At a routine exam, a 68-year-old woman is discovered to have a serum calcium level of 11.5 mg/dL. Follow-up laboratory tests show a high parathyroid hormone with low phosphorus and mildly elevated alkaline phosphatase. 24-hour urine calcium level is elevated. Review of symptoms includes complaints of fatigue, constipation, and diffuse bone pain for which she takes vitamin D. Past medical history is significant for type 2 diabetes mellitus for 25 years and essential hypertension for 15 years. The patient has a history of kidney stones. Family history is irrelevant. Which of the following radiologic findings is consistent with the patient's condition?
Q192
A 42-year-old woman comes to the physician with acute, severe pain in the middle of her lower back. She also complains of constipation and trouble sleeping recently. Menses occur regularly at 28-day intervals. Examination shows localized tenderness to palpation over the lumbar spine. Serum calcium is 14 mg/dL and serum phosphorus is 1.5 mg/dL. An x-ray of the lumbar spine shows a compression fracture of the L4 vertebral body and osteopenia. Which of the following is the most likely underlying cause of this patient's decreased bone mineral density?
Q193
A 70-year-old woman is on hospital day 2 in the medical intensive care unit. She was admitted from the emergency department for a 2-day history of shortness of breath and fever. In the emergency department, her temperature is 39.4°C (103.0°F), the pulse is 120/min, the blood pressure is 94/54 mm Hg, the respiratory rate is 36/min, and oxygen saturation was 82% while on 4L of oxygen via a non-rebreather mask. Chest X-ray shows a right lower lobe consolidation. She was intubated, sedated, and started on broad-spectrum antibiotics for sepsis of pulmonary origin and intravenous norepinephrine for blood pressure support. Since then, her clinical condition has been stable, though her vasopressor and oxygen requirements have not improved. Today, her physician is called to the bedside because her nurse noted some slow bleeding from her intravenous line sites and around her urinary catheter. Which of the following most likely represents the results of coagulation studies for this patient?
Q194
A 19-year-old man and recent immigrant from Brazil present to the clinic. He has no known past medical, past surgical, or family history. The patient admits to having several regular sexual partners. Today, he complains of a skin rash on his back. He is unclear when it started but became aware when one of his partners pointed it out. A review of systems is otherwise negative. Physical examination reveals numerous hypopigmented skin lesions over his upper back. When questioned, he states that they do not get darker after spending time in the sun. On examination, there is a 5 cm (1.9 in) patch of hypopigmented skin in the center of his back with a fine-scale overlying it. What is the most likely diagnosis?
Q195
A 53-year-old woman with hypertension is brought to the emergency department 30 minutes after having a generalized, tonic-clonic seizure. She has had recurrent headaches and dizziness in the last 3 months. One year ago, she had diarrhea after a trip to Ecuador that resolved without treatment. She has not received any medical care in the last five years. She has smoked 1 pack of cigarettes daily for 20 years. Her temperature is 36°C (96.8°F) and blood pressure is 159/77mm Hg. Physical examination shows dysarthria and hyperreflexia. She is confused and oriented only to name and place. Four brain lesions are found in a CT scan of the brain; one of the lesions is shown. Which of the following is most likely to have prevented this patient's condition?
Q196
A 16-year-old boy is brought to the pediatrician by his mother because she is concerned about the “spots” on his abdomen and back. The patient’s mother reports that there are several “light spots” on the patient’s trunk that have been slowly increasing in number. The lesions are not painful nor pruritic. The patient’s mother is worried because her nephew had vitiligo. The patient reports that he feels “fine,” but reports occasional headaches and increasing difficulty with seeing the board at school. In addition to the patient’s cousin having vitiligo, the patient’s paternal grandfather and uncle have bilateral deafness, and his mother has systemic lupus erythematous. On physical examination, there are multiple, discrete, 2-3 cm hypopigmented macules on the chest, abdomen, back, and posterior shoulders. Which of the following head and neck computed tomography findings is the patient most likely to develop?
