A 35-year-old woman comes to the physician because of a 3-month history of progressive fatigue, shortness of breath, and pain in her knees and ankles. Her temperature is 37.6°C (99.7°F). Physical examination shows mild hepatomegaly and tender, red nodules on her shins. There are purple, indurated lesions on her nose, nasolabial fold, and cheeks. A biopsy of the liver shows scattered aggregations of multinucleated giant cells with cytoplasmic inclusions and eosinophilic, needle-shaped structures arranged in a star-like pattern. Which of the following is the most likely cause of this patient's symptoms?
Q172
A 61-year-old woman comes to the physician because of a constant, dull headache and generalized body pains for the past 8 months. She has also had difficulty hearing from her left side, which started a month after the onset of the headaches. Five months ago, she had surgery to correct a fracture of the right femur that occurred without a fall or any significant trauma. Five years ago, she underwent a total thyroidectomy for localized thyroid carcinoma. She takes levothyroxine and calcium supplements, which she started after menopause. Physical examination reveals a prominent forehead and irregular, tender skull surface. Bony tenderness is present over bilateral hip and knee joints, with decreased range of motion of the right hip joint and increased anterior curvature of both tibias. Laboratory studies show a highly elevated level of alkaline phosphatase, with vitamin D, calcium and PTH levels within normal limits. A plain x-ray of the head is most likely to show which of the following findings?
Q173
A 48-year-old man is being evaluated for an acquired defect of the myeloid stem cell line with a mutation in the PIG-A gene. His diagnosis was first suspected due to anemia and recurrent pink-tinged urine. Which of the markers will be negative in the flow cytometry test for his condition?
Q174
A 13-year-old girl is brought to the pediatrician due to a 4-month history of heavy vaginal bleeding during menstrual periods. She endorses episodes of bleeding gums after brushing her teeth and experienced prolonged bleeding after tonsillectomy 6 years ago. Her mother states that she bled significantly during childbirth and that the girl’s older brother has similar symptoms including easy bruising. Vitals were stable and physical exam was not revealing. Laboratory studies show:
Platelet count: 72,000/mm^3
Bleeding time: 14 min
Prothrombin time: 12 secs (INR = 1)
Partial thromboplastin time: 40 secs
Blood smear demonstrates increased megakaryocytes and enlarged platelets. Platelets do not aggregate to ristocetin. Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?
Q175
A 43-year-old man comes to the physician for a 1-week history of swelling around his eyes and decreased urination. His pulse is 87/min, and blood pressure is 152/95 mm Hg. Physical examination shows 1+ periorbital and pretibial edema. Serum studies show a urea nitrogen concentration of 21 mg/dL and a creatinine concentration of 1.4 mg/dL. Urinalysis shows 3+ blood and 1+ protein. Further evaluation of this patient is most likely to show which of the following?
Q176
A 43-year-old woman comes to the physician because of a 6-week history of hoarseness and difficulty swallowing. She also has a history of lower back pain treated with ibuprofen. She is 162 cm (5 ft 4 in) tall and weighs 77 kg (169 lb); BMI is 29 kg/m2. Her pulse is 64/min and blood pressure is 130/86 mm Hg. Physical examination shows dry skin, swelling of the lower extremities, and a hard nontender anterior neck swelling that does not move with swallowing. Femoral and pedal pulses are decreased bilaterally. A biopsy of the neck swelling is most likely to show which of the following findings?
Q177
A 33-year-old Caucasian female presents to her primary care provider for skin problems and difficulty breathing. She has not sought medical care in over 10 years due to anxiety around physicians. However, she has experienced gradual onset of diffuse pruritus, skin induration, and limited finger mobility over the past 5 years that has negatively impacted her work as an accountant. More recently, she has developed exertional shortness of breath and is concerned that it may impact her ability to care for her 3-year-old son. She reports no prior medical conditions and takes fish oil. She smokes 1 pack of cigarettes per day and drinks socially. Her temperature is 98.6°F (37°C), blood pressure is 145/85 mmHg, pulse is 85/min, and respirations are 22/min. On exam, she appears anxious with minimally increased work of breathing. Dry rales are heard at her lung bases bilaterally. Her fingers appear shiny and do not have wrinkles on the skin folds. A normal S1 and S2 are heard on cardiac auscultation. This patient’s lung disease is caused by increased secretion of which of the following substances within the lungs?
