A 9-year-old boy is brought to the emergency room by his mother. She is concerned because her son’s face has been swollen over the past 2 days. Upon further questioning, the boy reports having darker urine without dysuria. The boy was seen by his pediatrician 10 days prior to presentation with a crusty yellow sore on his right upper lip that has since resolved. His medical history is notable for juvenile idiopathic arthritis. His temperature is 99°F (37.2°C), blood pressure is 140/90 mmHg, pulse is 95/min, and respirations are 18/min. On exam, he has mild periorbital edema. Serological findings are shown below:
C2: Normal
C3: Decreased
C4: Normal
CH50: Decreased
Additional workup is pending. This patient most likely has a condition caused by which of the following?
Q232
A 38-year-old man presents to the outpatient clinic for an annual employee health checkup. He does not have any complaints at the moment except for skin changes, as seen in the following image. He denies any history of trauma. His medical history is insignificant. His family history is negative for any skin disorders or autoimmune disease. He is a non-smoker and does not drink alcohol. Which of the following is the most likely mechanism for this presentation?
Q233
A young Caucasian couple in their late twenties present for an infertility evaluation after trying to conceive over 2 years. On physical exam, the female appears healthy and states that she has regular menstrual cycles. The male partner is noted to have long extremities with wide hips, low muscle mass, gynecomastia, sparse facial or chest hair, and small, firm testes. Laboratory tests of the male partner reveal elevated serum LH and FSH and low testosterone levels. If cytogenetic tests were performed, which of the following would be seen in this male?
Q234
A 10-year-old boy is presented to the hospital for a kidney transplant. In the operating room, the surgeon connects an allograft kidney renal artery to the aorta, and after a few moments, the kidney becomes cyanotic, edematous, and dusky with mottling. Which of the following in the recipient’s serum is responsible for this rejection?
Q235
A 21-year-old male presents to your office with hematuria 3 days after the onset of a productive cough and fever. Following renal biopsy, immunofluorescence shows granular IgA deposits in the glomerular mesangium. Which of the following do you suspect in this patient?
Q236
A 42-year-old woman is brought to the emergency department because of two episodes of hemoptysis over the past 24 hours. The patient has a 6-month history of severe sinusitis and bloody nasal discharge. Her vital parameters are as follows: blood pressure, 155/75 mm Hg; pulse, 75/min; respiratory rate, 14/min; and temperature, 37.9°C (100.2°F). Examination reveals red conjunctiva, and an ulcer on the nasal septum. Pulmonary auscultation indicates diffuse rhonchi. Cardiac and abdominal examinations reveal no abnormalities. Laboratory studies show:
Urine
Blood 3+
Protein 2+
RBC 10-15/hpf with dysmorphic features
RBC cast numerous
Based on these findings, this patient is most likely to carry which of the following antibodies?
Q237
A 32-year-old woman comes to the physician because of a 1-week history of left flank pain and dysuria. She has had 2 episodes of urinary tract infection over the past 2 years. Her temperature is 37°C (98.6°F) and pulse is 82/min. An ultrasound of the kidneys shows left-sided hydronephrosis and echogenic foci with acoustic shadowing. A photomicrograph of the urine is shown. The crystals observed are most likely composed of which of the following?
Q238
A 10-year-old boy comes to the physician because of a 4-month history of intermittent red urine. During the past 2 years, he has had recurrent episodes of swelling of his face and feet. Five years ago, he was diagnosed with mild bilateral sensorineural hearing loss. His uncle died of kidney disease in his twenties. His blood pressure is 145/85 mm Hg. Laboratory studies show a hemoglobin concentration of 12.5 g/dL, urea nitrogen concentration of 40 mg/dL, and creatinine concentration of 2.4 mg/dL. Urinalysis shows 5–7 RBC/hpf. Which of the following is the most likely underlying cause of this patient's symptoms?
