Four days after admission to the hospital for acute pancreatitis, a 41-year-old man develops hypotension and fever. His temperature is 39.1°C (102.3°F), pulse is 115/min, and blood pressure is 80/60 mm Hg. Physical examination shows warm extremities, asymmetric calf size, and blood oozing around his IV sites. There are numerous small, red, non-blanching macules and patches covering the extremities, as well as several large ecchymoses. His hemoglobin concentration is 9.0 g/dL. A peripheral blood smear shows schistocytes and decreased platelets. Which of the following sets of serum findings are most likely in this patient?
$$$ Prothrombin time %%% Partial thromboplastin time %%% Fibrinogen %%% D-dimer $$$
Q252
A 12-year-old boy is brought by his parents to the physician for a fever for the past 2 days. His temperature is 101.3°F (38.5°C). His medical history is significant for sickle cell disease and recurrent infections. A year ago, he underwent spleen scintigraphy with technetium-99m that revealed functional hyposplenism. Which of the following findings would be found in a peripheral blood smear from this patient?
Q253
A previously healthy 15-year-old girl is brought to the physician by her parents for lethargy, increased thirst, and urinary frequency for 10 days. She is 173 cm (5 ft 8 in) tall and weighs 54 kg (120 lb); BMI is 18 kg/m2. Physical examination shows no abnormalities. Her serum glucose concentration is 224 mg/dL. A urine dipstick is positive for ketone bodies. Which of the following is most likely involved in the pathogenesis of this patient's condition?
Q254
A 30-year-old woman comes to the emergency department because of weakness and fatigue for 2 days. She has also noticed that her urine is darker than usual. For the past week, she has had a persistent non-productive cough and low-grade fever. She has seasonal allergies. She drinks one to two glasses of wine on social occasions and does not smoke. Her temperature is 37.9°C (100.2°F), pulse is 88/min, respirations are 18/min, and blood pressure is 110/76 mm Hg. She has conjunctival pallor and scleral icterus. Cardiopulmonary examination shows bibasilar crackles. The remainder of the physical examination shows no abnormalities. Laboratory studies show:
Leukocyte count 8,000/mm3
Hemoglobin 7.1 g/dL
Hematocrit 21%
Platelet count 110,000/mm3
MCV 94 μm3
Serum
Total bilirubin 4.3 mg/dL
Direct 1.1 mg/dL
Indirect 3.2 mg/dL
AST 15 U/L
ALT 17 U/L
LDH 1,251 U/L
Haptoglobin 5.8 mg/dL (N = 41–165)
An x-ray of the chest shows bilateral patchy infiltrates. A peripheral blood smear shows spherocytes. Which of the following is most likely to confirm the diagnosis?
Q255
A 57-year-old female visits her primary care physician with 2+ pitting edema in her legs. She takes no medications and does not use alcohol, tobacco, or illicit drugs. 4.5 grams of protein are collected during 24-hour urine excretion. A kidney biopsy is obtained. Examination with light microscopy shows diffuse thickening of the glomerular basement membrane. Electron microscopy shows subepithelial spike and dome deposits. Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis:
Q256
A 40-year-old woman has complaints of dyspnea, cough, and arthritis in her ankle joints. A CT scan reveals multiple granulomas in both lungs, as well as bilateral hilar lymphadenopathy. On examination, cutaneous nodules over the trunk are found. Erythrocyte sedimentation rate, angiotensin-converting enzyme, and serum calcium levels are elevated. She is treated with steroids. What is the most likely diagnosis?
Q257
A physician is describing a case to his residents where a kidney transplant was rapidly rejected by the recipient minutes after graft perfusion. The physician most likely describes all of the following manifestations EXCEPT?
Q258
A 15-year-old Caucasian male is brought to his pediatrician by his parents, who note the development of a tremor in their child. Urine and serum analysis reveal elevated levels of copper. Which of the following clinical manifestations would the physician most expect to see in this patient?
Q259
A 19-year-old college student is brought to the emergency department by his roommates after being found unconscious on their dorm room floor. His temperature is 102.0°F (38.9°C) and blood pressure is 85/64 mmHg. On physical examination, he has multiple petechiae on the skin covering his abdomen and lower limbs. Lab tests reveal hyperkalemia and an arterial blood gas test that reads pH: 7.04, pCO2: 30.1 mmHg, pO2: 83.4 mmHg. What is the most likely diagnosis for this patient's condition?