Q178
A 38-year-old woman was brought to the emergency department after she experienced dizziness and shortness of breath while walking with her friend. She recently immigrated to the United States and is unable to report her previous medical history. Physical exam reveals pallor underneath her eyelids. Labs are obtained with the following results:
Hemoglobin: 8.4 g/dL
Platelet count: 62,000/mm^3
Mean corpuscular volume: 89 µm^3
Reticulocyte count: 0.1%
Lactate dehydrogenase: 175 U/L
Which of the following is associated with the most likely cause of this patient's symptoms?
Q179
A 32-year-old woman presents with a 3-month history of intermittent blurred vision and problems walking. The patient states that she often feels “pins and needles” in her legs that cause her problems when she’s walking. The patient is afebrile, and her vital signs are within normal limits. An autoimmune disorder is suspected. Which of the following findings would most likely be present in this patient?
Q180
A 7-year-old boy is brought to the emergency department by his parents. He is complaining of left-sided knee pain which has progressively increased in severity over the past 2 days. It started when he was playing football with his brothers but he does not recall falling or getting any injury. Past medical history is significant for prolonged bleeding and easy bruising. His maternal uncle has similar problems. Physical exam reveals swollen and painful left knee. His laboratory investigations reveal:
Hemoglobin 11.8 g/dL
WBC count 7,000/mL
Platelets 250,000/mL
INR 0.9
aPTT 62 sec, fully corrected with a mixing study
Which of the following disorders have the same mode of inheritance as this patient’s disease?
Systemic Pathology US Medical PG Practice Questions and MCQs
Question 171: A 35-year-old woman comes to the physician because of a 3-month history of progressive fatigue, shortness of breath, and pain in her knees and ankles. Her temperature is 37.6°C (99.7°F). Physical examination shows mild hepatomegaly and tender, red nodules on her shins. There are purple, indurated lesions on her nose, nasolabial fold, and cheeks. A biopsy of the liver shows scattered aggregations of multinucleated giant cells with cytoplasmic inclusions and eosinophilic, needle-shaped structures arranged in a star-like pattern. Which of the following is the most likely cause of this patient's symptoms?
A. Hypereosinophilic syndrome
B. Hemochromatosis
C. Sarcoidosis (Correct Answer)
D. Serum sickness
E. Systemic lupus erythematosus
Explanation: ***Sarcoidosis***
- The constellation of **fatigue**, **dyspnea**, **polyarthritis**, **hepatomegaly**, **erythema nodosum** (tender, red nodules on shins), and facial lesions consistent with **lupus pernio** (purple, indurated lesions on nose, nasolabial fold, and cheeks) strongly points to multisystem involvement characteristic of sarcoidosis.
- The liver biopsy findings of **scattered aggregations of multinucleated giant cells with cytoplasmic inclusions** and **eosinophilic, needle-shaped structures arranged in a star-like pattern** describes **non-caseating granulomas** with **asteroid bodies** and **Schaumann bodies**, which are pathognomonic for sarcoidosis.
*Hypereosinophilic syndrome*
- This syndrome is characterized by **persistent eosinophilia** (>1.5 x 10^9/L for >6 months) and organ damage due to eosinophil infiltration, but the biopsy findings and specific skin lesions presented are not typical.
- While it can affect multiple organs, including the skin and heart, it would not typically present with the described granulomatous features or lupus pernio.
*Hemochromatosis*
- Hemochromatosis is an **iron overload disorder** leading to iron deposition in various organs, causing fatigue, arthralgia, and hepatomegaly, but the skin lesions described and the specific biopsy findings of granulomas are not characteristic.
- The classic skin presentation in hemochromatosis is generally a **bronze pigmentation**, not the nodular lesions or lupus pernio described.
*Serum sickness*
- Serum sickness is a **Type III hypersensitivity reaction** typically manifesting with fever, rash (often urticarial), arthralgia, and lymphadenopathy, usually arising 7-14 days after exposure to certain agents (e.g., antitoxins, medications).