Q239
A 45-year-old male immigrant with rheumatoid arthritis comes to the physician because of severe pain and swelling in both his knees. He also reports an unintentional weight loss of around 10 kg over 3 months and episodic abdominal pain, varying in intensity and location. He has been having loose stools with no blood, 2–3 times a day for 1 month. He denies fever, night sweats, cough, or shortness of breath. Current medications include methotrexate, naproxen, and folic acid. His weight is 68 kg (150 lbs), temperature is 37.4°C (99.3°F), pulse is 90/min, and blood pressure is 130/80 mm Hg. Examination shows pale conjunctivae, cheilitis, and hyperpigmentation of the skin around his neck. Generalized lymphadenopathy is present. Examination of the knee joints shows bilateral warmth, erythema, swelling, tenderness, and limited range of motion. A grade 2/6 early diastolic murmur is heard over the right second intercostal space and an S3 is heard. Abdominal examination shows no abnormalities. Laboratory studies show:
Hemoglobin 9.1 g/dL
Leukocyte count 3800/mm3
Platelet count 140,000/mm3
Mean corpuscular volume 67 μm3
Erythrocyte sedimentation rate 62 mm/h
Serum
Glucose 100 mg/dL
Creatinine 0.7 mg/dL
TIBC 500 mcg/dL
Ferritin 10 mcg/dL
Rheumatoid factor negative
Anti -CCP negative
An esophagogastroduodenoscopy is ordered. A biopsy specimen of the duodenum is likely to show which of the following?
Q240
A 25-year-old man of Mediterranean descent makes an appointment with his physician because his skin and sclera have become yellow. He complains of fatigue and fever that started at the same time icterus appeared. On examination, he is tachycardic and tachypneic. The oxygen (O2) saturation is < 90%. He has increased unconjugated bilirubin, hemoglobinemia, and an increased number of reticulocytes in the peripheral blood. What is the most likely diagnosis?
Systemic Pathology US Medical PG Practice Questions and MCQs
Question 231: A 9-year-old boy is brought to the emergency room by his mother. She is concerned because her son’s face has been swollen over the past 2 days. Upon further questioning, the boy reports having darker urine without dysuria. The boy was seen by his pediatrician 10 days prior to presentation with a crusty yellow sore on his right upper lip that has since resolved. His medical history is notable for juvenile idiopathic arthritis. His temperature is 99°F (37.2°C), blood pressure is 140/90 mmHg, pulse is 95/min, and respirations are 18/min. On exam, he has mild periorbital edema. Serological findings are shown below:
C2: Normal
C3: Decreased
C4: Normal
CH50: Decreased
Additional workup is pending. This patient most likely has a condition caused by which of the following?
A. Antigen-antibody complex deposition (Correct Answer)
B. Effector T cell sensitization and activation
C. IgE-mediated complement activation
D. IgM-mediated complement activation targeting antigens on the cellular surface
E. IgG-mediated complement activation targeting antigens on the cellular surface
Explanation: ***Antigen-antibody complex deposition***
- The patient presents with **periorbital edema**, **hypertension**, and **dark urine** (suggesting hematuria), following a recent skin infection (impetigo, characterized by a "crusty yellow sore"). This clinical picture is highly suggestive of **post-streptococcal glomerulonephritis (PSGN)**.
- PSGN is a **Type III hypersensitivity reaction** where **antigen-antibody complexes** form in the circulation and then deposit in the glomeruli, activating the complement system and leading to inflammation and kidney damage. The **decreased C3 and CH50** with **normal C4** pattern indicates activation of the classical pathway by immune complexes, with additional disproportionate C3 consumption via the alternative pathway. This complement activation pattern is characteristic of PSGN.
*Effector T cell sensitization and activation*
- This mechanism describes **Type IV hypersensitivity reactions**, such as **contact dermatitis** or **tuberculosis skin tests**.
- These reactions are typically **delayed** and involve organ-specific immune responses mediated by T cells, not circulating immune complexes affecting the glomeruli.
*IgE-mediated complement activation*
- This describes **Type I hypersensitivity reactions**, such as **anaphylaxis** or **allergic rhinitis**.
- These reactions involve **IgE antibodies** binding to mast cells and basophils, leading to immediate degranulation and release of inflammatory mediators, and do not involve complement activation in this manner.