Q197
A 72-year-old African American man presents with progressive fatigue, difficulty breathing on exertion, and lower extremity swelling for 3 months. The patient was seen at the emergency department 2 times before. The first time was because of back pain, and the second was because of fever and cough. He took medications at the emergency room, but he refused to do further tests recommended to him. He does not smoke or drink alcohol. His family history is irrelevant. His vital signs include a blood pressure of 110/80 mm Hg, temperature of 37.2°C (98.9°F), and regular radial pulse of 90/min. On physical examination, the patient looks pale, and his tongue is enlarged. Jugular veins become distended on inspiration. Pitting ankle edema is present on both sides. Bilateral basal crackles are audible on the chest auscultation. Hepatomegaly is present on abdominal palpation. Chest X-ray shows osteolytic lesions of the ribs. ECG shows low voltage waves and echocardiogram shows a speckled appearance of the myocardium with diastolic dysfunction and normal appearance of the pericardium. Which of the following best describes the mechanism of this patient’s illness?
Q198
A 56-year-old African-American man comes to the physician for intermittent episodes of dark urine and mild flank pain. The patient has had 3 episodes of frank reddish discoloration of his urine within 1 month. He has chronic headaches and back pain for which he has been taking aspirin and ibuprofen daily for 1 year. The patient has sickle cell trait. He has smoked a pack of cigarettes daily for 10 years. He appears well. His temperature is 37.4°C (99.3°F). His pulse is 66/min, and his blood pressure is 150/90 mm Hg. Physical exam shows mild, bilateral flank tenderness. Laboratory analysis shows a serum creatinine concentration of 2.4 mg/dL. Urine studies are shown below.
Urine
Blood 3+
Protein 2+
RBC > 10/hpf
WBC 3/hpf
Which of the following is the most likely underlying cause of this patient's hematuria?
Q199
A 67-year-old male presents with left hip pain. Examination reveals mild effusions in both knees, with crepitus in both patellofemoral joints. He states his hearing has worsened recently and that he feels like his hats don't fit anymore. Bone scan reveals diffuse uptake in the calvarium, right proximal femur, and left ilium. Which of the following laboratory abnormalities would be expected in this patient?
Q200
A 23-year-old woman presents to the emergency department with a 3-day history of fever and headache. She says that the symptoms started suddenly after she woke up 3 days ago, though she has been feeling increasingly fatigued over the last 5 months. On presentation, her temperature is 102°F (38.9°C), blood pressure is 117/74 mmHg, pulse is 106/min, and respirations are 14/min. Physical exam reveals diffuse petechiae and conjunctival pallor and selected laboratory results are shown as follows:
Bleeding time: 11 minutes
Platelet count: 68,000/mm^3
Lactate dehydrogenase: 105 U/L
Which of the following would also most likely be true for this patient?
Systemic Pathology US Medical PG Practice Questions and MCQs
Question 191: At a routine exam, a 68-year-old woman is discovered to have a serum calcium level of 11.5 mg/dL. Follow-up laboratory tests show a high parathyroid hormone with low phosphorus and mildly elevated alkaline phosphatase. 24-hour urine calcium level is elevated. Review of symptoms includes complaints of fatigue, constipation, and diffuse bone pain for which she takes vitamin D. Past medical history is significant for type 2 diabetes mellitus for 25 years and essential hypertension for 15 years. The patient has a history of kidney stones. Family history is irrelevant. Which of the following radiologic findings is consistent with the patient's condition?
A. Subperiosteal bone resorption on hand X-ray (Correct Answer)
B. Osteopenia, osteolytic lesions and pathological fractures
C. Fibronodular opacities in upper lobes of the lung with or without cavitation
D. Lytic changes in early stage and sclerotic picture in later stage
E. Hilar and/or paratracheal adenopathy with bilateral upper lobe lung infiltrates
Explanation: ***Subperiosteal bone resorption on hand X-ray***
- The patient's symptoms and lab findings (hypercalcemia, high PTH, low phosphorus, elevated alkaline phosphatase, elevated 24-hour urine calcium) are classic for **primary hyperparathyroidism**.
- **Subperiosteal bone resorption**, particularly in the phalanges of the hands, is a highly characteristic radiologic sign of significant **hyperparathyroidism (osteitis fibrosa cystica)**, indicating excessive bone turnover due to PTH.
*Osteopenia, osteolytic lesions and pathological fractures*
- While osteopenia and pathological fractures can occur in hyperparathyroidism due to chronic bone loss, **multiple osteolytic lesions** are more characteristic of other conditions like **multiple myeloma** or metastatic cancer, which are not suggested by the lab findings.
- Hyperparathyroidism typically causes **generalized osteopenia/osteoporosis** rather than isolated, distinct osteolytic lesions throughout the skeleton.
*Fibronodular opacities in upper lobes of the lung with or without cavitation*
- These findings are more typical of **chronic granulomatous diseases** like **tuberculosis**, particularly in the upper lobes.
