A 33-year-old G2P2 woman presents with a history of fatigue and difficulty breathing upon exertion. She was not able to tolerate antenatal vitamin supplements due to nausea and constipation. Her vital signs include: temperature 37.0°C (98.6°F), blood pressure 112/64 mm Hg, and pulse 98/min. Physical examination reveals conjunctival pallor and spoon nails. Laboratory findings are significant for the following:
Hemoglobin 9.1 g/dL
Hematocrit 27.3%
Mean corpuscular volume (MCV) 73 μm3
Mean corpuscular hemoglobin (MCH) 21 pg/cell
Red cell distribution width (RDW) 17.5% (ref: 11.5–14.5%)
Serum ferritin 9 ng/mL
Which of the following would most likely be seen on a peripheral blood smear in this patient?
Q152
A 35-year-old G4P1 woman presents for follow-up after her 3rd miscarriage. All 3 miscarriages occurred during the 2nd trimester. Past medical history is significant for systemic lupus erythematosus (SLE) and a deep vein thrombosis (DVT) in her right lower leg 3 years ago. Her current medication is hydroxychloroquine. The patient denies any tobacco, alcohol, and illicit substance use. Her vitals include: temperature 36.8℃ (98.2℉), blood pressure 114/76 mm Hg, pulse 84/min, respiration rate 12/min. Physical examination reveals a lacy, violaceous discoloration on her lower legs. Which of the following autoantibodies would this patient most likely test positive for?
Q153
Two weeks after undergoing allogeneic stem cell transplant for multiple myeloma, a 55-year-old man develops a severely pruritic rash, abdominal cramps, and profuse diarrhea. He appears lethargic. Physical examination shows yellow sclerae. There is a generalized maculopapular rash on his face, trunk, and lower extremities, and desquamation of both soles. His serum alanine aminotransferase is 115 U/L, serum aspartate aminotransferase is 97 U/L, and serum total bilirubin is 2.7 mg/dL. Which of the following is the most likely underlying cause of this patient's condition?
Q154
A 61-year-old woman comes to the physician for evaluation of numbness and a burning sensation in her feet for the past 5 months. She has type 2 diabetes mellitus and hypercholesterolemia. Her blood pressure is 119/82 mm Hg. Neurologic examination shows decreased sensation to pinprick, light touch, and vibration over the soles of both feet. There is a nontender ulcer on the plantar surface of her left foot. Pedal pulses are strong bilaterally. Her hemoglobin A1c concentration is 8.6%. Which of the following processes is most likely involved in the pathogenesis of this patient's current symptoms?
Q155
A 59-year-old woman comes to the physician because of upper extremity weakness and fatigue for the past 4 months. She has had difficulty combing her hair and lifting objects. She has also had difficulty rising from her bed in the mornings for 2 months. Over the past month, she started using over-the-counter mouth rinses for dry mouth. She has smoked 1 pack of cigarettes daily for 40 years. Examination shows decreased deep tendon reflexes. Repetitive muscle tapping shows increased reflex activity. There are no fasciculations or muscle atrophy. A low-dose CT scan of the chest shows a 3-cm mass with heterogeneous calcifications in the center of the right lung. Which of the following is the most likely underlying mechanism responsible for this patient’s current symptoms?
Q156
A 38-year-old woman comes to the physician because of a 1-month history of fatigue and pruritus. Examination of the abdomen shows an enlarged, nontender liver. Serum studies show an alkaline phosphatase level of 140 U/L, aspartate aminotransferase activity of 18 U/L, and alanine aminotransferase activity of 19 U/L. Serum antimitochondrial antibody titers are elevated. A biopsy specimen of this patient's liver is most likely to show which of the following findings?
Q157
A 42-year-old male presents to his primary care physician with complaints of fatigue and occasionally darkened urine over the past 3 months. Upon further questioning, the patient reveals that he has regularly had dark, 'cola-colored' urine when he has urinated at night or early in the morning. However, when he urinates during the day, it appears a much lighter yellow color. Laboratory work-up is initiated and is significant for a hemoglobin of 10.1 g/dL, elevated LDH, platelet count of 101,000/uL, and leukopenia. Urinalysis, taken from an early morning void, reveals brown, tea-colored urine with hemoglobinuria and elevated levels of hemosiderin. Which of the following is responsible for this patient's presentation?