*IgM-mediated complement activation targeting antigens on the cellular surface*
- This describes **Type II hypersensitivity reactions** where **IgM antibodies** (and sometimes IgG) bind to antigens directly on cell surfaces, leading to cell lysis via complement activation.
- Examples include **transfusion reactions** or **autoimmune hemolytic anemia**, where entire cells are targeted, not just deposited complexes in specific tissues like the kidney.
*IgG-mediated complement activation targeting antigens on the cellular surface*
- This also describes **Type II hypersensitivity reactions**, similar to the IgM mechanism, where **IgG antibodies** bind to antigens on cell surfaces.
- While IgG is involved, the primary mechanism in PSGN is the *deposition of pre-formed immune complexes*, not direct binding to intrinsic glomerular cell surface antigens causing complement activation *in situ*.
Question 232: A 38-year-old man presents to the outpatient clinic for an annual employee health checkup. He does not have any complaints at the moment except for skin changes, as seen in the following image. He denies any history of trauma. His medical history is insignificant. His family history is negative for any skin disorders or autoimmune disease. He is a non-smoker and does not drink alcohol. Which of the following is the most likely mechanism for this presentation?
A. Defect in melanoblast migration from the neural crest
B. Invasion of the stratum corneum by Malassezia
C. Autoreactive T cells against melanocytes (Correct Answer)
D. Melanocytes unable to synthesize melanin
E. Post-inflammatory hypopigmentation
Explanation: ***Autoreactive T cells against melanocytes***
- The image likely depicts **vitiligo**, characterized by well-demarcated patches of depigmentation, which is caused by the autoimmune destruction of melanocytes.
- In vitiligo, **cytotoxic T lymphocytes** mistakenly target and destroy melanocytes, leading to the absence of melanin in affected skin areas.
*Defect in melanoblast migration from the neural crest*
- This mechanism is characteristic of **piebaldism**, a congenital condition presenting with a stable, localized absence of melanin at birth, often affecting the forehead (white forelock).
- Vitiligo, in contrast, is an **acquired condition** with progressive and often spreading depigmentation, usually appearing later in life.
*Invasion of the stratum corneum by Malassezia*
- This describes **tinea versicolor**, a superficial fungal infection that causes hypopigmented or hyperpigmented patches, often with fine scaling.
- The characteristic clinical appearance of vitiligo (complete depigmentation, no scaling) differs significantly from tinea versicolor.
*Melanocytes unable to synthesize melanin*
- This is the underlying defect in **albinism**, a genetic condition where melanin production is impaired due to enzyme deficiencies (e.g., tyrosinase).
- Albinism typically presents with generalized hypopigmentation of skin, hair, and eyes from birth, unlike the patchy, acquired nature of vitiligo.
*Post-inflammatory hypopigmentation*
- This occurs after an inflammatory skin condition (e.g., eczema, psoriasis) resolves, leaving behind areas of reduced pigmentation due to temporary damage to melanocytes.
- While it can cause hypopigmented patches, the borders are often ill-defined, and there is usually a clear history of a preceding inflammatory event, which is absent in this patient.
Question 233: A young Caucasian couple in their late twenties present for an infertility evaluation after trying to conceive over 2 years. On physical exam, the female appears healthy and states that she has regular menstrual cycles. The male partner is noted to have long extremities with wide hips, low muscle mass, gynecomastia, sparse facial or chest hair, and small, firm testes. Laboratory tests of the male partner reveal elevated serum LH and FSH and low testosterone levels. If cytogenetic tests were performed, which of the following would be seen in this male?
A. Trisomy of chromosome 18
B. Trisomy of chromosome 13
C. Absence of a Barr body
D. Absence of a second sex chromosome
E. Presence of a Barr body (Correct Answer)
Explanation: ***Presence of a Barr body***
- The male's presentation of **long extremities**, **gynecomastia**, **small, firm testes**, and **elevated LH/FSH with low testosterone** is classic for **Klinefelter syndrome** (47, XXY).