- It does not cause the specific granulomatous liver changes or chronic skin lesions like erythema nodosum or lupus pernio seen in this patient.
*Systemic lupus erythematosus*
- SLE is a **multisystem autoimmune disease** that can present with fatigue, arthralgia, and skin manifestations, but the classical skin lesions are often malar rash or discoid lupus, and the liver biopsy findings of non-caseating granulomas are not typical.
- While lupus can affect the liver, it usually manifests as autoimmune hepatitis or fatty liver, not the specific granulomatous pathology seen here.
Question 172: A 61-year-old woman comes to the physician because of a constant, dull headache and generalized body pains for the past 8 months. She has also had difficulty hearing from her left side, which started a month after the onset of the headaches. Five months ago, she had surgery to correct a fracture of the right femur that occurred without a fall or any significant trauma. Five years ago, she underwent a total thyroidectomy for localized thyroid carcinoma. She takes levothyroxine and calcium supplements, which she started after menopause. Physical examination reveals a prominent forehead and irregular, tender skull surface. Bony tenderness is present over bilateral hip and knee joints, with decreased range of motion of the right hip joint and increased anterior curvature of both tibias. Laboratory studies show a highly elevated level of alkaline phosphatase, with vitamin D, calcium and PTH levels within normal limits. A plain x-ray of the head is most likely to show which of the following findings?
A. Mixed lytic and sclerotic lesions (Correct Answer)
B. Periosteal trabeculations with radiolucent marrow hyperplasia
C. Generalized dense, sclerotic bone
D. Multiple, well-defined, punched out lytic lesions
E. Lytic lesions with no sclerotic margin
Explanation: ***Mixed lytic and sclerotic lesions***
- The patient's symptoms (headache, hearing loss, pathological fracture, bony pain, prominent forehead, enlarged skull, increased tibial curvature, and elevated alkaline phosphatase with normal calcium and PTH) are classic for **Paget's disease of bone**.
- **Paget's disease** is characterized by disorganized bone remodeling, which radiographically appears as a mixture of osteolytic (bone destruction) and osteosclerotic (bone formation) lesions, often described as a "cotton wool" appearance in the skull.
*Periosteal trabeculations with radiolucent marrow hyperplasia*
- This finding is more characteristic of conditions like **myelofibrosis**, where there is marrow replacement and extramedullary hematopoiesis, leading to bony changes.
- While Paget's can affect bone structure, it primarily involves remodeling within the bone itself rather than periosteal trabeculations and marrow hyperplasia as a primary radiological feature.
*Generalized dense, sclerotic bone*
- **Osteopetrosis** (Albers-Schönberg disease) is characterized by excessively dense, brittle bones due to defective osteoclast function, leading to generalized sclerosis.
- The clinical presentation with mixed lytic and sclerotic phases, hearing loss, and characteristic bone deformities points away from uniform bone sclerosis.
*Multiple, well-defined, punched out lytic lesions*
- This finding is most suggestive of **multiple myeloma**, a plasma cell malignancy that causes discrete areas of bone destruction without much osteoblastic (bone-forming) activity.
- The patient's symptoms, particularly the prominent forehead, increased tibial curvature, and highly elevated alkaline phosphatase, are not typical of multiple myeloma.
*Lytic lesions with no sclerotic margin*
- This pattern can be seen in aggressive **metastatic bone disease** (e.g., from renal cell carcinoma or thyroid carcinoma, although the patient had a thyroidectomy 5 years ago for localized cancer, making widespread metastases less likely to present this way).
- While Paget's does have lytic phases, the entire clinical picture and the eventual mixed lytic-sclerotic appearance differentiate it from purely lytic, unsclerofed lesions of aggressive metastatic disease.
Question 173: A 48-year-old man is being evaluated for an acquired defect of the myeloid stem cell line with a mutation in the PIG-A gene. His diagnosis was first suspected due to anemia and recurrent pink-tinged urine. Which of the markers will be negative in the flow cytometry test for his condition?
