A 27-year-old woman presents to the emergency department complaining of a left-sided headache and right-sided blurry vision. She states that 2 weeks ago she developed dark urine and abdominal pain. She thought it was a urinary tract infection so she took trimethoprim-sulfamethoxazole that she had left over. She planned on going to her primary care physician today but then she developed headache and blurry vision so she came to the emergency department. The patient states she is otherwise healthy. Her family history is significant for a brother with sickle cell trait. On physical examination, there is mild abdominal tenderness, and the liver edge is felt 4 cm below the right costal margin. Labs are drawn as below:
Hemoglobin: 7.0 g/dL
Platelets: 149,000/mm^3
Reticulocyte count: 5.4%
Lactate dehydrogenase: 3128 U/L
Total bilirubin: 2.1 mg/dL
Indirect bilirubin: 1.4 mg/dL
Aspartate aminotransferase: 78 U/L
Alanine aminotransferase: 64 U/L
A peripheral smear shows polychromasia. A Doppler ultrasound of the liver shows decreased flow in the right hepatic vein. Magnetic resonance imaging of the brain is pending. Which of the following tests, if performed, would most likely identify the patient’s diagnosis?
Q242
A 3080-g (6-lb 13-oz) male newborn is delivered at term to a 27-year-old woman, gravida 2, para 1. Pregnancy was uncomplicated. He appears pale. His temperature is 36.8°C (98.2°F), pulse is 167/min, and respirations are 56/min. Examination shows jaundice of the skin and conjunctivae. The liver is palpated 2–3 cm below the right costal margin, and the spleen is palpated 1–2 cm below the left costal margin. The lungs are clear to auscultation. No murmurs are heard. His hemoglobin concentration is 10.6 g/dL and mean corpuscular volume is 73 μm3. Hemoglobin DNA testing shows 3 missing alleles. Which of the following laboratory findings is most likely present in this patient?
Q243
A 61-year-old man presents to the emergency department because he has developed blisters at multiple locations on his body. He says that the blisters appeared several days ago after a day of hiking in the mountains with his colleagues. When asked about potential triggering events, he says that he recently had an infection and was treated with antibiotics but he cannot recall the name of the drug that he took. In addition, he accidentally confused his medication with one of his wife's blood thinner pills several days before the blisters appeared. On examination, the blisters are flesh-colored, raised, and widespread on his skin but do not involve his mucosal surfaces. The blisters are tense to palpation and do not separate with rubbing. Pathology of the vesicles show that they continue under the level of the epidermis. Which of the following is the most likely cause of this patient's blistering?
Q244
A 61-year-old man comes to the physician because of progressively worsening swelling of his ankles. He says he has felt exhausted lately. Over the past 3 months, he has gained 5 kg. He has smoked one pack of cigarettes daily for 30 years. His pulse is 75/min and his blood pressure is 140/90 mmHg. Examination shows 2+ pitting edema in the lower extremities. Neurologic exam shows diminished two-point discrimination in the fingers and toes. A urine sample is noted to be foamy. Laboratory studies show a hemoglobin A1c of 7.9% and creatinine of 1.9 mg/dL. A biopsy specimen of the kidney is most likely to show which of the following?
Q245
A 54-year-old man comes to the physician because of a cough with blood-tinged sputum for 1 week. He also reports fever and a 5-kg (11 lb) weight loss during the past 2 months. Over the past year, he has had 4 episodes of sinusitis. Physical examination shows palpable nonblanching skin lesions over the hands and feet. Examination of the nasal cavity shows ulceration of the nasopharyngeal mucosa and a depressed nasal bridge. Oral examination shows a painful erythematous gingival enlargement that bleeds easily on contact. Which of the following is the most likely cause of the patient's symptoms?
Q246
A 3-year-old boy is brought to the physician by his parents for a well-child examination. The boy was born at term via vaginal delivery and has been healthy except for impaired vision due to severe short-sightedness. He is at the 97th percentile for height and 25th percentile for weight. Oral examination shows a high-arched palate. He has abnormally long, slender fingers and toes, and his finger joints are hyperflexible. The patient is asked to place his thumbs in the palms of the same hand and then clench to form a fist. The thumbs are noted to protrude beyond the ulnar border of the hand. Slit lamp examination shows lens subluxation in the superotemporal direction bilaterally. Which of the following is the most likely underlying cause of this patient's condition?