Q260
A 28-year-old female suffering from a urinary tract infection is given trimethoprim-sulfamethoxazole (TMP-SMX) by her physician. Several days later, she begins to experience itchiness and joint pain. Laboratory and histologic analysis reveals vasculitis and antibody complexes deposited near the basement membrane of the glomerulus. What other serological finding is expected with this presentation?
Systemic Pathology US Medical PG Practice Questions and MCQs
Question 251: Four days after admission to the hospital for acute pancreatitis, a 41-year-old man develops hypotension and fever. His temperature is 39.1°C (102.3°F), pulse is 115/min, and blood pressure is 80/60 mm Hg. Physical examination shows warm extremities, asymmetric calf size, and blood oozing around his IV sites. There are numerous small, red, non-blanching macules and patches covering the extremities, as well as several large ecchymoses. His hemoglobin concentration is 9.0 g/dL. A peripheral blood smear shows schistocytes and decreased platelets. Which of the following sets of serum findings are most likely in this patient?
$$$ Prothrombin time %%% Partial thromboplastin time %%% Fibrinogen %%% D-dimer $$$
A. ↑ ↑ ↓ ↑ (Correct Answer)
B. Normal ↑ normal normal
C. Normal normal normal ↑
D. ↑ ↑ ↓ normal
E. Normal normal normal normal
Explanation: ***↑ ↑ ↓ ↑***
- This patient's presentation with **hypotension**, **fever**, **bleeding (oozing IV sites, ecchymoses)**, **schistocytes**, and **thrombocytopenia** is highly suggestive of **Disseminated Intravascular Coagulation (DIC)**. **DIC** leads to consumption of clotting factors and platelets, resulting in prolonged **PT**, prolonged **aPTT**, decreased **fibrinogen**, and increased **D-dimer** as fibrin is broken down.
- The elevated **D-dimer** specifically indicates increased **fibrinolysis** due to the widespread clot formation and subsequent degradation, which is characteristic of **DIC**.
*Normal ↑ normal normal*
- **Isolated prolonged aPTT** with normal **PT**, **fibrinogen**, and **D-dimer** is not consistent with the widespread coagulation activation and consumption seen in this patient's severe, multi-systemic illness involving both bleeding and thrombosis.
- This pattern might suggest a deficiency in an **intrinsic pathway factor** or the presence of a **heparin effect**, neither of which explains the full clinical picture of **DIC**.
*Normal normal normal ↑*
- A normal **PT**, **aPTT**, and **fibrinogen** with an **isolated elevated D-dimer** could suggest a more localized **thrombotic event** with secondary fibrinolysis, such as **deep vein thrombosis (DVT)**, but without significant consumption of clotting factors or platelets.
- This pattern does not account for the **bleeding manifestations**, **thrombocytopenia**, or the presence of **elevated PT** and **aPTT** that would be expected in **DIC**.
*↑ ↑ ↓ normal*
- While **prolonged PT** and **aPTT** and decreased **fibrinogen** are consistent with consumption of clotting factors in **DIC**, a normal **D-dimer** would contradict the extensive **fibrinolysis** that accompanies the widespread microvascular thrombosis in this condition.
- An elevated **D-dimer** is a crucial diagnostic marker for **DIC**, reflecting the breakdown products of fibrin clots.
*Normal normal normal normal*
- Normal coagulation parameters with the profound clinical picture of **hypotension**, **fever**, **bleeding**, **schistocytes**, and **thrombocytopenia** would be highly contradictory.
- This pattern effectively rules out any significant **coagulopathy**, which is clearly present given the patient's symptoms and blood smear findings.
Question 252: A 12-year-old boy is brought by his parents to the physician for a fever for the past 2 days. His temperature is 101.3°F (38.5°C). His medical history is significant for sickle cell disease and recurrent infections. A year ago, he underwent spleen scintigraphy with technetium-99m that revealed functional hyposplenism. Which of the following findings would be found in a peripheral blood smear from this patient?