A. CD18
B. CD3
C. CD19
D. CD40L
E. CD55 (Correct Answer)
Explanation: ***CD55***
- This patient presents with symptoms and genetic findings (PIG-A mutation) consistent with **Paroxysmal Nocturnal Hemoglobinuria (PNH)**. PNH is characterized by a defect in the synthesis of **GPI anchors**, which attach certain proteins, like CD55 (DAF) and CD59 (MIRL), to the cell surface.
- In PNH, cells lacking GPI anchors, specifically **erythrocytes, granulocytes, and monocytes**, will show reduced or absent expression of CD55 and CD59 on flow cytometry, making CD55 a key diagnostic marker that will be **negative**.
*CD18*
- **CD18** is part of the **integrin family** and is expressed on **leukocytes**, playing a crucial role in cell adhesion and migration. It is not directly affected by the PIG-A gene mutation or the GPI anchor deficiency seen in PNH.
- Its expression would typically be normal in PNH patients.
*CD3*
- **CD3** is a surface marker specific to **T lymphocytes**, involved in T-cell receptor signaling. PNH primarily affects myeloid stem cells and their descendants, leading to GPI anchor deficiency on cells like erythrocytes, granulocytes, and monocytes.
- T-lymphocytes are generally not affected by the PIG-A mutation, so CD3 expression would be normal.
*CD19*
- **CD19** is a marker expressed on **B lymphocytes** and is involved in B-cell development and activation. The PIG-A mutation and subsequent GPI anchor deficiency primarily impact myeloid cells and, to a lesser extent, erythroid cells.
- B-lymphocytes are not typically affected by the GPI-anchor deficiency; therefore, CD19 expression would be normal.
*CD40L*
- **CD40L (CD154)** is a protein expressed on activated **T lymphocytes** and plays a critical role in T-cell-dependent B-cell activation and antibody production. Like CD3, it relates to T-cell function and is not directly linked to the PIG-A mutation or GPI anchor deficiency in PNH.
- Its expression would not be negative in this condition.
Question 174: A 13-year-old girl is brought to the pediatrician due to a 4-month history of heavy vaginal bleeding during menstrual periods. She endorses episodes of bleeding gums after brushing her teeth and experienced prolonged bleeding after tonsillectomy 6 years ago. Her mother states that she bled significantly during childbirth and that the girl’s older brother has similar symptoms including easy bruising. Vitals were stable and physical exam was not revealing. Laboratory studies show:
Platelet count: 72,000/mm^3
Bleeding time: 14 min
Prothrombin time: 12 secs (INR = 1)
Partial thromboplastin time: 40 secs
Blood smear demonstrates increased megakaryocytes and enlarged platelets. Platelets do not aggregate to ristocetin. Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?
A. Glanzmann thrombasthenia
B. Idiopathic thrombocytopenic purpura (ITP)
C. Bernard-Soulier syndrome (Correct Answer)
D. Aspirin or NSAID use
E. von Willebrand disease (vWD)
Explanation: ***Bernard-Soulier syndrome***
- The patient presents with **thrombocytopenia** (platelet count 72,000/mm^3), **prolonged bleeding time** (14 min), and **enlarged platelets** and **megakaryocytes** on blood smear.
- The key diagnostic feature is the **failure of platelets to aggregate to ristocetin**, indicating a defect in the GPIb-IX-V receptor complex which mediates platelet adhesion to von Willebrand factor. This clinical picture in a patient with a family history of bleeding is classic for Bernard-Soulier syndrome.
*Glanzmann thrombasthenia*
- This condition is characterized by a defect in the **GPIIb/IIIa receptor**, which is crucial for platelet aggregation; however, patients with Glanzmann thrombasthenia typically have a **normal platelet count** and **normal platelet morphology**.
- Platelets in Glanzmann thrombasthenia would fail to aggregate to ADP, collagen, and epinephrine, but aggregation to **ristocetin** would generally be normal (unless very high concentrations are used), making it less likely given the specific finding of failed ristocetin aggregation and thrombocytopenia.
*Idiopathic thrombocytopenic purpura (ITP)*
- ITP causes isolated **thrombocytopenia** (low platelet count) and **increased megakaryocytes** in the bone marrow, but platelets are typically of **normal size** or may be **larger than normal** but not giant platelets.