Q247
A 20-month-old boy is brought to the emergency department by his parents with fever and diarrhea that have persisted for the past 2 days. He has a history of repeated bouts of diarrhea, upper respiratory tract infections, and failure to thrive. His vital signs are as follows: blood pressure 80/40 mm Hg, pulse 130/min, temperature 39.0°C (102.2°F), and respiratory rate 30/min. Blood tests are suggestive of lymphopenia. The child is diagnosed with severe combined immune deficiency after additional testing. Which of the following is the most common association with this type of immunodeficiency?
Q248
A 49-year-old woman is brought to the emergency department by her daughter because of increasing arthralgia, headache, and somnolence for the past week. She has a history of systemic lupus erythematosus without vital organ involvement. She last received low-dose glucocorticoids 2 months ago. Her temperature is 38.6 °C (101.5 °F), pulse is 80/min, respirations are 21/min, and blood pressure is 129/80 mm Hg. She is confused and disoriented. Examination shows scleral icterus and ecchymoses over the trunk and legs. Neurological examination is otherwise within normal limits. Laboratory studies show:
Hemoglobin 8.7 g/dL
Leukocyte count 6,200/mm3
Platelet count 25,000/mm3
Prothrombin time 15 seconds
Partial thromboplastin time 39 seconds
Fibrin split products negative
Serum
Bilirubin
Total 4.9 mg/dL
Direct 0.5 mg/dL
A blood smear shows numerous fragmented red blood cells. Urinalysis shows hematuria and proteinuria. Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?
Q249
An investigator studying disorders of hemostasis performs gene expression profiling in a family with a specific type of bleeding disorder. These patients were found to have abnormally large von Willebrand factor (vWF) multimers in their blood. Genetic analysis shows that the underlying cause is a mutation in the ADAMTS13 gene. This mutation results in a deficiency of the encoded metalloprotease, which is responsible for cleavage of vWF. Which of the following additional laboratory findings is most likely in these patients?
Q250
A 32-year-old man presents with a 2-month history of increasing lethargy, frequent upper respiratory tract infections, and easy bruising. Past medical history is unremarkable. The patient reports a 14-pack-year smoking history and says he drinks alcohol socially. No significant family history. His vital signs include: temperature 36.8°C (98.2°F), blood pressure 132/91 mm Hg and pulse 95/min. Physical examination reveals conjunctival pallor and scattered ecchymoses on the lower extremities. Laboratory results are significant for the following:
Hemoglobin 8.2 g/dL
Leukocyte count 2,200/mm3
Platelet count 88,000/mm3
Reticulocyte count 0.5%
A bone marrow biopsy is performed, which demonstrates hypocellularity with no abnormal cell population. Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis in this patient?
Systemic Pathology US Medical PG Practice Questions and MCQs
Question 241: A 27-year-old woman presents to the emergency department complaining of a left-sided headache and right-sided blurry vision. She states that 2 weeks ago she developed dark urine and abdominal pain. She thought it was a urinary tract infection so she took trimethoprim-sulfamethoxazole that she had left over. She planned on going to her primary care physician today but then she developed headache and blurry vision so she came to the emergency department. The patient states she is otherwise healthy. Her family history is significant for a brother with sickle cell trait. On physical examination, there is mild abdominal tenderness, and the liver edge is felt 4 cm below the right costal margin. Labs are drawn as below:
Hemoglobin: 7.0 g/dL
Platelets: 149,000/mm^3
Reticulocyte count: 5.4%
Lactate dehydrogenase: 3128 U/L
Total bilirubin: 2.1 mg/dL
Indirect bilirubin: 1.4 mg/dL
Aspartate aminotransferase: 78 U/L
Alanine aminotransferase: 64 U/L
A peripheral smear shows polychromasia. A Doppler ultrasound of the liver shows decreased flow in the right hepatic vein. Magnetic resonance imaging of the brain is pending. Which of the following tests, if performed, would most likely identify the patient’s diagnosis?
A. Flow cytometry (Correct Answer)
B. Glucose-6-phosphate-dehydrogenase levels
C. Anti-histone antibodies
D. Bone marrow biopsy
E. Hemoglobin electrophoresis
Explanation: ***Flow cytometry***
- The patient's symptoms (headache, blurry vision, dark urine, abdominal pain, hepatomegaly) along with laboratory findings of **hemolytic anemia** (low hemoglobin, elevated reticulocyte count, high LDH, elevated indirect bilirubin) and signs of **thrombosis** (decreased hepatic vein flow, neurological symptoms) are highly suggestive of **paroxysmal nocturnal hemoglobinuria (PNH)**.
- **Flow cytometry** is the gold standard for diagnosing PNH by detecting the absence of **CD55** and **CD59** on red blood cells, granulocytes, and monocytes, indicating a deficiency in the **GPI anchor protein**.