- This is a pulmonary finding and not directly related to the **skeletal manifestations of hyperparathyroidism**.
*Lytic changes in early stage and sclerotic picture in later stage*
- This pattern of bone changes (lytic to sclerotic) is characteristic of **Paget's disease of bone**, which is associated with different biochemical markers and often localized bone pain/deformity, not diffuse bone pain and the specific calcium/PTH/phosphorus profile seen here.
- Paget's disease typically has a significantly **elevated alkaline phosphatase** but normal calcium and PTH levels.
*Hilar and/or paratracheal adenopathy with bilateral upper lobe lung infiltrates*
- These are classic radiographic findings for **sarcoidosis**, a systemic inflammatory disease that can cause hypercalcemia through **extra-renal 1-alpha hydroxylation of vitamin D**, but typically with suppressed PTH levels, not elevated PTH.
- The adenopathy and infiltrates are not direct skeletal manifestations of the primary hyperparathyroidism described.
Question 192: A 42-year-old woman comes to the physician with acute, severe pain in the middle of her lower back. She also complains of constipation and trouble sleeping recently. Menses occur regularly at 28-day intervals. Examination shows localized tenderness to palpation over the lumbar spine. Serum calcium is 14 mg/dL and serum phosphorus is 1.5 mg/dL. An x-ray of the lumbar spine shows a compression fracture of the L4 vertebral body and osteopenia. Which of the following is the most likely underlying cause of this patient's decreased bone mineral density?
A. Increase in parathyroid hormone secretion (Correct Answer)
B. Decrease in RANKL expression
C. Decrease in osteoblast activity
D. Increase in calcitonin secretion
E. Decrease in estrogen production
Explanation: ***Increase in parathyroid hormone secretion***
- This patient presents with the classic triad of **primary hyperparathyroidism**: hypercalcemia (14 mg/dL), hypophosphatemia (1.5 mg/dL), and bone disease (compression fracture with osteopenia).
- **PTH excess** causes increased bone resorption by stimulating osteoclast activity, leading to decreased bone mineral density and pathologic fractures.
- PTH increases renal phosphate excretion (causing hypophosphatemia) and increases calcium reabsorption and bone resorption (causing hypercalcemia).
- The **constipation is a manifestation of hypercalcemia** ("stones, bones, abdominal groans, and psychiatric overtones").
- Primary hyperparathyroidism is the most common cause of hypercalcemia in outpatients and frequently presents with osteopenia/osteoporosis.
*Decrease in estrogen production*
- While estrogen deficiency causes osteoporosis in postmenopausal women, this patient has **regular menses at 28-day intervals**, indicating she is not menopausal.
- Estrogen deficiency causes **normocalcemic osteoporosis**, not the hypercalcemia (14 mg/dL) and hypophosphatemia (1.5 mg/dL) seen in this patient.
- The laboratory abnormalities clearly point to a different etiology.
*Decrease in RANKL expression*
- RANKL (receptor activator of nuclear factor-κB ligand) stimulates osteoclast differentiation and activity.
- A **decrease** in RANKL would **reduce** osteoclast activity and **increase** bone mineral density, which is opposite to this patient's presentation.
- PTH actually works partly by increasing RANKL expression, further supporting hyperparathyroidism as the diagnosis.
*Decrease in osteoblast activity*
- While decreased osteoblast activity can contribute to low bone density, this is typically seen in conditions like multiple myeloma or aging.
- This mechanism does not explain the **hypercalcemia and hypophosphatemia** seen in this patient.
- The primary pathology here is **increased osteoclast activity** driven by excess PTH.
*Increase in calcitonin secretion*
- Calcitonin **lowers** serum calcium by inhibiting osteoclast activity.
- An increase in calcitonin would cause **hypocalcemia**, not the hypercalcemia (14 mg/dL) observed in this patient.
- This is physiologically opposite to the patient's presentation.
Question 193: A 70-year-old woman is on hospital day 2 in the medical intensive care unit. She was admitted from the emergency department for a 2-day history of shortness of breath and fever. In the emergency department, her temperature is 39.4°C (103.0°F), the pulse is 120/min, the blood pressure is 94/54 mm Hg, the respiratory rate is 36/min, and oxygen saturation was 82% while on 4L of oxygen via a non-rebreather mask. Chest X-ray shows a right lower lobe consolidation. She was intubated, sedated, and started on broad-spectrum antibiotics for sepsis of pulmonary origin and intravenous norepinephrine for blood pressure support. Since then, her clinical condition has been stable, though her vasopressor and oxygen requirements have not improved. Today, her physician is called to the bedside because her nurse noted some slow bleeding from her intravenous line sites and around her urinary catheter. Which of the following most likely represents the results of coagulation studies for this patient?