- While ITP would cause a prolonged bleeding time, it would not typically show **enlarged platelets** on blood smear, nor would the platelets specifically fail to aggregate to ristocetin due to a receptor defect.
*Aspirin or NSAID use*
- Aspirin and NSAIDs inhibit **cyclooxygenase**, leading to impaired platelet aggregation and a **prolonged bleeding time**, but they do not cause **thrombocytopenia** or changes in **platelet morphology** like enlarged platelets or increased megakaryocytes.
- Platelet aggregation to ristocetin would be normal in the context of aspirin or NSAID use, as the GP Ib-IX-V and GP IIb/IIIa complexes are unaffected.
*von Willebrand disease (vWD)*
- vWD involves a deficiency or defect in **von Willebrand factor**, leading to impaired platelet adhesion and sometimes reduced factor VIII levels, which causes a **prolonged bleeding time**; however, platelet count and morphology are typically **normal**.
- While vWD can show decreased ristocetin-induced platelet aggregation, it does **not present with thrombocytopenia** or **enlarged platelets/megakaryocytes** as seen in this patient.
Question 175: A 43-year-old man comes to the physician for a 1-week history of swelling around his eyes and decreased urination. His pulse is 87/min, and blood pressure is 152/95 mm Hg. Physical examination shows 1+ periorbital and pretibial edema. Serum studies show a urea nitrogen concentration of 21 mg/dL and a creatinine concentration of 1.4 mg/dL. Urinalysis shows 3+ blood and 1+ protein. Further evaluation of this patient is most likely to show which of the following?
A. Urinary rhomboid crystals
B. Renal interstitial inflammation
C. Hypoalbuminemia
D. Detached renal tubular epithelial cells
E. Red blood cell casts (Correct Answer)
Explanation: ***Red blood cell casts***
- The patient's presentation with **periorbital and pretibial edema**, **hypertension**, elevated **creatinine**, **hematuria** (3+ blood), and mild **proteinuria** (1+ protein) is highly suggestive of **acute glomerulonephritis**.
- **Red blood cell casts** are pathognomonic for **glomerulonephritis**, indicating that red blood cells are leaking from the glomeruli and congealing in the renal tubules.
*Urinary rhomboid crystals*
- **Urinary rhomboid crystals** are typically associated with conditions like **uric acid nephrolithiasis** or gout, which are not suggested by the patient's symptoms or lab findings.
- Their presence would indicate a risk for **kidney stones**, not evidence of glomerular inflammation.
*Renal interstitial inflammation*
- **Renal interstitial inflammation** is characteristic of **acute interstitial nephritis**, which often presents with fever, rash, eosinophilia, and flank pain, usually due to drug reactions or infections.
- While kidney injury can occur, the primary findings of **hematuria** and **proteinuria** in this context strongly point away from an interstitial process as the initial diagnosis.
*Hypoalbuminemia*
- **Hypoalbuminemia** is a hallmark of **nephrotic syndrome**, characterized by severe proteinuria (>3.5 g/day), significant edema, and hyperlipidemia.
- This patient has only 1+ proteinuria, which is not severe enough to cause significant hypoalbuminemia or the full nephrotic picture.
*Detached renal tubular epithelial cells*
- **Detached renal tubular epithelial cells** and **tubular cell casts** are characteristic findings in **acute tubular necrosis (ATN)**, usually resulting from ischemia or nephrotoxins.
- While ATN can cause acute kidney injury, the prominent **hematuria** and **hypertension** in this case are more indicative of a glomerular process than tubular damage.
Question 176: A 43-year-old woman comes to the physician because of a 6-week history of hoarseness and difficulty swallowing. She also has a history of lower back pain treated with ibuprofen. She is 162 cm (5 ft 4 in) tall and weighs 77 kg (169 lb); BMI is 29 kg/m2. Her pulse is 64/min and blood pressure is 130/86 mm Hg. Physical examination shows dry skin, swelling of the lower extremities, and a hard nontender anterior neck swelling that does not move with swallowing. Femoral and pedal pulses are decreased bilaterally. A biopsy of the neck swelling is most likely to show which of the following findings?