*Glucose-6-phosphate-dehydrogenase levels*
- **G6PD deficiency** typically presents with hemolytic anemia triggered by **oxidant stressors** (like trimethoprim-sulfamethoxazole) but does not typically cause **thrombosis** or widespread organ involvement (e.g., hepatic vein thrombosis, neurological symptoms) as seen in this patient.
- Measuring G6PD levels would be appropriate if G6PD deficiency was suspected, but the clinical picture points more strongly to PNH due to the thrombotic events.
*Anti-histone antibodies*
- **Anti-histone antibodies** are primarily associated with drug-induced **lupus erythematosus**, which can manifest with various systemic symptoms, but not typically with severe hemolytic anemia and thrombotic microangiopathy in this specific pattern.
- While drug exposure is present (trimethoprim-sulfamethoxazole), the overall clinical and lab findings (especially the severe hemolytic picture and thrombosis) are not characteristic of drug-induced lupus in this context.
*Bone marrow biopsy*
- A **bone marrow biopsy** might show findings consistent with increased erythropoiesis due to hemolysis but is not a primary diagnostic test for PNH or its associated thrombotic complications.
- While it could be part of an evaluation for underlying bone marrow disorders, it would not directly confirm a diagnosis of PNH, which requires specific surface marker detection.
*Hemoglobin electrophoresis*
- **Hemoglobin electrophoresis** is used to diagnose **hemoglobinopathies** such as **sickle cell disease** or **thalassemia**. The patient's brother has sickle cell trait, but the patient's symptoms, particularly the prominent hemolytic anemia and thrombotic events, are not typical of a hemoglobinopathy in this acute presentation.
- While it could rule out a hemoglobinopathy, it wouldn't explain the full spectrum of symptoms, especially the thrombosis and the specific pattern of hemolysis (e.g., elevated LDH, indirect bilirubin).
Question 242: A 3080-g (6-lb 13-oz) male newborn is delivered at term to a 27-year-old woman, gravida 2, para 1. Pregnancy was uncomplicated. He appears pale. His temperature is 36.8°C (98.2°F), pulse is 167/min, and respirations are 56/min. Examination shows jaundice of the skin and conjunctivae. The liver is palpated 2–3 cm below the right costal margin, and the spleen is palpated 1–2 cm below the left costal margin. The lungs are clear to auscultation. No murmurs are heard. His hemoglobin concentration is 10.6 g/dL and mean corpuscular volume is 73 μm3. Hemoglobin DNA testing shows 3 missing alleles. Which of the following laboratory findings is most likely present in this patient?
A. Increased hemoglobin Barts concentration (Correct Answer)
B. Elevated HbA2
C. Low reticulocyte count
D. Low serum ferritin
E. Elevated HbF
Explanation: **Increased hemoglobin Barts concentration**
- The clinical presentation with **pallor**, **jaundice**, hepatosplenomegaly, and **microcytic anemia** (Hb 10.6 g/dL, MCV 73 fL) in a newborn, along with **3 missing alpha globin alleles** (Genomic DNA testing shows 3 missing alleles for the alpha-globin gene indicating alpha-thalassemia intermedia), is highly suggestive of **HbH disease**, a form of alpha-thalassemia.
- **Hemoglobin Barts** (γ4) is typically seen in fetuses and newborns with severe alpha-thalassemia, particularly **hydrops fetalis (4-gene deletion)**, but can also be present in HbH disease (3-gene deletion) due to the presence of excess gamma chains that cannot form HbF and instead form gamma tetramers (Hb Barts).
*Elevated HbA2*
- **Elevated HbA2** is characteristic of **beta-thalassemia minor**, not alpha-thalassemia, as increased quantities of delta chains (δ) compensate for reduced beta globin production.
- In alpha-thalassemia, the primary issue is reduced alpha globin chains, and HbA2 levels are typically normal or even low.
*Low reticulocyte count*
- A low reticulocyte count would indicate **hypoproliferative anemia**, where the bone marrow is not producing enough red blood cells.
- In hemolytic conditions like **alpha-thalassemia**, the bone marrow attempts to compensate for red blood cell destruction, leading to an **elevated reticulocyte count** due to increased erythropoiesis.
*Low serum ferritin*
- Low serum ferritin is a hallmark of **iron deficiency anemia**.
- While alpha-thalassemia is a microcytic anemia, the underlying pathology is a **globin chain imbalance** rather than iron deficiency; iron stores are typically normal or even elevated due to ineffective erythropoiesis and repeated transfusions.
*Elevated HbF*
- **Elevated HbF** (fetal hemoglobin, α2γ2) can be seen in some conditions like **beta-thalassemia** (as a compensatory mechanism) or hereditary persistence of fetal hemoglobin.