A. D-dimer: negative, fibrinogen level: low, platelet count: low
B. D-dimer: elevated, fibrinogen level: normal, platelet count: normal
D. D-dimer: negative, fibrinogen level: elevated, platelet count: elevated
E. D-dimer: negative, fibrinogen level: normal, platelet count: normal
Explanation: ***D-dimer: elevated, fibrinogen level: low, platelet count: low***
- The patient's presentation with **sepsis** requiring intubation and vasopressors, along with diffuse **bleeding from IV sites and urinary catheter**, strongly suggests **disseminated intravascular coagulation (DIC)**.
- In DIC, widespread activation of the coagulation cascade leads to consumption of **platelets** and **clotting factors (including fibrinogen)**, resulting in thrombocytopenia and hypofibrinogenemia. The breakdown of clots produces **elevated D-dimer** levels.
*D-dimer: negative, fibrinogen level: low, platelet count: low*
- A **negative D-dimer** would contradict the diagnosis of DIC, as D-dimer is a product of fibrin degradation and is almost always elevated in DIC due to extensive clot formation and subsequent fibrinolysis.
- While low fibrinogen and platelet count are characteristic of DIC, the negative D-dimer makes this option unlikely in the context of active bleeding from multiple sites.
*D-dimer: elevated, fibrinogen level: normal, platelet count: normal*
- While an **elevated D-dimer** is consistent with fibrinolysis occurring in DIC, normal **fibrinogen** and **platelet counts** would argue against the consumptive coagulopathy that defines DIC.
- The presence of diffuse bleeding in a patient with sepsis usually indicates significant depletion of clotting factors and platelets.
*D-dimer: negative, fibrinogen level: elevated, platelet count: elevated*
- This profile suggests an **inflammatory state** or a hypercoagulable state without significant fibrinolysis or consumption of clotting factors.
- A **negative D-dimer** and **elevated fibrinogen/platelets** contradict the signs and symptoms of DIC with active bleeding.
*D-dimer: negative, fibrinogen level: normal, platelet count: normal*
- This result would be inconsistent with **DIC** and the patient's clinical picture of widespread bleeding.
- In DIC, there is active coagulation and fibrinolysis, leading to consumption of platelets and fibrinogen and production of D-dimers.
Question 194: A 19-year-old man and recent immigrant from Brazil present to the clinic. He has no known past medical, past surgical, or family history. The patient admits to having several regular sexual partners. Today, he complains of a skin rash on his back. He is unclear when it started but became aware when one of his partners pointed it out. A review of systems is otherwise negative. Physical examination reveals numerous hypopigmented skin lesions over his upper back. When questioned, he states that they do not get darker after spending time in the sun. On examination, there is a 5 cm (1.9 in) patch of hypopigmented skin in the center of his back with a fine-scale overlying it. What is the most likely diagnosis?
A. Tinea versicolor (Correct Answer)
B. Secondary syphilis
C. Pityriasis rosea
D. Mycosis fungoides
E. Vitiligo
Explanation: ***Tinea versicolor***
- The presence of **hypopigmented patches** with **fine scale** that fail to tan in sun-exposed areas is characteristic of tinea versicolor, a superficial fungal infection.
- This condition is common in warm, humid climates, making it relevant for someone from Brazil.
*Secondary syphilis*
- The rash of secondary syphilis is typically **erythematous** or **copper-colored** and often involves the palms and soles, which is not described.
- While syphilis can cause various skin manifestations, **hypopigmentation with fine scale** that doesn't tan is not a classic presentation.
*Pityriasis rosea*
- Pityriasis rosea usually begins with a **herald patch** followed by smaller, oval, erythematous, and scaly lesions distributed in a **Christmas tree pattern**, which is not consistent with the described findings.
- The lesions are typically pink or red, not hypopigmented.
*Mycosis fungoides*
- Mycosis fungoides is a type of **cutaneous T-cell lymphoma** that presents with various skin lesions, including patches, plaques, and tumors, often over long periods.
- It is a chronic and progressive condition, and while hypopigmentation can occur, the discrete, scaled patches specifically not tanning are less typical for an initial presentation.