A. Atypical nuclei and concentric lamellar calcifications
B. Giant cells and noncaseating granulomas
C. Lymphocytic infiltrate and germinal center formation
D. Collagen deposition and decreased number of follicles (Correct Answer)
E. Spindle cells and areas of focal necrosis
Explanation: ***Collagen deposition and decreased number of follicles***
- The patient's symptoms of **hoarseness**, **difficulty swallowing**, **dry skin**, **lower extremity swelling**, and **decreased pulses** suggest **hypothyroidism**.
- The presence of a **hard, nontender anterior neck swelling that does not move with swallowing** points towards a **fibrotic thyroiditis**, specifically **Riedel's thyroiditis**, which is characterized by extensive **collagen deposition** and a reduction in normal thyroid follicles.
*Atypical nuclei and concentric lamellar calcifications*
- This describes **psammoma bodies** and atypical nuclei, which are characteristic of **papillary thyroid carcinoma**.
- While thyroid cancer can cause hoarseness and dysphagia, the diffuse, hard, nontender neck swelling, and systemic symptoms of hypothyroidism are less typical for papillary carcinoma.
*Giant cells and noncaseating granulomas*
- This histological finding is characteristic of **De Quervain's (subacute) thyroiditis**, which typically presents with a **painful** thyroid gland and often precedes a transient hypothyroid phase.
- The patient's thyroid swelling is explicitly described as **nontender**, ruling out De Quervain's.
*Lymphocytic infiltrate and germinal center formation*
- This describes **Hashimoto's thyroiditis**, which is an autoimmune cause of hypothyroidism and diffuse goiter, but the goiter is usually **rubbery** and not typically described as **hard** and fixed like in this case.
- While it causes hypothyroidism, the fibrotic nature of the mass and lack of mobility suggest a more chronic, sclerosing process.
*Spindle cells and areas of focal necrosis*
- This is a description more consistent with an **anaplastic thyroid carcinoma**, a highly aggressive malignancy.
- While anaplastic carcinoma can cause rapid neck swelling, hoarseness, and dysphagia, the other systemic signs of hypothyroidism are less directly indicative of anaplastic carcinoma itself.
Question 177: A 33-year-old Caucasian female presents to her primary care provider for skin problems and difficulty breathing. She has not sought medical care in over 10 years due to anxiety around physicians. However, she has experienced gradual onset of diffuse pruritus, skin induration, and limited finger mobility over the past 5 years that has negatively impacted her work as an accountant. More recently, she has developed exertional shortness of breath and is concerned that it may impact her ability to care for her 3-year-old son. She reports no prior medical conditions and takes fish oil. She smokes 1 pack of cigarettes per day and drinks socially. Her temperature is 98.6°F (37°C), blood pressure is 145/85 mmHg, pulse is 85/min, and respirations are 22/min. On exam, she appears anxious with minimally increased work of breathing. Dry rales are heard at her lung bases bilaterally. Her fingers appear shiny and do not have wrinkles on the skin folds. A normal S1 and S2 are heard on cardiac auscultation. This patient’s lung disease is caused by increased secretion of which of the following substances within the lungs?
A. Interleukin 1
B. Tumor necrosis factor alpha
C. Interleukin 2
D. Transforming growth factor beta (Correct Answer)
E. Interferon gamma
Explanation: ***Transforming growth factor beta***
- The patient's symptoms of **diffuse pruritus, skin induration, limited finger mobility**, exertional shortness of breath, and **shiny fingers without wrinkles** are highly suggestive of **systemic sclerosis (scleroderma)**.
- The lung disease in scleroderma, often **interstitial lung disease (ILD)**, is characterized by **fibrosis driven by excessive collagen deposition**, a process significantly mediated by **transforming growth factor beta (TGF-β)**.
*Interleukin 1*
- **Interleukin-1 (IL-1)** is a pro-inflammatory cytokine primarily involved in acute inflammation and fever, not directly implicated as the primary driver of fibrosis in scleroderma-associated lung disease.
- While IL-1 can contribute to inflammation in various autoimmune diseases, it does not directly stimulate the **fibrotic pathways** in the same manner as TGF-β.
*Tumor necrosis factor alpha*
- **Tumor necrosis factor-alpha (TNF-α)** is a prominent pro-inflammatory cytokine involved in many autoimmune and inflammatory conditions, including rheumatoid arthritis.