- In alpha-thalassemia, the problem is with alpha-globin chain synthesis, which is required for both HbA and HbF; thus, HbF levels are usually not significantly elevated and may even be lower than expected relative to healthy newborns if the alpha chain deficiency is severe.
Question 243: A 61-year-old man presents to the emergency department because he has developed blisters at multiple locations on his body. He says that the blisters appeared several days ago after a day of hiking in the mountains with his colleagues. When asked about potential triggering events, he says that he recently had an infection and was treated with antibiotics but he cannot recall the name of the drug that he took. In addition, he accidentally confused his medication with one of his wife's blood thinner pills several days before the blisters appeared. On examination, the blisters are flesh-colored, raised, and widespread on his skin but do not involve his mucosal surfaces. The blisters are tense to palpation and do not separate with rubbing. Pathology of the vesicles show that they continue under the level of the epidermis. Which of the following is the most likely cause of this patient's blistering?
A. Depletion of protein C and protein S levels
B. Antibodies to proteins connecting two sets of intermediate filaments
C. Necrosis of skin in reaction to a drug
D. Antibodies to proteins connecting intermediate filaments to type IV collagen (Correct Answer)
E. Infection with an enveloped dsDNA virus
Explanation: ***Antibodies to proteins connecting intermediate filaments to type IV collagen***
- The patient's presentation of **tense blisters** that do not separate with rubbing (negative Nikolsky sign), **widespread distribution** on skin surfaces without **mucosal involvement**, and **subepidermal blistering** on pathology is classic for **bullous pemphigoid**.
- **Bullous pemphigoid** is caused by autoantibodies targeting hemidesmosomal proteins, specifically BP180 (type XVII collagen) and BP230, which connect **intermediate filaments to the basal lamina (containing type IV collagen)**.
*Depletion of protein C and protein S levels*
- This scenario describes **warfarin-induced skin necrosis**, which typically presents as painful, erythematous plaques that rapidly progress to **hemorrhagic bullae and necrosis**.
- While the patient might have inadvertently taken a blood thinner, the clinical presentation of widespread **tense, non-hemorrhagic blisters** is inconsistent with warfarin-induced skin necrosis.
*Antibodies to proteins connecting two sets of intermediate filaments*
- This describes the pathophysiology of **pemphigus vulgaris**, where autoantibodies target **desmogleins** (desmosomal proteins that connect keratinocytes via intermediate filaments).
- Pemphigus vulgaris typically presents with **flaccid blisters** that are easily ruptured, readily separate with rubbing (**positive Nikolsky sign**), and commonly involve **mucosal surfaces**, which contradicts this patient's findings.
*Necrosis of skin in reaction to a drug*
- While drug reactions can cause blistering conditions like **Stevens-Johnson Syndrome (SJS)** or **Toxic Epidermal Necrolysis (TEN)**, these conditions typically involve **widespread epidermal necrosis**, mucosal involvement, and often present with a **positive Nikolsky sign** and targetoid lesions for SJS.
- The description of **tense blisters** and **subepidermal cleavage** without significant epidermal necrosis makes SJS/TEN less likely.
*Infection with a enveloped dsDNA virus*
- This likely refers to **herpes simplex virus (HSV)** or **varicella-zoster virus (VZV)** infections, which cause vesicular eruptions.
- Viral blisters are typically **grouped vesicles on an erythematous base** (e.g., herpes zoster), often painful, and **rarely widespread tense bullae** as described in this patient.
Question 244: A 61-year-old man comes to the physician because of progressively worsening swelling of his ankles. He says he has felt exhausted lately. Over the past 3 months, he has gained 5 kg. He has smoked one pack of cigarettes daily for 30 years. His pulse is 75/min and his blood pressure is 140/90 mmHg. Examination shows 2+ pitting edema in the lower extremities. Neurologic exam shows diminished two-point discrimination in the fingers and toes. A urine sample is noted to be foamy. Laboratory studies show a hemoglobin A1c of 7.9% and creatinine of 1.9 mg/dL. A biopsy specimen of the kidney is most likely to show which of the following?
A. Nodular glomerulosclerosis (Correct Answer)
B. Wire looping of capillaries
C. Immune complex deposition
D. Split glomerular basement membrane
E. Interstitial inflammation
Explanation: ***Nodular glomerulosclerosis***
- The patient's history of **elevated HbA1c (7.9%)**, **pitting edema**, **foamy urine**, and **elevated creatinine (1.9 mg/dL)** strongly indicates **diabetic nephropathy**. Nodular glomerulosclerosis (**Kimmelstiel-Wilson lesions**) is a characteristic pathological finding in advanced diabetic nephropathy.