A. Schistocytes
B. Acanthocytes
C. Howell-Jolly bodies (Correct Answer)
D. Basophilic stippling
E. Heinz bodies
Explanation: ***Howell-Jolly bodies***
- The patient has **functional hyposplenism** due to sickle cell disease, meaning the spleen is not effectively filtering the blood.
- **Howell-Jolly bodies** are nuclear remnants of red blood cells that are normally removed by the spleen; their presence indicates **splenic dysfunction** or **asplenia**.
*Schistocytes*
- **Schistocytes** are fragmented red blood cells, indicating **microangiopathic hemolytic anemia** (e.g., DIC, TTP-HUS, mechanical heart valves).
- While sickle cell disease can cause hemolysis, schistocytes are not the primary or expected finding directly related to hyposplenism.
*Acanthocytes*
- **Acanthocytes** (spur cells) are red blood cells with irregular, spiny projections, typically seen in severe liver disease or abetalipoproteinemia.
- They are not a characteristic finding associated with hyposplenism or sickle cell disease in this context.
*Basophilic stippling*
- **Basophilic stippling** refers to ribosomal precipitates within red blood cells, commonly seen in **lead poisoning**, severe anemias, or myelodysplastic syndromes.
- It does not directly indicate splenic dysfunction or hyposplenism.
*Heinz bodies*
- **Heinz bodies** are denatured hemoglobin precipitates within red blood cells, seen in conditions causing **oxidative stress** or **hemoglobinopathies** like G6PD deficiency.
- Although sickle cell disease involves abnormal hemoglobin, Heinz bodies are not the classic finding of hyposplenism; rather, they suggest a different underlying pathology for red cell damage.
Question 253: A previously healthy 15-year-old girl is brought to the physician by her parents for lethargy, increased thirst, and urinary frequency for 10 days. She is 173 cm (5 ft 8 in) tall and weighs 54 kg (120 lb); BMI is 18 kg/m2. Physical examination shows no abnormalities. Her serum glucose concentration is 224 mg/dL. A urine dipstick is positive for ketone bodies. Which of the following is most likely involved in the pathogenesis of this patient's condition?
A. Pancreatic islet amyloid polypeptide deposition
B. T-cell infiltration of pancreatic islets (Correct Answer)
C. B-cell production of antimitochondrial antibodies
D. Complement-mediated destruction of insulin receptors
E. Expression of human leukocyte antigen subtype A3
Explanation: ***T-cell infiltration of pancreatic islets***
- The patient's symptoms (lethargy, increased thirst, urinary frequency, weight loss shown by BMI 18) combined with **hyperglycemia** (224 mg/dL) and **ketonuria** are classic for **Type 1 Diabetes Mellitus (T1DM)**.
- T1DM is an autoimmune disease characterized by the **T-cell mediated destruction of pancreatic beta cells**, leading to absolute insulin deficiency.
*Pancreatic islet amyloid polypeptide deposition*
- **Amyloid polypeptide (amylin) deposition** is characteristic of **Type 2 Diabetes Mellitus (T2DM)**, particularly in later stages.
- T2DM typically presents in older, obese individuals due to insulin resistance, which does not fit this patient's profile (thin, young, acute onset).
*B-cell production of antimitochondrial antibodies*
- **Antimitochondrial antibodies** are highly specific for **primary biliary cholangitis**, an autoimmune liver disease.
- These antibodies are not associated with diabetes mellitus.
*Complement-mediated destruction of insulin receptors*
- Conditions involving **autoantibodies against insulin receptors** can cause extreme insulin resistance, presenting with hyperglycaemia.
- However, this is a very rare form of diabetes and does not typically involve ketosis or the classic acute presentation seen in T1DM.
*Expression of human leukocyte antigen subtype A3*
- **HLA-A3** is associated with **hemochromatosis**, a genetic disorder of iron overload.
- While certain HLA types (e.g., HLA-DR3, DR4) are associated with T1DM, HLA-A3 is not a primary risk factor for uncomplicated diabetes.