- Individuals with **47, XXY karyotype** have two X chromosomes, one of which undergoes **X-inactivation** to form a Barr body.
*Trisomy of chromosome 18*
- This describes **Edwards syndrome**, which is associated with distinct features such as **microcephaly**, **rocker-bottom feet**, and severe developmental delays, not seen here.
- Individuals with Edwards syndrome typically have a very **poor prognosis** and often do not survive beyond infancy.
*Trisomy of chromosome 13*
- This describes **Patau syndrome**, characterized by **cleft lip/palate**, **polydactyly**, and severe neurological defects.
- Like Edwards syndrome, Patau syndrome is associated with **high mortality** in early life.
*Absence of a Barr body*
- An absence of a Barr body would indicate a **46, XY karyotype** (normal male) or **45, X karyotype** (Turner syndrome), neither of which fits the clinical picture.
- In Turner syndrome, females present with **short stature**, **gonadal dysgenesis**, and other distinct features.
*Absence of a second sex chromosome*
- This condition is known as **Turner syndrome** (45, X), which primarily affects females and is characterized by features such as **short stature**, **webbed neck**, and **ovarian dysgenesis**.
- This is inconsistent with the male patient described, who exhibits signs of **testicular dysfunction** and an **extra X chromosome**.
Question 234: A 10-year-old boy is presented to the hospital for a kidney transplant. In the operating room, the surgeon connects an allograft kidney renal artery to the aorta, and after a few moments, the kidney becomes cyanotic, edematous, and dusky with mottling. Which of the following in the recipient’s serum is responsible for this rejection?
A. Macrophages
B. CD4+ T cells
C. IgA
D. CD8+ T cells
E. IgG (Correct Answer)
Explanation: ***IgG***
- The rapid onset of tissue necrosis and the immediate signs of rejection (cyanotic, edematous, dusky with mottling) upon vascular anastomosis are characteristic of **hyperacute rejection**.
- **Hyperacute rejection** is mediated by pre-formed recipient antibodies, primarily **IgG**, targeting donor ABO or HLA antigens. These antibodies activate complement, leading to rapid thrombosis and graft destruction.
*Macrophages*
- While macrophages play a role in chronic allograft rejection and delayed type hypersensitivity, they are not the primary mediators of **hyperacute rejection**.
- Their involvement typically presents with a more delayed and less immediate profound tissue damage than seen in this scenario.
*CD4+ T cells*
- **CD4+ T cells** are central to acute cellular rejection, which typically manifests days to weeks after transplantation.
- They are not responsible for the immediate, pre-formed antibody-mediated response seen in **hyperacute rejection**.
*IgA*
- **IgA antibodies** are primarily involved in mucosal immunity and are generally not implicated in solid organ transplant rejection, especially hyperacute rejection.
- While IgA can contribute to immune complex formation, it's not the main antibody type driving hyperacute allograft destruction.
*CD8+ T cells*
- **CD8+ T cells** (cytotoxic T lymphocytes) are key players in acute cellular rejection, mediating direct lysis of donor cells.
- Their action is part of a cellular immune response that takes days to weeks to develop and is not responsible for the immediate, antibody-mediated hyperacute rejection.
Question 235: A 21-year-old male presents to your office with hematuria 3 days after the onset of a productive cough and fever. Following renal biopsy, immunofluorescence shows granular IgA deposits in the glomerular mesangium. Which of the following do you suspect in this patient?
A. Lipoid nephrosis
B. Berger’s disease (Correct Answer)
C. HIV infection
D. Systemic lupus erythematosus
E. Poststreptococcal glomerulonephritis
Explanation: ***Berger’s disease***
- The presentation of **hematuria occurring 3 days after a respiratory infection** (productive cough and fever) is characteristic of **IgA nephropathy** or Berger's disease, showing a synpharyngitic pattern.
- **Immunofluorescence showing granular IgA deposits in the glomerular mesangium** is the histological hallmark of IgA nephropathy.
*Lipoid nephrosis*
- This condition is also known as **minimal change disease** and typically presents with **nephrotic syndrome** (heavy proteinuria, edema, hypoalbuminemia), not primarily hematuria.