- The **diminished two-point discrimination** also points to **peripheral neuropathy**, a common complication of diabetes, further supporting the diagnosis of diabetes-related end-organ damage.
*Wire looping of capillaries*
- **Wire looping** of capillaries, along with **subendothelial immune complex deposits**, is characteristic of **diffuse proliferative glomerulonephritis**, often associated with **lupus nephritis (Class III or IV)**.
- While this patient has renal involvement, the clinical picture (diabetes, neuropathy) does not suggest a systemic autoimmune disease like lupus.
*Immune complex deposition*
- **Immune complex deposition** is a general feature of many forms of **glomerulonephritis**, including post-infectious glomerulonephritis or lupus nephritis.
- However, the specific clinical context of uncontrolled diabetes makes **diabetic nephropathy** the most likely cause, which is primarily a metabolic rather than immune-mediated injury.
*Split glomerular basement membrane*
- A **split glomerular basement membrane** (often described as duplication or tram-track appearance) is characteristic of **membranoproliferative glomerulonephritis (MPGN)** types I and II.
- This finding is not typically associated with diabetic nephropathy, which involves thickening of the basement membrane and mesangial expansion but not splitting.
*Interstitial inflammation*
- **Interstitial inflammation** is a prominent feature of **interstitial nephritis**, often caused by drug reactions (e.g., NSAIDs, antibiotics) or certain systemic diseases.
- While renal damage in diabetes can lead to some interstitial fibrosis and inflammation, it is not the primary histological hallmark, and the prominent glomerular changes are more specific.
Question 245: A 54-year-old man comes to the physician because of a cough with blood-tinged sputum for 1 week. He also reports fever and a 5-kg (11 lb) weight loss during the past 2 months. Over the past year, he has had 4 episodes of sinusitis. Physical examination shows palpable nonblanching skin lesions over the hands and feet. Examination of the nasal cavity shows ulceration of the nasopharyngeal mucosa and a depressed nasal bridge. Oral examination shows a painful erythematous gingival enlargement that bleeds easily on contact. Which of the following is the most likely cause of the patient's symptoms?
A. Metalloprotease enzyme deficiency
B. Malignant myeloid cell proliferation
C. Arteriovenous malformation
D. Immune complex deposition
E. Neutrophil-mediated damage (Correct Answer)
Explanation: ***Neutrophil-mediated damage***
- The constellation of **sinusitis**, **pulmonary symptoms** (cough with blood-tinged sputum), **renal involvement** (indicated by systemic symptoms and often associated with microhematuria in this condition), and **skin lesions (palpable purpura)**, along with **nasal ulceration**, a **depressed nasal bridge**, and **gingival enlargement**, is highly characteristic of **Granulomatosis with Polyangiitis (GPA)**.
- GPA is an **ANCA-associated vasculitis** characterized by **necrotizing granulomatous inflammation** and **vasculitis** of small to medium-sized vessels, primarily driven by **neutrophil activation** and subsequent tissue damage.
*Metalloprotease enzyme deficiency*
- This description commonly refers to conditions like **alpha-1 antitrypsin deficiency**, which primarily causes **emphysema** and liver disease, not the widespread vasculitic manifestations seen here.
- It does not explain the diverse multi-organ involvement including skin, ENT, and likely renal symptoms.
*Malignant myeloid cell proliferation*
- This would suggest conditions like **leukemia** or **myelodysplastic syndromes**, which present with altered blood counts, fatigue, infections, and bleeding, but typically not this specific pattern of vasculitis and granulomatous inflammation.
- While constitutional symptoms like weight loss can occur, the localized findings like depressed nasal bridge and gingival enlargement are not characteristic.
*Arteriovenous malformation*
- An **arteriovenous malformation (AVM)** is an abnormal connection between arteries and veins; depending on its location, it can cause bleeding (e.g., hemoptysis if pulmonary) or neurological symptoms if cerebral.
- However, AVMs do not explain the systemic inflammatory symptoms, skin lesions, sinusitis, depressed nasal bridge, or gingival changes.
*Immune complex deposition*
- **Immune complex vasculitis** (e.g., IgA vasculitis, cryoglobulinemic vasculitis) often presents with palpable purpura and can affect kidneys and GI tract.
- However, the prominent **granulomatous inflammation** causing **nasal ulceration** and **depressed nasal bridge**, and the specific type of **pulmonary-renal syndrome** seen in GPA, are more indicative of **ANCA-mediated neutrophil damage** rather than immune complex deposition.