Question 254: A 30-year-old woman comes to the emergency department because of weakness and fatigue for 2 days. She has also noticed that her urine is darker than usual. For the past week, she has had a persistent non-productive cough and low-grade fever. She has seasonal allergies. She drinks one to two glasses of wine on social occasions and does not smoke. Her temperature is 37.9°C (100.2°F), pulse is 88/min, respirations are 18/min, and blood pressure is 110/76 mm Hg. She has conjunctival pallor and scleral icterus. Cardiopulmonary examination shows bibasilar crackles. The remainder of the physical examination shows no abnormalities. Laboratory studies show:
Leukocyte count 8,000/mm3
Hemoglobin 7.1 g/dL
Hematocrit 21%
Platelet count 110,000/mm3
MCV 94 μm3
Serum
Total bilirubin 4.3 mg/dL
Direct 1.1 mg/dL
Indirect 3.2 mg/dL
AST 15 U/L
ALT 17 U/L
LDH 1,251 U/L
Haptoglobin 5.8 mg/dL (N = 41–165)
An x-ray of the chest shows bilateral patchy infiltrates. A peripheral blood smear shows spherocytes. Which of the following is most likely to confirm the diagnosis?
A. Flow cytometry
B. Hemoglobin electrophoresis
C. Direct Coombs test (Correct Answer)
D. ADAMTS13 activity and inhibitor profile
E. Osmotic fragility test
Explanation: ***Direct Coombs test***
- The patient presents with classic signs of **autoimmune hemolytic anemia (AIHA)**: anemia (Hb 7.1), indirect hyperbilirubinemia (indirect 3.2 mg/dL), elevated LDH (1251 U/L), low haptoglobin (5.8 mg/dL), and spherocytes on peripheral smear.
- A **direct Coombs test** (direct antiglobulin test) detects antibodies or complement components bound to the surface of red blood cells, which is the definitive diagnostic test for AIHA.
- The recent respiratory symptoms with bilateral infiltrates suggest **atypical pneumonia** (likely Mycoplasma or viral), which is a classic trigger for **cold agglutinin disease**, a type of AIHA.
*Flow cytometry*
- **Flow cytometry** is used to identify and quantify specific cell populations, often in hematologic malignancies or immune deficiencies.
- It can be used to diagnose **paroxysmal nocturnal hemoglobinuria (PNH)** by detecting CD55 and CD59 deficiency, but the clinical picture and spherocytes point to AIHA rather than PNH.
*Hemoglobin electrophoresis*
- **Hemoglobin electrophoresis** is used to diagnose hemoglobinopathies like **sickle cell anemia** or **thalassemia**.
- While these can cause hemolytic anemia, the presence of spherocytes and the acute presentation with signs of immune-mediated destruction (triggered by infection) points away from these inherited disorders as the primary cause.
*ADAMTS13 activity and inhibitor profile*
- This test is used to diagnose **Thrombotic Thrombocytopenic Purpura (TTP)**, which presents with microangiopathic hemolytic anemia, thrombocytopenia, renal failure, neurological symptoms, and fever.
- While the patient has anemia and mild thrombocytopenia, the presence of **spherocytes** (not schistocytes) and indirect hyperbilirubinemia with low haptoglobin is more consistent with AIHA rather than TTP.
*Osmotic fragility test*
- The **osmotic fragility test** is used to diagnose hereditary spherocytosis, which also presents with spherocytes and hemolytic anemia.
- However, hereditary spherocytosis is typically a chronic, inherited condition, and the acute presentation with a likely infectious trigger (non-productive cough and low-grade fever suggesting atypical pneumonia) makes **acquired autoimmune hemolysis** more probable.
Question 255: A 57-year-old female visits her primary care physician with 2+ pitting edema in her legs. She takes no medications and does not use alcohol, tobacco, or illicit drugs. 4.5 grams of protein are collected during 24-hour urine excretion. A kidney biopsy is obtained. Examination with light microscopy shows diffuse thickening of the glomerular basement membrane. Electron microscopy shows subepithelial spike and dome deposits. Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis:
A. Membranous nephropathy (Correct Answer)
B. Postinfectious glomerulonephritis
C. Minimal change disease
D. Focal segmental glomerulosclerosis
E. Rapidly progressive glomerulonephritis
Explanation: ***Membranous nephropathy***
- The classic renal biopsy findings of **diffuse thickening of the glomerular basement membrane** on light microscopy and **subepithelial spike and dome deposits** on electron microscopy are pathognomonic for membranous nephropathy.
- The patient presents with **nephrotic syndrome** (4.5 grams of protein in 24-hour urine excretion and 2+ pitting edema), which is the primary presentation of membranous nephropathy.