- Renal biopsy would reveal **effacement of foot processes** on electron microscopy with normal light microscopy and negative immunofluorescence, unlike the IgA deposits described.
*HIV infection*
- HIV can lead to **HIV-associated nephropathy (HIVAN)**, which typically presents as **focal segmental glomerulosclerosis** (FSGS) and can include proteinuria and progressive renal failure.
- While hematuria can occur, the characteristic **IgA deposits in the mesangium** described are not typical for HIVAN.
*Systemic lupus erythematosus*
- **Lupus nephritis** is a common complication of SLE, and can present with hematuria, proteinuria, and various patterns of glomerulonephritis.
- However, immunofluorescence in lupus nephritis usually shows **IgG, IgM, IgA, C3, and C1q deposits** (full-house staining), not isolated IgA deposits.
*Poststreptococcal glomerulonephritis*
- This condition typically presents with **hematuria 10-14 days after a streptococcal infection** (post-infectious glomerulonephritis), a longer latency period than seen in this patient.
- Immunofluorescence would show unique **"lumpy-bumpy" granular deposits of C3 and IgG** along the glomerular basement membrane, often with characteristic subepithelial humps on electron microscopy, rather than mesangial IgA.
Question 236: A 42-year-old woman is brought to the emergency department because of two episodes of hemoptysis over the past 24 hours. The patient has a 6-month history of severe sinusitis and bloody nasal discharge. Her vital parameters are as follows: blood pressure, 155/75 mm Hg; pulse, 75/min; respiratory rate, 14/min; and temperature, 37.9°C (100.2°F). Examination reveals red conjunctiva, and an ulcer on the nasal septum. Pulmonary auscultation indicates diffuse rhonchi. Cardiac and abdominal examinations reveal no abnormalities. Laboratory studies show:
Urine
Blood 3+
Protein 2+
RBC 10-15/hpf with dysmorphic features
RBC cast numerous
Based on these findings, this patient is most likely to carry which of the following antibodies?
A. Antideoxyribonuclease antibody
B. Antiglomerular basement membrane antibody
C. Antiproteinase 3 antineutrophil cytoplasmic antibody (Correct Answer)
D. Anticyclic citrullinated peptide antibody
E. Antimyeloperoxidase antibody
Explanation: ***Antiproteinase 3 antineutrophil cytoplasmic antibody***
- This patient presents with symptoms highly suggestive of **Granulomatosis with Polyangiitis (GPA)**, including **hemoptysis**, **severe sinusitis**, **bloody nasal discharge**, **red conjunctiva**, **nasal septum ulcer**, and likely **glomerulonephritis** (blood and protein in urine with dysmorphic RBCs and RBC casts).
- **Antiproteinase 3 (PR3-ANCA)** is the specific antibody associated with GPA, a systemic vasculitis affecting small and medium-sized vessels.
*Antideoxyribonuclease antibody*
- This antibody is associated with **post-streptococcal glomerulonephritis** and is a marker for recent streptococcal infection.
- The clinical presentation of chronic sinusitis, hemoptysis, and nasal ulcer is not typical for post-streptococcal glomerulonephritis.
*Antiglomerular basement membrane antibody*
- This antibody is characteristic of **Goodpasture syndrome**, which involves **pulmonary hemorrhage** and **glomerulonephritis**.
- However, it does not typically cause the prominent upper airway granulomatous disease (sinusitis, nasal ulcer) seen in this patient.
*Anticyclic citrullinated peptide antibody*
- This antibody is a hallmark of **rheumatoid arthritis**, a chronic inflammatory autoimmune disease primarily affecting the joints.
- The patient's symptoms are inconsistent with rheumatoid arthritis, which does not cause glomerulonephritis or upper respiratory tract granulomas.
*Antimyeloperoxidase antibody*
- **Antimyeloperoxidase (MPO-ANCA)** is associated with other forms of ANCA-associated vasculitis, such as **Microscopic Polyangiitis** and **Eosinophilic Granulomatosis with Polyangiitis (Churg-Strauss Syndrome)**.
