pick's disease**, a type of frontotemporal dementia.
- While Pick's disease can cause behavioral and memory changes, the pattern of cognitive decline and the specific type of widespread neuronal loss differ from classical Alzheimer's.
*Lewy bodies*
- **Lewy bodies** (intracellular aggregates of alpha-synuclein protein) are the neuropathological hallmark of **Lewy body dementia** and Parkinson's disease.
- Lewy body dementia often presents with prominent fluctuations in cognitive function, recurrent visual hallucinations, and parkinsonism, which are not explicitly mentioned in the patient's presentation.
*Degeneration of the caudate nucleus*
- **Degeneration of the caudate nucleus** is the primary pathological feature of **Huntington's disease**.
- Huntington's disease is an inherited disorder characterized by chorea, psychiatric symptoms, and cognitive decline, typically with an earlier onset than described in this 71-year-old patient.
Question 29: A 46-year-old man is admitted to the hospital with a 3-day history of productive cough with purulent sputum and fever with chills. On the second day of admission, he develops bloody vomiting, altered mental status, and multiple red spots all over the body. He is oriented only to self. His temperature is 39.3°C (102.7°F), pulse is 110/min, respirations are 26/min, and blood pressure is 86/50 mm Hg. Physical examination shows ecchymoses on both lower extremities. Crackles are heard at the right lung base. Laboratory studies show a platelet count of 45,000/mm3, with a prothrombin time of 44 sec and partial thromboplastin time of 62 sec. D-dimer concentrations are elevated. Which of the following is the most likely cause of this patient's ecchymoses?
A. Disseminated intravascular coagulation (Correct Answer)
B. Thrombotic thrombocytopenic purpura
C. Immune thrombocytopenic purpura
D. Severe hepatic dysfunction
E. Hemolytic uremic syndrome
Explanation: ***Disseminated intravascular coagulation***
- The patient presents with **sepsis** (fever, productive cough, purulent sputum, altered mental status, **hypotension**, crackles in lung base) leading to widespread activation of the coagulation cascade.
- The combination of **thrombocytopenia**, prolonged **PT** and **aPTT**, and elevated **D-dimer** is highly characteristic of **disseminated intravascular coagulation (DIC)**, which consumes clotting factors and platelets, causing bleeding manifestations like ecchymoses and bloody vomiting.
*Thrombotic thrombocytopenic purpura*
- This condition is characterized by a "pentad" of symptoms: **fever**, **neurological symptoms**, **renal dysfunction**, **thrombocytopenia**, and **microangiopathic hemolytic anemia**.
- While thrombocytopenia and neurological symptoms are present, the absence of renal dysfunction and significant hemolytic anemia, coupled with markedly deranged coagulation times, makes DIC a more probable diagnosis.
*Immune thrombocytopenic purpura*
- **Immune thrombocytopenic purpura (ITP)** involves isolated **thrombocytopenia** due to autoimmune destruction of platelets.
- In ITP, coagulation times (**PT, aPTT**) are typically normal, distinguishing it from the patient's presentation with prolonged PT and aPTT.
*Severe hepatic dysfunction*
- **Severe hepatic dysfunction** can lead to coagulopathy due to impaired synthesis of clotting factors, resulting in prolonged PT and aPTT, and sometimes thrombocytopenia.
- However, it would not typically cause the acute, rapid onset of widespread systemic inflammation and organ dysfunction seen in this patient, nor the elevated D-dimer which indicates active fibrinolysis.
*Hemolytic uremic syndrome*
- **Hemolytic uremic syndrome (HUS)** is characterized by the triad of **microangiopathic hemolytic anemia**, **thrombocytopenia**, and **acute kidney injury**.
- While thrombocytopenia is present, the patient's primary presentation with severe respiratory infection, shock, and markedly deranged coagulation studies (prolonged PT/aPTT, elevated D-dimer) suggests DIC rather than HUS.
Question 30: A 66-year-old man is brought to the clinic with a history of recurrent falls. He has been slow in his movements and walks clumsily. He denies fever, vision problems, limb weakness, numbness, abnormal sensation in his limbs, trauma, or inability to pass urine. The past medical history is unremarkable, and he only takes calcium and vitamin D supplements. The vital signs include: blood pressure 128/72 mm Hg, heart rate 85/min, respiratory rate 16/min, and temperature 36.9°C (98.4°F). He is awake, alert, and oriented to time, place, and person. His eye movements are normal. There is a tremor in his hands bilaterally, more in the left-hand which decreases with voluntary movements. The muscle tone in all 4 limbs is increased with normal deep tendon reflexes. He walks with a stooped posture and takes small steps with decreased arm swinging movements. During walking, he has difficulty in taking the first few steps and also in changing directions. The speech is slow and monotonous. His mini-mental state examination (MMSE) score is 26/30. What is the most likely pathophysiology of the patient’s condition?
A. Generalized brain atrophy
B. Dilated ventricles with increased CSF volume
C. Demyelination of the white matter
D. Loss of dopaminergic neurons in the substantia nigra (Correct Answer)
E. Cerebellar atrophy
Explanation: ***Loss of dopaminergic neurons in the substantia nigra***
- The patient's symptoms, including **bradykinesia** (slow movements, difficulty initiating walking, small steps), **rigidity** (increased muscle tone), **resting tremor** (more prominent at rest, decreased with voluntary movement), **postural instability** (recurrent falls, stooped posture), **monotonous speech**, and **decreased arm swing**, are classic features of **Parkinson's disease**.
- **Parkinson's disease** is primarily caused by the progressive degeneration and loss of **dopaminergic neurons** in the **substantia nigra pars compacta** within the midbrain, leading to a deficiency of dopamine in the basal ganglia.
*Generalized brain atrophy*
- While generalized brain atrophy can occur in many neurodegenerative conditions, it is a **non-specific finding** and does not specifically explain the characteristic motor symptoms seen in this patient.
- Conditions with generalized atrophy, such as **Alzheimer's disease**, typically present with more prominent cognitive decline earlier in the disease course, which is not the primary complaint here (MMSE 26/30).
*Dilated ventricles with increased CSF volume*
- This description is characteristic of **normal pressure hydrocephalus (NPH)**, which presents with a triad of **gait disturbance**, **urinary incontinence**, and **dementia**.
- While gait disturbance is present, the patient denies urinary incontinence and does not have significant dementia (MMSE 26/30), making NPH less likely than Parkinson's.
*Demyelination of the white matter*
- **Demyelination**, as seen in conditions like **multiple sclerosis**, typically presents with a range of neurological deficits that are often multifocal and can include **sensory disturbances**, **visual problems**, and **limb weakness**, none of which are reported by this patient.
- The specific combination of tremor, rigidity, bradykinesia, and gait changes is not characteristic of primary demyelinating diseases.
*Cerebellar atrophy*
- **Cerebellar atrophy** would primarily manifest as **ataxia**, characterized by intention tremor (worsens with voluntary movement), dysmetria, dysdiadochokinesia, and nystagmus, as well as problems with balance and coordination.
- The patient's tremor **decreases with voluntary movements** and his motor deficits are more indicative of **basal ganglia dysfunction** rather than cerebellar dysfunction.