*Postinfectious glomerulonephritis*
- This condition typically follows an infection (e.g., streptococcal) and presents with **nephritic syndrome** (hematuria, hypertension, mild proteinuria), not nephrotic levels of proteinuria.
- Biopsy would show **subepithelial humps** on electron microscopy and mesangial/endocapillary proliferation on light microscopy, which differs from the findings described.
*Minimal change disease*
- While it causes nephrotic syndrome, light microscopy would show a **normal glomerulus**, not diffuse thickening of the glomerular basement membrane.
- Electron microscopy would reveal **effacement of podocyte foot processes**, without immune deposits.
*Focal segmental glomerulosclerosis*
- This condition presents with nephrotic syndrome, but light microscopy would show **sclerosis of some glomeruli** (focal) and within parts of affected glomeruli (segmental).
- Electron microscopy might show **effacement of foot processes** but typically without the prominent subepithelial immune deposits seen in membranous nephropathy.
*Rapidly progressive glomerulonephritis*
- This is a clinical syndrome characterized by a **rapid decline in glomerular function** and often presents with nephritic features and prominent **crescent formation** on light microscopy.
- It does not typically show diffuse glomerular basement membrane thickening and subepithelial spike and dome deposits.
Question 256: A 40-year-old woman has complaints of dyspnea, cough, and arthritis in her ankle joints. A CT scan reveals multiple granulomas in both lungs, as well as bilateral hilar lymphadenopathy. On examination, cutaneous nodules over the trunk are found. Erythrocyte sedimentation rate, angiotensin-converting enzyme, and serum calcium levels are elevated. She is treated with steroids. What is the most likely diagnosis?
A. Sarcoidosis (Correct Answer)
B. Silicosis
C. Tuberculosis
D. Adenocarcinoma of the lung
E. Hodgkin's lymphoma
Explanation: ***Sarcoidosis***
- The combination of **dyspnea, cough, arthritis, pulmonary granulomas, bilateral hilar lymphadenopathy**, cutaneous nodules, and elevated **ACE, ESR, and serum calcium** is highly characteristic of sarcoidosis.
- This multisystem inflammatory disease often presents with non-caseating granulomas affecting the lungs, lymph nodes, skin, and joints, and it typically responds well to corticosteroids.
*Silicosis*
- **Silicosis** is an occupational lung disease caused by inhaling **crystalline silica dust**, leading to pulmonary fibrosis, but it does not typically present with arthritis, elevated ACE, or widespread cutaneous nodules.
- While it can cause **pulmonary nodules**, these are usually different from the granulomas seen in sarcoidosis, and it lacks the other systemic features.
*Tuberculosis*
- **Tuberculosis** can cause **pulmonary granulomas**, cough, and dyspnea, but it typically presents with caseating granulomas and is usually associated with **night sweats, weight loss, and fever**, which are not mentioned here.
- While TB can rarely cause arthritis (Pott's disease of the spine), widespread **hilar lymphadenopathy**, elevated ACE, and cutaneous nodules are not typical features.
*Adenocarcinoma of the lung*
- **Adenocarcinoma of the lung** is a malignant condition that can cause cough, dyspnea, and lung nodules, but it typically does not present with **bilateral hilar lymphadenopathy**, arthritis, or the characteristic systemic elevations of ACE and calcium.
- The patient's clinical picture is more suggestive of a systemic inflammatory process rather than a primary lung malignancy.
*Hodgkin's lymphoma*
- **Hodgkin's lymphoma** can cause **lymphadenopathy** (including hilar), cough, and dyspnea, but it is a **hematological malignancy** characterized by Reed-Sternberg cells.
- It does not typically cause diffuse pulmonary granulomas, arthritis, elevated ACE, or hypercalcemia in the manner described.
Question 257: A physician is describing a case to his residents where a kidney transplant was rapidly rejected by the recipient minutes after graft perfusion. The physician most likely describes all of the following manifestations EXCEPT?
A. Graft cyanosis
B. Histological evidence of vascular damage
C. Graft mottling
D. Histological evidence of arteriosclerosis (Correct Answer)
E. Low urine output with evidence of blood
Explanation: ***Histological evidence of arteriosclerosis***
- **Arteriosclerosis** is a chronic process involving hardening and narrowing of arteries due to plaque buildup, developing over years, and is not an acute manifestation of hyperacute rejection.