- Although it plays a role in the inflammatory process, TNF-α is not considered the primary mediator responsible for the **fibrotic changes** seen in systemic sclerosis.
*Interleukin 2*
- **Interleukin-2 (IL-2)** is crucial for the proliferation and differentiation of T cells, particularly regulatory T cells, and is primarily involved in immune regulation and response to infection.
- Its direct role in the **pathogenesis of fibrosis** in the context of scleroderma-associated lung disease is not as central as that of TGF-β.
*Interferon gamma*
- **Interferon-gamma (IFN-γ)** is a cytokine predominantly associated with anti-viral responses and the activation of macrophages and natural killer cells in cell-mediated immunity.
- While it has immunomodulatory effects, IFN-γ is generally considered to have **anti-fibrotic properties** in some contexts, rather than promoting fibrosis in scleroderma.
Question 178: A 38-year-old woman was brought to the emergency department after she experienced dizziness and shortness of breath while walking with her friend. She recently immigrated to the United States and is unable to report her previous medical history. Physical exam reveals pallor underneath her eyelids. Labs are obtained with the following results:
Hemoglobin: 8.4 g/dL
Platelet count: 62,000/mm^3
Mean corpuscular volume: 89 µm^3
Reticulocyte count: 0.1%
Lactate dehydrogenase: 175 U/L
Which of the following is associated with the most likely cause of this patient's symptoms?
A. Living in an old house
B. Recent infection with a toxin producing gram-negative rod
C. Vegan diet
D. Chronic alcohol abuse
E. Administration of a 50S ribosomal inhibitor (Correct Answer)
Explanation: ***Administration of a 50S ribosomal inhibitor***
- The patient's symptoms (dizziness, shortness of breath, pallor) and lab results (anemia, thrombocytopenia, normal MCV, very low reticulocyte count) are highly suggestive of **aplastic anemia**.
- Aplastic anemia is often caused by exposure to toxins or medications; **chloramphenicol**, a 50S ribosomal inhibitor, is a classic cause of dose-independent, idiosyncratic aplastic anemia.
*Living in an old house*
- Living in an old house is associated with **lead poisoning**, which typically causes a **microcytic anemia** with **basophilic stippling**, not normocytic anemia with thrombocytopenia and low reticulocytes.
- Lead poisoning does not typically cause severe thrombocytopenia as seen in this patient.
*Recent infection with a toxin producing gram-negative rod*
- This scenario would suggest **hemolytic uremic syndrome (HUS)**, which presents with microangiopathic hemolytic anemia, thrombocytopenia, and acute kidney injury.
- The patient's **normal LDH** and **low reticulocyte count** argue against hemolysis as the primary cause of anemia.
*Vegan diet*
- A vegan diet can lead to **vitamin B12 deficiency**, which causes **macrocytic anemia**, often with pancytopenia.
- This patient has a **normal MCV (89 µm^3)**, ruling out macrocytic anemia.
*Chronic alcohol abuse*
- Chronic alcohol abuse can cause **folate deficiency** leading to **macrocytic anemia** and **thrombocytopenia**.
- The patient's **normal MCV** makes macrocytic anemia due to folate deficiency unlikely.
Question 179: A 32-year-old woman presents with a 3-month history of intermittent blurred vision and problems walking. The patient states that she often feels “pins and needles” in her legs that cause her problems when she’s walking. The patient is afebrile, and her vital signs are within normal limits. An autoimmune disorder is suspected. Which of the following findings would most likely be present in this patient?
A. Damaged myelin sheath and myelin-producing cells (Correct Answer)
B. Absence of interneurons
C. Destruction of blood-brain barrier
D. Degeneration of anterior horn cells
E. Decreased cerebrospinal fluid due to destruction of cells
Explanation: ***Damaged myelin sheath and myelin-producing cells***
- The patient's symptoms of intermittent **blurred vision** (optic neuritis), **problems walking** (ataxia, spasticity), and **paresthesias** ("pins and needles") are classical presentations of Multiple Sclerosis (MS).