Question 246: A 3-year-old boy is brought to the physician by his parents for a well-child examination. The boy was born at term via vaginal delivery and has been healthy except for impaired vision due to severe short-sightedness. He is at the 97th percentile for height and 25th percentile for weight. Oral examination shows a high-arched palate. He has abnormally long, slender fingers and toes, and his finger joints are hyperflexible. The patient is asked to place his thumbs in the palms of the same hand and then clench to form a fist. The thumbs are noted to protrude beyond the ulnar border of the hand. Slit lamp examination shows lens subluxation in the superotemporal direction bilaterally. Which of the following is the most likely underlying cause of this patient's condition?
A. Nondisjunction of sex chromosomes
B. Mutation in fibrillin-1 gene (Correct Answer)
C. Defective collagen cross-linking
D. Mutation in RET gene
E. Mutation of the FMR1 gene
Explanation: **Mutation in fibrillin-1 gene**
- The patient's presentation with **tall stature**, **long slender fingers and toes (arachnodactyly)**, **hyperflexible joints**, **high-arched palate**, and **lens subluxation** (especially superotemporal) are classic features of **Marfan syndrome**.
- **Marfan syndrome** is an autosomal dominant disorder caused by a mutation in the **FBN1 gene**, which codes for **fibrillin-1**, a glycoprotein essential for the formation of elastic fibers in connective tissue.
*Nondisjunction of sex chromosomes*
- **Nondisjunction of sex chromosomes** can lead to conditions like Klinefelter syndrome (XXY) or Turner syndrome (XO), which present with distinct symptom complexes, such as infertility, developmental delay, or specific dysmorphic features.
- These conditions do not typically cause the combination of skeletal, ocular, and cardiovascular abnormalities seen in this patient, especially the tall stature, arachnodactyly, and lens subluxation.
*Defective collagen cross-linking*
- **Defective collagen cross-linking** is characteristic of **Ehlers-Danlos syndromes**, which primarily manifest as extremely hypermobile joints, skin hyperelasticity, and potential vascular fragility.
- While there is some overlap with joint hyperflexibility, the overall clinical picture including tall stature, arachnodactyly, and lens subluxation is not typical for Ehlers-Danlos syndromes.
*Mutation in RET gene*
- A **mutation in the RET gene** is associated with conditions like **Multiple Endocrine Neoplasia type 2 (MEN2)** or **Hirschsprung disease**.
- These disorders involve endocrine tumors or gastrointestinal motility issues, which are unrelated to the skeletal and ocular features observed in this patient.
*Mutation of the FMR1 gene*
- A **mutation of the FMR1 gene** causes **fragile X syndrome**, an X-linked dominant disorder characterized by intellectual disability, behavioral problems (e.g., autism spectrum features), and distinct physical features such as a long face, large ears, and macroorchidism in males.
- The symptoms presented by the patient, particularly the connective tissue abnormalities and tall stature, are not consistent with fragile X syndrome.
Question 247: A 20-month-old boy is brought to the emergency department by his parents with fever and diarrhea that have persisted for the past 2 days. He has a history of repeated bouts of diarrhea, upper respiratory tract infections, and failure to thrive. His vital signs are as follows: blood pressure 80/40 mm Hg, pulse 130/min, temperature 39.0°C (102.2°F), and respiratory rate 30/min. Blood tests are suggestive of lymphopenia. The child is diagnosed with severe combined immune deficiency after additional testing. Which of the following is the most common association with this type of immunodeficiency?
A. Janus-associated kinase 3 (JAK3) deficiency
B. Adenosine deaminase deficiency
C. Bare lymphocyte syndrome
D. Reticular dysgenesis
E. X-linked severe combined immunodeficiency (Correct Answer)
Explanation: ***X-linked severe combined immunodeficiency***
- **X-linked immunodeficiency** is the most common form of SCID, accounting for about **50% of all cases**.
- It results from mutations in the **IL2RG gene**, leading to defective cytokine signaling and impaired T-cell and natural killer cell development.
*Janus-associated kinase 3 (JAK3) deficiency*
- **JAK3 deficiency** results in a SCID phenotype that is clinically indistinguishable from **X-linked SCID**.
- While it is a cause of SCID, it is **less common** than the X-linked form.
*Adenosine deaminase deficiency*
- **Adenosine deaminase (ADA) deficiency** is the second most common cause of SCID, accounting for about **15% of cases**.
- It leads to the accumulation of toxic metabolites that impair lymphocyte development and function.
*Bare lymphocyte syndrome*
- **Bare lymphocyte syndrome (BLS)** is a rare group of genetic disorders affecting **MHC class I** or **MHC class II molecule** expression.