- Hyperacute rejection occurs minutes to hours after transplant due to pre-existing **antibodies** in the recipient targeting donor antigens, leading to immediate graft dysfunction due to **vascular damage**.
*Graft cyanosis*
- **Graft cyanosis** reflects poor blood flow and oxygenation to the transplanted organ, a direct consequence of the vascular occlusion and **ischemia** characteristic of hyperacute rejection.
- The rapid immune response in hyperacute rejection leads to immediate **thrombosis** within the graft's vessels, impairing perfusion and causing cyanosis.
*Histological evidence of vascular damage*
- **Vascular damage**, including thrombosis and **endothelial injury**, is the hallmark of hyperacute rejection, caused by antibody-mediated complement activation and inflammation.
- This damage is directly observed upon histological examination and is the underlying cause for the immediate graft failure.
*Graft mottling*
- **Graft mottling** describes a patchy, discolored appearance of the organ, indicating uneven and compromised blood flow within the graft.
- It is a macroscopic sign of the severe microvascular obstruction and **ischemia** resulting from the rapid immunological attack.
*Low urine output with evidence of blood*
- **Low urine output** (oliguria or anuria) is a critical sign of acute kidney injury, which occurs rapidly when the transplanted kidney's perfusion is severely compromised.
- The presence of **blood in the urine** (hematuria) would indicate severe vascular damage within the kidney, as cellular components and frank blood leak from damaged vessels.
Question 258: A 15-year-old Caucasian male is brought to his pediatrician by his parents, who note the development of a tremor in their child. Urine and serum analysis reveal elevated levels of copper. Which of the following clinical manifestations would the physician most expect to see in this patient?
A. Kaiser-Fleischer rings (Correct Answer)
B. Diabetes mellitus
C. Hepatocytes that stain with Prussian blue
D. Panacinar emphysema
E. Increased serum ceruloplasmin
Explanation: ***Kaiser-Fleischer rings***
- Elevated copper levels, tremor, and young age are classic signs of **Wilson's disease**, an autosomal recessive disorder leading to copper accumulation.
- **Kaiser-Fleischer rings** are greenish-brown deposits of copper in the cornea, a hallmark ocular manifestation of Wilson's disease.
*Diabetes mellitus*
- While copper dysregulation can affect various organs, **diabetes mellitus** is not a typical clinical manifestation of Wilson's disease.
- Pancreatic involvement leading to diabetes is more commonly associated with conditions like **hemochromatosis** (iron overload) or chronic pancreatitis.
*Hepatocytes that stain with Prussian blue*
- **Prussian blue stain** is used to detect **iron deposits**, not copper.
- In Wilson's disease, copper accumulates in hepatocytes, which would not stain positive with Prussian blue.
*Panacinar emphysema*
- **Panacinar emphysema** is primarily associated with **alpha-1 antitrypsin deficiency**, a genetic disorder affecting elastic tissue in the lungs.
- It has no direct association with copper metabolism or Wilson's disease.
*Increased serum ceruloplasmin*
- **Ceruloplasmin** is a copper-carrying protein, and in Wilson's disease, the **serum ceruloplasmin level is typically reduced**, not increased.
- This reduction is due to impaired copper incorporation into ceruloplasmin by the dysfunctional ATP7B protein.
Question 259: A 19-year-old college student is brought to the emergency department by his roommates after being found unconscious on their dorm room floor. His temperature is 102.0°F (38.9°C) and blood pressure is 85/64 mmHg. On physical examination, he has multiple petechiae on the skin covering his abdomen and lower limbs. Lab tests reveal hyperkalemia and an arterial blood gas test that reads pH: 7.04, pCO2: 30.1 mmHg, pO2: 83.4 mmHg. What is the most likely diagnosis for this patient's condition?
A. Diabetic ketoacidosis
B. Addison disease
C. Dengue hemorrhagic fever
D. Waterhouse-Friderichsen syndrome (Correct Answer)
E. Typhoid fever
Explanation: ***Waterhouse-Friderichsen syndrome***
- The combination of **fever**, **hypotension**, **petechial rash**, and signs of metabolic acidosis (low pH, hyperkalemia) in a young, previously healthy individual is highly suggestive of **meningococcemia** complicated by Waterhouse-Friderichsen syndrome, which involves **bilateral adrenal hemorrhage** and acute adrenal insufficiency.