*Vitiligo*
- Vitiligo is characterized by **complete depigmentation** (amelanotic) of the skin, resulting in sharply demarcated, milky-white patches.
- Unlike tinea versicolor, vitiligo lesions are completely devoid of pigment and do not have a fine scale.
Question 195: A 53-year-old woman with hypertension is brought to the emergency department 30 minutes after having a generalized, tonic-clonic seizure. She has had recurrent headaches and dizziness in the last 3 months. One year ago, she had diarrhea after a trip to Ecuador that resolved without treatment. She has not received any medical care in the last five years. She has smoked 1 pack of cigarettes daily for 20 years. Her temperature is 36°C (96.8°F) and blood pressure is 159/77mm Hg. Physical examination shows dysarthria and hyperreflexia. She is confused and oriented only to name and place. Four brain lesions are found in a CT scan of the brain; one of the lesions is shown. Which of the following is most likely to have prevented this patient's condition?
A. Smoking cessation
B. Avoidance of cat feces
C. Vaccination against meningococcus
D. Avoidance of contaminated food (Correct Answer)
E. Improved blood pressure control
Explanation: ***Avoidance of contaminated food***
- The patient's presentation with **recurrent seizures**, **multiple brain lesions**, and a history of travel to **Ecuador** followed by diarrhea strongly suggests **neurocysticercosis**.
- **Neurocysticercosis** is caused by ingesting **Taenia solium** eggs, typically through **contaminated food or water** (fecal-oral transmission), leading to the formation of cysts in the central nervous system.
- **Prevention** is achieved by avoiding contaminated food/water and proper food hygiene, particularly in endemic areas like Latin America.
*Smoking cessation*
- While smoking cessation is crucial for overall health and reduces cancer risk, it is **not directly linked** to preventing parasitic infections or the development of neurocysticercosis.
- Smoking is associated with lung and cardiovascular diseases but not with this specific neurological parasitic infection.
*Avoidance of cat feces*
- Avoiding cat feces is primarily recommended to prevent **toxoplasmosis** (caused by *Toxoplasma gondii*), another parasitic infection that can cause brain lesions, especially in immunocompromised individuals.
- However, the history of **diarrhea after travel to Ecuador** is more indicative of **Taenia solium**, which is transmitted fecal-orally through contaminated food, not through cat feces.
*Vaccination against meningococcus*
- Meningococcal vaccination prevents bacterial meningitis caused by *Neisseria meningitidis*.
- This patient's symptoms and CT findings of **multiple, ring-enhancing cystic brain lesions** are not consistent with meningococcal disease, which typically presents as acute meningitis or sepsis, not chronic space-occupying lesions.
*Improved blood pressure control*
- Hypertension control is vital for preventing **stroke** and other cardiovascular complications, which can cause neurological symptoms.
- However, the presence of **multiple, well-defined cystic brain lesions** and the history of travel to an endemic area with subsequent diarrhea point towards an **infectious etiology** (neurocysticercosis) rather than hypertensive cerebrovascular disease, which would show different imaging patterns (hemorrhage or infarction).
Question 196: A 16-year-old boy is brought to the pediatrician by his mother because she is concerned about the “spots” on his abdomen and back. The patient’s mother reports that there are several “light spots” on the patient’s trunk that have been slowly increasing in number. The lesions are not painful nor pruritic. The patient’s mother is worried because her nephew had vitiligo. The patient reports that he feels “fine,” but reports occasional headaches and increasing difficulty with seeing the board at school. In addition to the patient’s cousin having vitiligo, the patient’s paternal grandfather and uncle have bilateral deafness, and his mother has systemic lupus erythematous. On physical examination, there are multiple, discrete, 2-3 cm hypopigmented macules on the chest, abdomen, back, and posterior shoulders. Which of the following head and neck computed tomography findings is the patient most likely to develop?
A. Subependymal hamartomas
B. Optic nerve glioma
C. Bilateral vestibular schwannomas (Correct Answer)
D. Cerebral atrophy
E. Thyroid nodule
Explanation: ***Bilateral vestibular schwannomas***
- The family history of **bilateral deafness** in the paternal grandfather and uncle is highly suggestive of **Neurofibromatosis type 2 (NF2)**, which is inherited in an autosomal dominant pattern.
- **NF2** is characterized by the development of **bilateral vestibular schwannomas** (acoustic neuromas), which typically present with progressive hearing loss, tinnitus, and balance problems in the second or third decade of life.