- While MPO-ANCA can cause glomerulonephritis and lung involvement, it is less commonly associated with the prominent upper airway granulomatous features (sinusitis, nasal ulcer) seen in GPA, which is primarily PR3-ANCA positive.
Question 237: A 32-year-old woman comes to the physician because of a 1-week history of left flank pain and dysuria. She has had 2 episodes of urinary tract infection over the past 2 years. Her temperature is 37°C (98.6°F) and pulse is 82/min. An ultrasound of the kidneys shows left-sided hydronephrosis and echogenic foci with acoustic shadowing. A photomicrograph of the urine is shown. The crystals observed are most likely composed of which of the following?
A. Cystine
B. Uric acid
C. Calcium phosphate
D. Magnesium ammonium phosphate (Correct Answer)
E. Calcium oxalate
Explanation: ***Magnesium ammonium phosphate***
- The presence of **hydronephrosis**, recurrent UTIs, and echogenic foci with **acoustic shadowing** strongly suggests a **staghorn calculus**, which is typically composed of magnesium ammonium phosphate (struvite).
- Struvite stones are commonly formed in alkaline urine due to infections with **urease-producing bacteria** like *Proteus mirabilis*, explaining the patient's symptoms (flank pain, dysuria, UTI history).
*Cystine*
- **Cystine stones** are caused by a genetic defect in renal tubular amino acid transport, leading to the excretion of large amounts of **cystine**, forming characteristic **hexagonal crystals**.
- This patient's presentation with recurrent UTIs and hydronephrosis points away from an inherent metabolic disorder like cystinuria.
*Uric acid*
- **Uric acid stones** are radiolucent (not seen on X-ray, but visible on ultrasound as echogenic foci) and often associated with **gout** or conditions with **high cell turnover**.
- They do not typically cause recurrent infections or form **staghorn calculi** in the way struvite stones do.
*Calcium phosphate*
- While calcium phosphate can form stones, they are usually associated with **hyperparathyroidism** or renal tubular acidosis, not typically with recurrent UTIs evolving into **staghorn calculi**.
- Calcium phosphate stones are not typically associated with the presence of **urease-producing bacteria**.
*Calcium oxalate*
- **Calcium oxalate stones** are the most common type of kidney stone but are usually **not associated with UTIs** or the formation of **staghorn calculi**.
- They often present with acute, severe pain due to stone passage and are not typically linked to the recurrent infection pattern seen here.
Question 238: A 10-year-old boy comes to the physician because of a 4-month history of intermittent red urine. During the past 2 years, he has had recurrent episodes of swelling of his face and feet. Five years ago, he was diagnosed with mild bilateral sensorineural hearing loss. His uncle died of kidney disease in his twenties. His blood pressure is 145/85 mm Hg. Laboratory studies show a hemoglobin concentration of 12.5 g/dL, urea nitrogen concentration of 40 mg/dL, and creatinine concentration of 2.4 mg/dL. Urinalysis shows 5–7 RBC/hpf. Which of the following is the most likely underlying cause of this patient's symptoms?
A. Vascular IgA deposits
B. Autosomal-recessive gene defect in fibrocystin
C. Phospholipase A2 receptor antibody
D. Defective type IV collagen (Correct Answer)
E. Prior streptococcal infection
Explanation: ***Defective type IV collagen***
- This patient presents with a classic triad of **hematuria**, **sensorineural hearing loss**, and a **family history of kidney disease** (uncle died in twenties), which are hallmarks of **Alport syndrome**. Alport syndrome is caused by a genetic defect in **Type IV collagen**, essential for the structure of the glomerular basement membrane, cochlea, and lens.
- The elevated blood pressure, BUN, and creatinine indicate progressive **renal failure**, which is a common and severe complication of Alport syndrome.
*Vascular IgA deposits*
- **IgA vasculitis** (Henoch-Schonlein Purpura) or **IgA nephropathy** can cause hematuria and edema, but they are not typically associated with **sensorineural hearing loss** or a strong **family history of progressive renal failure**.