- The **petechiae** (non-blanching purplish spots) are a hallmark of severe **Neisseria meningitidis** infection due to disseminated intravascular coagulation (DIC) and vasculitis.
- **Hyperkalemia** and metabolic acidosis result from acute adrenal insufficiency (loss of aldosterone and cortisol).
*Diabetic ketoacidosis*
- While DKA can cause **metabolic acidosis** and altered mental status, it typically presents with **hyperglycemia**, polyuria, polydipsia, and Kussmaul respirations (deep, rapid breathing).
- The characteristic **petechial rash** and severe hypotension with septic shock are not typical of DKA.
- DKA does not cause hyperkalemia in the same context (though total body potassium is depleted, serum levels may initially be elevated).
*Addison disease*
- **Chronic primary adrenal insufficiency** can cause hypotension, hyperkalemia, and acidosis, but it develops gradually over weeks to months with features like **hyperpigmentation**, fatigue, and weight loss.
- It does not present with acute fever and petechial rash characteristic of fulminant bacterial sepsis.
*Dengue hemorrhagic fever*
- Dengue can cause fever, thrombocytopenia, and hemorrhagic manifestations, but the typical rash is **maculopapular** (often described as "islands of white in a sea of red").
- Severe dengue presents with plasma leakage and shock, but **hyperkalemia** and severe metabolic acidosis with adrenal hemorrhage are not characteristic features.
- The geographic context (college dormitory, likely in temperate region) makes meningococcemia more likely than dengue.
*Typhoid fever*
- Typhoid fever can cause fever and characteristic **"rose spots"** (blanching, salmon-colored macules), but these typically appear in the second week of illness on the trunk and are much more subtle than petechiae.
- Typhoid presents with **step-ladder fever**, relative bradycardia, and abdominal symptoms (constipation/diarrhea), not acute septic shock with petechial rash.
- The acute severity, rapid deterioration, and hemorrhagic adrenal involvement point to meningococcemia, not typhoid.
Question 260: A 28-year-old female suffering from a urinary tract infection is given trimethoprim-sulfamethoxazole (TMP-SMX) by her physician. Several days later, she begins to experience itchiness and joint pain. Laboratory and histologic analysis reveals vasculitis and antibody complexes deposited near the basement membrane of the glomerulus. What other serological finding is expected with this presentation?
A. Decreased levels of IgE
B. Increased serum levels of complement protein C3
C. Increased levels of IgE
D. Decreased neutrophil count
E. Lowered serum levels of complement protein C3 (Correct Answer)
Explanation: ***Lowered serum levels of complement protein C3***
- The presentation of itchiness, joint pain, vasculitis, and **immune complex deposition** in the glomerulus after TMP-SMX administration, points to a **Type III hypersensitivity reaction**.
- In Type III hypersensitivity, **immune complexes** activate the complement system, leading to its consumption and thus **decreased serum levels of complement proteins** like C3.
*Decreased levels of IgE*
- This scenario describes a **Type III hypersensitivity**, which is mediated by immune complexes and complement, not typically IgE.
- Decreased IgE levels are not characteristic of drug-induced vasculitis or immune complex glomerulonephritis.
*Increased serum levels of complement protein C3*
- **Complement activation** by immune complexes leads to its consumption, resulting in **decreased**, not increased, serum levels of complement proteins.
- High C3 levels would suggest an active inflammatory process without significant complement consumption, which contradicts the described pathology.
*Increased levels of IgE*
- **Increased IgE** levels are characteristic of **Type I hypersensitivity** (allergic reactions), which typically present with immediate symptoms like anaphylaxis, urticaria, or asthma, not immune complex deposition.
- While TMP-SMX can cause Type I reactions, the described vasculitis and glomerular immune complex deposition point away from this mechanism.
*Decreased neutrophil count*
- A decreased **neutrophil count (neutropenia)** can be a side effect of TMP-SMX, but it is not directly linked to the immune complex-mediated vasculitis and glomerulonephritis described.
- While relevant to drug toxicity, it is not the expected serological finding related to the described immune pathology.