- Type 2 BLS, affecting MHC class II, can present as SCID but is significantly less common than X-linked SCID.
*Reticular dysgenesis*
- **Reticular dysgenesis** is the most severe form of SCID, characterized by a complete absence of **lymphocytes and myeloid cells**, including neutrophils.
- It is an extremely rare condition, often leading to death in infancy, and is much less common than X-linked SCID.
Question 248: A 49-year-old woman is brought to the emergency department by her daughter because of increasing arthralgia, headache, and somnolence for the past week. She has a history of systemic lupus erythematosus without vital organ involvement. She last received low-dose glucocorticoids 2 months ago. Her temperature is 38.6 °C (101.5 °F), pulse is 80/min, respirations are 21/min, and blood pressure is 129/80 mm Hg. She is confused and disoriented. Examination shows scleral icterus and ecchymoses over the trunk and legs. Neurological examination is otherwise within normal limits. Laboratory studies show:
Hemoglobin 8.7 g/dL
Leukocyte count 6,200/mm3
Platelet count 25,000/mm3
Prothrombin time 15 seconds
Partial thromboplastin time 39 seconds
Fibrin split products negative
Serum
Bilirubin
Total 4.9 mg/dL
Direct 0.5 mg/dL
A blood smear shows numerous fragmented red blood cells. Urinalysis shows hematuria and proteinuria. Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?
A. Glanzmann thrombasthenia
B. Disseminated intravascular coagulation
C. Immune thrombocytopenic purpura
D. Hemolytic uremic syndrome
E. Thrombotic thrombocytopenic purpura (Correct Answer)
Explanation: ***Thrombotic thrombocytopenic purpura***
- This patient presents with the classic pentad of **thrombotic thrombocytopenic purpura (TTP)**: **fever**, **neurological symptoms** (confusion, disorientation, somnolence), **renal impairment** (hematuria, proteinuria), **thrombocytopenia** (platelet count 25,000/mm3, ecchymoses), and **microangiopathic hemolytic anemia** (hemoglobin 8.7 g/dL, elevated total bilirubin with indirect predominance, fragmented red blood cells on blood smear, scleral icterus).
- The history of **systemic lupus erythematosus (SLE)** is a risk factor for TTP, as SLE can induce autoantibodies against **ADAMTS13**, the enzyme responsible for cleaving von Willebrand factor.
*Glanzmann thrombasthenia*
- This is an **autosomal recessive disorder** characterized by a defect in **platelet aggregation** due to a deficiency or dysfunction of the **glycoprotein IIb/IIIa receptor**.
- While it causes bleeding, it does not typically present with the multi-organ damage, microangiopathic hemolytic anemia, or neurological symptoms seen in this patient.
*Disseminated intravascular coagulation*
- **DIC** is characterized by widespread activation of the clotting cascade, leading to both **thrombosis** and **hemorrhage**, consumptive coagulopathy, and **microangiopathic hemolytic anemia**.
- However, in DIC, you would expect to see **markedly prolonged PT and PTT**, **decreased fibrinogen**, and **positive fibrin split products/D-dimers**. This patient has only mildly prolonged PT (15 sec) and PTT (39 sec) with **negative fibrin split products**, indicating that coagulation factors are relatively preserved, which is typical of TTP rather than DIC.
*Immune thrombocytopenic purpura*
- **ITP** is an autoimmune condition resulting in isolated **thrombocytopenia** due to increased destruction of platelets and impaired platelet production.
- While it explains the low platelet count and ecchymoses, it does **not explain the microangiopathic hemolytic anemia**, **renal involvement**, **fever**, or **neurological symptoms** seen in this case.
*Hemolytic uremic syndrome*
- **Hemolytic uremic syndrome (HUS)** shares features with TTP, including **microangiopathic hemolytic anemia**, **thrombocytopenia**, and **acute kidney injury**.
- However, HUS typically presents with more prominent **renal failure** and is often preceded by **diarrhea** (especially in children) due to Shiga toxin-producing E. coli, and **neurological symptoms are less common and less severe** than in TTP. The patient's prominent neurological symptoms make TTP more likely.
Question 249: An investigator studying disorders of hemostasis performs gene expression profiling in a family with a specific type of bleeding disorder. These patients were found to have abnormally large von Willebrand factor (vWF) multimers in their blood. Genetic analysis shows that the underlying cause is a mutation in the ADAMTS13 gene. This mutation results in a deficiency of the encoded metalloprotease, which is responsible for cleavage of vWF. Which of the following additional laboratory findings is most likely in these patients?