- MS is characterized by multifocal areas of inflammation and **demyelination** in the central nervous system, where the **myelin sheath** surrounding axons is damaged, and the **oligodendrocytes** (myelin-producing cells) are attacked.
- This demyelination disrupts saltatory conduction, leading to the varied and intermittent neurological symptoms.
*Absence of interneurons*
- The absence of **interneurons** is typically associated with conditions like **spinal muscular atrophy** or certain **neuropathies**, which present with different clinical features (e.g., muscle weakness, atrophy) than those described.
- While interneurons are crucial for neuronal communication, their absence doesn't explain the *intermittent* and multifocal symptoms seen in this case.
*Destruction of blood-brain barrier*
- While **blood-brain barrier (BBB) breakdown** does occur in MS, it is a *consequence* of the inflammatory process rather than the primary *pathological finding* that directly explains the neurological symptoms.
- BBB destruction allows inflammatory cells to enter the CNS, contributing to demyelination, but the core issue remains the myelin damage itself.
*Degeneration of anterior horn cells*
- **Anterior horn cell degeneration** is the hallmark of **amyotrophic lateral sclerosis (ALS)** and **spinal muscular atrophy**, presenting with progressive muscle weakness, atrophy, and fasciculations.
- These conditions lack the sensory symptoms (paresthesias) and visual disturbances seen in this patient, and typically show a progressive rather than intermittent course.
*Decreased cerebrospinal fluid due to destruction of cells*
- **Decreased CSF volume** is not a characteristic feature of MS; in fact, CSF analysis often shows increased protein and **oligoclonal bands**.
- The destruction of cells in MS primarily affects myelin and oligodendrocytes, not cells responsible for CSF production or volume regulation.
Question 180: A 7-year-old boy is brought to the emergency department by his parents. He is complaining of left-sided knee pain which has progressively increased in severity over the past 2 days. It started when he was playing football with his brothers but he does not recall falling or getting any injury. Past medical history is significant for prolonged bleeding and easy bruising. His maternal uncle has similar problems. Physical exam reveals swollen and painful left knee. His laboratory investigations reveal:
Hemoglobin 11.8 g/dL
WBC count 7,000/mL
Platelets 250,000/mL
INR 0.9
aPTT 62 sec, fully corrected with a mixing study
Which of the following disorders have the same mode of inheritance as this patient’s disease?
A. Hereditary spherocytosis
B. Alkaptonuria
C. Duchenne muscular dystrophy (Correct Answer)
D. Sickle cell disease
E. Huntington's disease
Explanation: ***Duchenne muscular dystrophy***
- The patient's presentation with **hemarthrosis** (knee pain and swelling without trauma), **prolonged bleeding**, and **easy bruising**, along with a **prolonged aPTT** that corrects with a mixing study, is highly suggestive of **hemophilia A or B**. Both conditions are **X-linked recessive disorders**, affecting males predominantly.
- **Duchenne muscular dystrophy** is also an **X-linked recessive disorder**, making its mode of inheritance identical to the suspected diagnosis of hemophilia in this patient.
*Hereditary spherocytosis*
- This condition is inherited in an **autosomal dominant** pattern, which is different from the mode of inheritance for hemophilia.
- It is characterized by **hemolytic anemia** due to a defect in red blood cell membrane proteins.
*Alkaptonuria*
- Alkaptonuria is an **autosomal recessive** disorder, caused by a deficiency of homogentisate 1,2-dioxygenase.
- It leads to the accumulation of **homogentisic acid**, causing **dark urine** when exposed to air, **ochronosis**, and **arthropathy**, distinct from the patient's bleeding disorder.
*Sickle cell disease*
- **Sickle cell disease** is an **autosomal recessive** disorder, characterized by abnormal hemoglobin leading to chronic hemolytic anemia and vaso-occlusive crises.
- While it can cause joint pain due to avascular necrosis or infarction, its inheritance pattern is different from the patient's condition.
*Huntington's disease*
- **Huntington's disease** is an **autosomal dominant** neurodegenerative disorder that manifests with progressive motor, cognitive, and psychiatric symptoms, typically in middle age.
- Its inheritance pattern and clinical presentation are distinct from the patient's bleeding disorder.