- The patient's headaches and vision difficulties may represent early CNS manifestations of NF2 (meningiomas, cataracts, or other tumors).
- Unlike NF1, **skin findings in NF2 are minimal** - café-au-lait spots are rare and usually fewer than 6. The hypopigmented macules described here are atypical for NF2 but the strong family history makes this the most likely diagnosis.
*Subependymal hamartomas*
- These are characteristic findings in **Tuberous Sclerosis Complex (TSC)**, which presents with hypopigmented **ash-leaf spots**, seizures, developmental delay, and facial angiofibromas.
- TSC does not typically present with a family history of bilateral deafness, which is the key distinguishing feature pointing toward NF2 in this case.
*Optic nerve glioma*
- **Optic nerve gliomas** are associated with **Neurofibromatosis type 1 (NF1)**, which presents with multiple café-au-lait spots (≥6, and these are **hyperpigmented**, not hypopigmented), axillary/inguinal freckling, Lisch nodules, and neurofibromas.
- NF1 does not typically cause bilateral deafness, making this diagnosis less likely given the family history.
*Cerebral atrophy*
- **Cerebral atrophy** is a nonspecific finding seen in various neurodegenerative disorders, aging, or conditions causing chronic brain injury.
- It is not a characteristic or primary finding in any of the neurocutaneous syndromes suggested by this clinical presentation.
*Thyroid nodule*
- **Thyroid nodules** are common in the general population but are not specifically associated with the constellation of symptoms presented here.
- There is no direct link between NF2 and an increased risk of thyroid nodules.
Question 197: A 72-year-old African American man presents with progressive fatigue, difficulty breathing on exertion, and lower extremity swelling for 3 months. The patient was seen at the emergency department 2 times before. The first time was because of back pain, and the second was because of fever and cough. He took medications at the emergency room, but he refused to do further tests recommended to him. He does not smoke or drink alcohol. His family history is irrelevant. His vital signs include a blood pressure of 110/80 mm Hg, temperature of 37.2°C (98.9°F), and regular radial pulse of 90/min. On physical examination, the patient looks pale, and his tongue is enlarged. Jugular veins become distended on inspiration. Pitting ankle edema is present on both sides. Bilateral basal crackles are audible on the chest auscultation. Hepatomegaly is present on abdominal palpation. Chest X-ray shows osteolytic lesions of the ribs. ECG shows low voltage waves and echocardiogram shows a speckled appearance of the myocardium with diastolic dysfunction and normal appearance of the pericardium. Which of the following best describes the mechanism of this patient’s illness?
A. Thickening of the parietal pericardium with dystrophic calcification
B. Calcification of the aortic valve orifice with obstruction of the left ventricular outflow tract
C. Concentric hypertrophy of the myocytes with thickening of the interventricular septum
D. Diastolic cardiac dysfunction with reciprocal variation in ventricular filling with respiration
E. Deposition of an extracellular fibrillar protein that stains positive for Congo red in the myocardium (Correct Answer)
Explanation: - ***Deposition of an extracellular fibrillar protein that stains positive for Congo red in the myocardium***
- The patient's presentation with **progressive fatigue, dyspnea, edema, enlarged tongue, jugular venous distention with inspiration** (Kussmaul's sign), **basal crackles, hepatomegaly, osteolytic lesions, low voltage on ECG, and a speckled appearance of the myocardium on echocardiogram with diastolic dysfunction** is highly suggestive of **amyloidosis**.
- **Amyloidosis** involves the deposition of misfolded, insoluble **fibrillar proteins** in various tissues, including the heart, leading to restrictive cardiomyopathy. These amyloid deposits typically stain **positive with Congo red** and demonstrate **apple-green birefringence** under polarized light.
- *Thickening of the parietal pericardium with dystrophic calcification*
- This description is characteristic of **constrictive pericarditis**, which can cause symptoms similar to restrictive cardiomyopathy (e.g., Kussmaul's sign, edema).
- However, the echocardiogram in this patient shows a **speckled appearance of the myocardium** and a **normal pericardium**, ruling out constrictive pericarditis.
- *Calcification of the aortic valve orifice with obstruction of the left ventricular outflow tract*
- This describes **aortic stenosis**, which would lead to signs of left ventricular outflow obstruction, such as a systolic murmur and possibly left ventricular hypertrophy.