A. Prolonged partial thromboplastin time
B. Elevated haptoglobin
C. Urinary red blood cell casts
D. Elevated platelet count
E. Fragmented erythrocytes (Correct Answer)
Explanation: ***Fragmented erythrocytes***
- This condition is **Thrombotic Thrombocytopenic Purpura (TTP)**, characterized by a deficiency in **ADAMTS13**, leading to uncleaved vWF multimers. These large multimers spontaneously bind platelets, forming microthrombi that shear **red blood cells**, creating **schistocytes** (fragmented erythrocytes), a hallmark of microangiopathic hemolytic anemia.
- The shearing of red blood cells by microthrombi in small vessels is the direct cause of **microangiopathic hemolytic anemia**, which is a key component of the TTP pentad.
*Prolonged partial thromboplastin time*
- **PTT** measures the intrinsic and common coagulation pathways and is typically normal in TTP because the coagulation cascade itself is not directly affected.
- While there is platelet consumption, it does not typically prolong PTT unless severe factor deficiencies are also present, which is not the primary issue in TTP.
*Elevated haptoglobin*
- **Haptoglobin** binds free hemoglobin released during red blood cell destruction. In hemolytic conditions like TTP, haptoglobin levels would be **decreased** as it is consumed.
- Therefore, an elevated haptoglobin level would indicate a lack of significant intravascular hemolysis, which contradicts the expected findings in TTP.
*Urinary red blood cell casts*
- **Red blood cell casts** indicate **glomerulonephritis** or severe renal injury, where red blood cells leak into the renal tubules and are molded into casts.
- While TTP can cause renal dysfunction due to microthrombi in glomeruli, the primary finding is often **proteinuria** and elevated creatinine, not typically RBC casts, which are more specific to inflammatory glomerular diseases.
*Elevated platelet count*
- TTP is characterized by **thrombocytopenia** (low platelet count) due to the consumption of platelets in the formation of microthrombi.
- An elevated platelet count would contradict the fundamental pathophysiology of TTP, where platelets are rapidly being consumed.
Question 250: A 32-year-old man presents with a 2-month history of increasing lethargy, frequent upper respiratory tract infections, and easy bruising. Past medical history is unremarkable. The patient reports a 14-pack-year smoking history and says he drinks alcohol socially. No significant family history. His vital signs include: temperature 36.8°C (98.2°F), blood pressure 132/91 mm Hg and pulse 95/min. Physical examination reveals conjunctival pallor and scattered ecchymoses on the lower extremities. Laboratory results are significant for the following:
Hemoglobin 8.2 g/dL
Leukocyte count 2,200/mm3
Platelet count 88,000/mm3
Reticulocyte count 0.5%
A bone marrow biopsy is performed, which demonstrates hypocellularity with no abnormal cell population. Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis in this patient?
A. Infectious mononucleosis
B. Aplastic anemia (Correct Answer)
C. Drug-induced immune pancytopenia
D. Myelodysplastic syndrome
E. Acute lymphocytic leukemia
Explanation: ***Aplastic anemia***
- This condition is characterized by **pancytopenia** (anemia, leukopenia, and thrombocytopenia) along with a **hypocellular bone marrow** without abnormal cells.
- The patient's symptoms of **lethargy**, frequent **infections**, and **easy bruising** are consistent with bone marrow failure affecting all hematopoietic cell lines.
*Infectious mononucleosis*
- Typically presents with **lymphadenopathy**, **splenomegaly**, and atypical lymphocytes on the peripheral smear, none of which are noted here.
- While it can cause some cytopenias, it usually does not lead to severe **pancytopenia** and **hypocellular marrow** as seen in this patient.
*Drug-induced immune pancytopenia*
- This would require a history of **medication use** known to cause bone marrow suppression or immune-mediated destruction, which is not mentioned.
- The mechanism usually involves drug-induced immune destruction or toxicity, but a primary diagnosis of aplastic anemia is more fitting given the bone marrow findings in the absence of a clear drug trigger.
*Myelodysplastic syndrome*
- Characterized by **dysplastic changes** in one or more myeloid cell lines and often an **increased cellularity** or specific cytogenetic abnormalities in the bone marrow.
- Although it can cause pancytopenia, the **hypocellular bone marrow with no abnormal cells** makes it less likely than aplastic anemia.
*Acute lymphocytic leukemia*
- Presents with a significant increase in **lymphoblasts** in the bone marrow (typically >20%), which is not present in this patient's biopsy showing **hypocellularity with no abnormal cell population**.
- While it can cause cytopenias due to marrow crowding, the key feature of a highly cellular marrow with blasts is absent.