- While IgA nephropathy can recur, the specific combination of auditory defects and family history points away from primary IgA-mediated disease.
*Autosomal-recessive gene defect in fibrocystin*
- An autosomal-recessive gene defect in **fibrocystin** (PKHD1 gene) causes **Autosomal Recessive Polycystic Kidney Disease (ARPKD)**, which is characterized by **enlarged, cystic kidneys** and **hepatic fibrosis**.
- ARPKD does not typically present with **sensorineural hearing loss**, and while it causes renal failure, the presence of hearing loss is a key differentiator.
*Phospholipase A2 receptor antibody*
- **Phospholipase A2 receptor (PLA2R) antibody** is primarily associated with **idiopathic membranous nephropathy**, which is a common cause of **nephrotic syndrome** in adults.
- While it can lead to proteinuria and renal impairment, it is not associated with **sensorineural hearing loss** or the specific family history described.
*Prior streptococcal infection*
- A **prior streptococcal infection** can lead to **post-streptococcal glomerulonephritis (PSGN)**, which causes hematuria, edema, and hypertension, typically within 1-3 weeks after the infection.
- PSGN is usually a self-limiting condition and rarely involves **sensorineural hearing loss** or a **chronic, progressive family history of kidney disease**.
Question 239: A 45-year-old male immigrant with rheumatoid arthritis comes to the physician because of severe pain and swelling in both his knees. He also reports an unintentional weight loss of around 10 kg over 3 months and episodic abdominal pain, varying in intensity and location. He has been having loose stools with no blood, 2–3 times a day for 1 month. He denies fever, night sweats, cough, or shortness of breath. Current medications include methotrexate, naproxen, and folic acid. His weight is 68 kg (150 lbs), temperature is 37.4°C (99.3°F), pulse is 90/min, and blood pressure is 130/80 mm Hg. Examination shows pale conjunctivae, cheilitis, and hyperpigmentation of the skin around his neck. Generalized lymphadenopathy is present. Examination of the knee joints shows bilateral warmth, erythema, swelling, tenderness, and limited range of motion. A grade 2/6 early diastolic murmur is heard over the right second intercostal space and an S3 is heard. Abdominal examination shows no abnormalities. Laboratory studies show:
Hemoglobin 9.1 g/dL
Leukocyte count 3800/mm3
Platelet count 140,000/mm3
Mean corpuscular volume 67 μm3
Erythrocyte sedimentation rate 62 mm/h
Serum
Glucose 100 mg/dL
Creatinine 0.7 mg/dL
TIBC 500 mcg/dL
Ferritin 10 mcg/dL
Rheumatoid factor negative
Anti -CCP negative
An esophagogastroduodenoscopy is ordered. A biopsy specimen of the duodenum is likely to show which of the following?
A. Poorly differentiated cells
B. Granuloma with caseating necrosis
C. Villous atrophy and crypt hyperplasia
D. PAS-positive macrophages (Correct Answer)
E. Noncaseating granulomas
Explanation: ***PAS-positive macrophages***
- This patient's symptoms (rheumatoid arthritis, severe joint pain, weight loss, abdominal pain, diarrhea, anemia, low platelets, lymphadenopathy, cardiac murmur, and skin hyperpigmentation) are highly suggestive of **Whipple's disease**, caused by the bacterium *Tropheryma whipplei*.
- Biopsy of the duodenum in Whipple's disease classically reveals infiltration of the lamina propria with **foamy macrophages** that stain positive with **periodic acid-Schiff (PAS)** due to the presence of undigested bacterial cell wall glycolipids.
*Poorly differentiated cells*
- This finding suggests **malignancy**, such as adenocarcinoma. While malignancy can cause weight loss and anemia, the combination of migratory arthralgia, lymphadenopathy, and cardiac involvement points away from a primary gastrointestinal malignancy as the sole explanation.
- There are no specific features in the presentation (e.g., severe localized abdominal pain, hematochezia, obstructive symptoms, specific imaging findings) to strongly suggest a poorly differentiated gastrointestinal carcinoma.