- While it can cause dyspnea and fatigue, it does not typically explain the **speckled myocardium**, **enlarged tongue**, or **osteolytic lesions** seen in this patient.
- *Concentric hypertrophy of the myocytes with thickening of the interventricular septum*
- This is characteristic of **hypertensive heart disease** or **hypertrophic cardiomyopathy**.
- While these conditions can cause diastolic dysfunction, they typically do not present with **osteolytic lesions**, **enlarged tongue**, or the **speckled appearance of the myocardium** on echocardiography that is seen in amyloidosis.
- *Diastolic cardiac dysfunction with reciprocal variation in ventricular filling with respiration*
- While **diastolic cardiac dysfunction** is present, this option is too general and describes a physiological consequence rather than the underlying mechanism for the constellation of symptoms.
- **Reciprocal variation in ventricular filling with respiration** can be seen in both restrictive cardiomyopathy and constrictive pericarditis but does not explain the specific findings of **osteolytic lesions** or **enlarged tongue**, which point towards a systemic infiltrative disease like amyloidosis.
Question 198: A 56-year-old African-American man comes to the physician for intermittent episodes of dark urine and mild flank pain. The patient has had 3 episodes of frank reddish discoloration of his urine within 1 month. He has chronic headaches and back pain for which he has been taking aspirin and ibuprofen daily for 1 year. The patient has sickle cell trait. He has smoked a pack of cigarettes daily for 10 years. He appears well. His temperature is 37.4°C (99.3°F). His pulse is 66/min, and his blood pressure is 150/90 mm Hg. Physical exam shows mild, bilateral flank tenderness. Laboratory analysis shows a serum creatinine concentration of 2.4 mg/dL. Urine studies are shown below.
Urine
Blood 3+
Protein 2+
RBC > 10/hpf
WBC 3/hpf
Which of the following is the most likely underlying cause of this patient's hematuria?
A. Direct nephrotoxic injury
B. Purulent renal inflammation
C. Renal reperfusion injury
D. Chronic hemoglobin filtration
E. Renal papillary ischemia (Correct Answer)
Explanation: ***Renal papillary ischemia***
- The patient's **sickle cell trait** predisposes him to episodes of renal papillary ischemia, which can lead to **papillary necrosis** and subsequent gross hematuria and flank pain.
- The use of **NSAIDs (aspirin and ibuprofen)** chronically can also contribute to renal papillary necrosis, exacerbating the risk in a patient with sickle cell trait.
*Direct nephrotoxic injury*
- While chronic NSAID use can cause **nephrotoxic injury**, it typically manifests as interstitial nephritis or acute kidney injury, not primarily recurrent gross hematuria.
- The level of proteinuria (2+) and absence of specific casts associated with direct toxic tubular injury make this less likely as the primary cause of hematuria.
*Purulent renal inflammation*
- This would typically present with symptoms of **urinary tract infection** (e.g., dysuria, fever), significant pyuria (WBCs > 10/hpf), and potentially bacterial casts, which are not seen here.
- The urinalysis shows only 3 WBCs/hpf, making a purulent infection unlikely.
*Renal reperfusion injury*
- This type of injury occurs after a period of **ischemia followed by restoration of blood flow**, often in the context of surgery, trauma, or organ transplantation.
- There is no history in the patient suggestive of an event that would lead to renal reperfusion injury.
*Chronic hemoglobin filtration*
- While sickle cell trait involves abnormal hemoglobin, **chronic hemoglobin filtration** itself does not typically cause the discreet episodes of gross hematuria and flank pain described.
- Hemoglobinuria without red blood cells in the urine is characteristic of chronic intravascular hemolysis, which is not indicated by the RBCs > 10/hpf.
Question 199: A 67-year-old male presents with left hip pain. Examination reveals mild effusions in both knees, with crepitus in both patellofemoral joints. He states his hearing has worsened recently and that he feels like his hats don't fit anymore. Bone scan reveals diffuse uptake in the calvarium, right proximal femur, and left ilium. Which of the following laboratory abnormalities would be expected in this patient?
A. Increased serum calcium
B. Increased serum alkaline phosphatase (Correct Answer)
C. Decreased serum alkaline phosphatase
D. Increased serum parathyroid hormone
E. Decreased serum parathyroid hormone
Explanation: ***Increased serum alkaline phosphatase***
- The clinical picture (hip pain, worsened hearing, hats not fitting, diffuse bone uptake on scan) is highly suggestive of **Paget's disease of bone**.