*Granuloma with caseating necrosis*
- **Caseating granulomas** are characteristic of **tuberculosis**. Although tuberculosis can cause weight loss, lymphadenopathy, and anemia, the chronic diarrhea, arthralgia, and specific cardiac findings described are less typical for tuberculosis.
- The absence of fever, night sweats, or cough also makes tuberculosis less likely in this context, especially in the absence of pulmonary involvement.
*Villous atrophy and crypt hyperplasia*
- This pattern is characteristic of **celiac disease**. While celiac disease causes malabsorption, weight loss, and diarrhea, it typically presents with iron-deficiency anemia due to malabsorption.
- The additional features of arthritis, lymphadenopathy, cardiac involvement (murmur, S3), and skin hyperpigmentation are not characteristic of celiac disease.
*Noncaseating granulomas*
- **Noncaseating granulomas** are a hallmark of **Crohn's disease**, another inflammatory bowel disease that can cause abdominal pain, diarrhea, and weight loss.
- However, the widespread systemic involvement including polyarthralgia, lymphadenopathy, and cardiac manifestations (murmur, S3 indicating potential endocarditis or valvular involvement), is not typical for Crohn's disease, which primarily affects the gastrointestinal tract and can have extraintestinal manifestations but usually not to this extent when considering the combination of all symptoms.
Question 240: A 25-year-old man of Mediterranean descent makes an appointment with his physician because his skin and sclera have become yellow. He complains of fatigue and fever that started at the same time icterus appeared. On examination, he is tachycardic and tachypneic. The oxygen (O2) saturation is < 90%. He has increased unconjugated bilirubin, hemoglobinemia, and an increased number of reticulocytes in the peripheral blood. What is the most likely diagnosis?
A. Microcytic anemia caused by iron deficiency
B. Aplastic anemia
C. Autoimmune hemolytic anemia (AIHA)
D. Anemia caused by renal failure
E. Hemolytic anemia caused by glucose-6-phosphate dehydrogenase deficiency (G6PD deficiency) (Correct Answer)
Explanation: ***Hemolytic anemia caused by glucose-6-phosphate dehydrogenase deficiency (G6PD deficiency)***
- The patient's presentation with **jaundice**, **fatigue**, fever, **tachycardia**, **tachypnea**, and **low oxygen saturation** points to an acute hemolytic crisis.
- The laboratory findings of **increased unconjugated bilirubin**, **hemoglobinemia** (evidence of red blood cell destruction), and **increased reticulocytes** (bone marrow's attempt to compensate for red blood cell loss) are classic for hemolytic anemia. A young man of **Mediterranean descent** makes G6PD deficiency a strong possibility, as it is common in this population and can be triggered by various factors leading to oxidative stress.
*Microcytic anemia caused by iron deficiency*
- **Iron deficiency anemia** typically presents with **microcytic hypochromic red blood cells**, and while it causes fatigue and pallor, it does not typically lead to acute jaundice and hemoglobinemia.
- Reticulocyte count is usually normal or only mildly elevated, not significantly increased as seen in rapid red blood cell destruction.
*Aplastic anemia*
- **Aplastic anemia** is characterized by **pancytopenia** (decreased red blood cells, white blood cells, and platelets) due to bone marrow failure.
- It does not present with signs of hemolytic crisis such as jaundice, hemoglobinemia, or increased reticulocytes.
*Autoimmune hemolytic anemia (AIHA)*
- While AIHA causes **hemolytic anemia** with similar lab findings (jaundice, increased unconjugated bilirubin, reticulocytosis), the context of a young man of **Mediterranean descent** makes G6PD deficiency a more likely primary consideration, especially without specific triggers for AIHA or a positive direct Coombs test result.
- AIHA involves autoantibodies against red blood cells.
*Anemia caused by renal failure*
- Anemia due to **renal failure** is primarily caused by decreased production of **erythropoietin** leading to **normocytic, normochromic anemia**.
- It does not involve acute hemolysis, jaundice, hemoglobinemia, or increased reticulocytes.