- In Paget's disease, there is increased bone turnover with excessive osteoclastic activity followed by compensatory, disorganized osteoblastic activity, leading to a marked elevation in **serum alkaline phosphatase (ALP)**, a marker of osteoblastic activity.
*Increased serum calcium*
- While bone breakdown occurs in Paget's disease, hypercalcemia is uncommon; it usually only occurs in immobilized patients.
- The bone remodeling is typically balanced, with increased formation countering increased resorption.
*Decreased serum alkaline phosphatase*
- Paget's disease is characterized by significantly *increased* bone turnover and osteoblastic activity, leading to **elevated** rather than decreased serum alkaline phosphatase.
- A decreased ALP level would suggest conditions like hypophosphatasia, not Paget's disease.
*Increased serum parathyroid hormone*
- **Primary hyperparathyroidism** would lead to increased PTH, causing hypercalcemia and bone resorption, but the widespread, disorganized bone changes and localized uptake on a bone scan are more consistent with Paget's disease.
- Increased PTH is not a direct consequence or feature of uncomplicated Paget's disease.
*Decreased serum parathyroid hormone*
- This would typically be seen in states of hypercalcemia not driven by PTH, or in conditions like primary hypoparathyroidism.
- There is no direct mechanism in Paget's disease that would cause decreased PTH levels.
Question 200: A 23-year-old woman presents to the emergency department with a 3-day history of fever and headache. She says that the symptoms started suddenly after she woke up 3 days ago, though she has been feeling increasingly fatigued over the last 5 months. On presentation, her temperature is 102°F (38.9°C), blood pressure is 117/74 mmHg, pulse is 106/min, and respirations are 14/min. Physical exam reveals diffuse petechiae and conjunctival pallor and selected laboratory results are shown as follows:
Bleeding time: 11 minutes
Platelet count: 68,000/mm^3
Lactate dehydrogenase: 105 U/L
Which of the following would also most likely be true for this patient?
A. Increased serum von Willebrand factor multimers (Correct Answer)
B. Large platelets on peripheral blood smear
C. Immune production of anti-platelet antibodies
D. Decreased platelet aggregation on platelet function studies
E. Increased prothrombin time and partial thromboplastin time
Explanation: ***Increased serum von Willebrand factor multimers***
- This patient's presentation with **fever**, **thrombocytopenia** (platelet count 68,000/mm^3), **fatigue**, and **petechiae** suggests **Thrombotic Thrombocytopenic Purpura (TTP)**.
- TTP is characterized by a deficiency of **ADAMTS13**, which normally cleaves large **von Willebrand factor (vWF) multimers**. Without ADAMTS13 activity, these large multimers accumulate, leading to widespread platelet adhesion and microthrombi formation.
*Large platelets on peripheral blood smear*
- The presence of **large platelets** (macrocytosis) on a peripheral blood smear is typically associated with conditions where platelet production is increased or dysplastic, such as in **Immune Thrombocytopenic Purpura (ITP)** or myelodysplastic syndromes.
- In TTP, platelets are consumed rapidly in the microvasculature, and the morphology of remaining platelets isn't typically characterized by uniformly large size, although some megakaryocyte fragments might be seen.
*Immune production of anti-platelet antibodies*
- **Immune Thrombocytopenic Purpura (ITP)** is characterized by the production of autoantibodies against platelets, leading to their destruction.
- While ITP can cause thrombocytopenia and petechiae, the presence of **fever** and the systemic nature of symptoms (fatigue, potential renal/neurological involvement not explicitly ruled out) in this case point more strongly towards TTP.
*Decreased platelet aggregation on peripheral blood smear*
- Platelet aggregation tests evaluate platelet function. While there is a functional defect leading to microthrombi in TTP, the problem is related to inappropriate activation by large vWF multimers, not an inherent inability of platelets to aggregate in response to standard stimuli in vitro.
- **Decreased platelet aggregation** is more characteristic of intrinsic platelet disorders or the effect of antiplatelet medications.
*Increased prothrombin time and partial thromboplastin time*
- **Activated partial thromboplastin time (aPTT)** and **prothrombin time (PT)** measure the integrity of the coagulation cascade.
- In TTP, the primary defect is in platelet adhesion and aggregation due to vWF abnormalities, not in the coagulation cascade. Therefore, these coagulation times are typically **normal** in TTP, distinguishing it from conditions like **Disseminated Intravascular Coagulation (DIC)**.