Q158
A 39-year-old man presents to the emergency room for epistaxis. He reports having frequent nosebleeds over the past 48 hours. He also reports a constant pounding headache over the same timeframe. He is accompanied by his wife who reports that he has seemed "off" lately, frequently forgetting recent events and names of his friends. His past medical history is notable for hypertension and rheumatoid arthritis. He takes lisinopril and methotrexate. He has a 10 pack-year smoking history and drinks 2-3 beers per day. His temperature is 101.1°F (38.4°C), blood pressure is 145/90 mmHg, pulse is 110/min, and respirations are 18/min. On exam, he appears pale, diaphoretic, and has mild scleral icterus. His spleen is palpable but non-tender. Laboratory analysis is shown below:
Hemoglobin: 8.9 g/dL
Hematocrit: 26%
Leukocyte count: 4,900/mm^3 with normal differential
Platelet count: 25,000/mm^3
Prothrombin time: 14 seconds
Partial thromboplastin time (activated): 27 seconds
International normalized ratio: 1.1
Bleeding time: 9 minutes
This patient has a condition that is caused by a defect in which of the following processes?
Q159
A 33-year-old woman is brought to the emergency department after she was involved in a high-speed motor vehicle collision. She reports severe pelvic pain. Her pulse is 124/min and blood pressure is 80/56 mm Hg. Physical examination shows instability of the pelvic ring. As part of the initial emergency treatment, she receives packed red blood cell transfusions. Suddenly, the patient starts bleeding from peripheral venous catheter insertion sites. Laboratory studies show decreased platelets, prolonged prothrombin time and partial thromboplastin time, and elevated D-dimer. A peripheral blood smear of this patient is most likely to show which of the following findings?
Q160
A 25-year-old African-American woman visits the doctor’s office complaining of fatigue for a couple of months. She says that she feels exhausted by the end of the day. She works as a dental assistant and is on her feet most of the time. However, she eats well and also tries to walk for 30 minutes every morning. She also says that she sometimes feels breathless and has to gasp for air, especially when she is walking or jogging. Her past medical history is insignificant, except for occasional bouts of cold during the winters. Her physical exam findings are within normal limits except for moderate conjunctival pallor. Complete blood count results and iron profile are as follows:
Hemoglobin 9 g/dL
Hematocrit 28.5%
RBC count 5.85 x 106/mm3
WBC count 5,500/mm3
Platelet count 212,000/mm3
MCV 56.1 fl
MCH 20.9 pg/cell
MCHC 25.6 g/dL
RDW 11.7% Hb/cell
Serum iron 170 mcg/dL
Total iron-binding capacity (TIBC) 458 mcg/dL
Transferrin saturation 60%
A peripheral blood smear is given. When questioned about her family history of anemia, she says that all she remembers is her dad was never allowed to donate blood as he was anemic. Which of the following most likely explains her cell counts and blood smear results?
Systemic Pathology US Medical PG Practice Questions and MCQs
Question 151: A 33-year-old G2P2 woman presents with a history of fatigue and difficulty breathing upon exertion. She was not able to tolerate antenatal vitamin supplements due to nausea and constipation. Her vital signs include: temperature 37.0°C (98.6°F), blood pressure 112/64 mm Hg, and pulse 98/min. Physical examination reveals conjunctival pallor and spoon nails. Laboratory findings are significant for the following:
Hemoglobin 9.1 g/dL
Hematocrit 27.3%
Mean corpuscular volume (MCV) 73 μm3
Mean corpuscular hemoglobin (MCH) 21 pg/cell
Red cell distribution width (RDW) 17.5% (ref: 11.5–14.5%)
Serum ferritin 9 ng/mL
Which of the following would most likely be seen on a peripheral blood smear in this patient?
A. Teardrop cells
B. Degmacytes
C. Basophilic stippling
D. Echinocytes
E. Anisopoikilocytosis (Correct Answer)
Explanation: ***Anisopoikilocytosis***
- The patient's blood work (low **hemoglobin**, **hematocrit**, **MCV**, **MCH**, and **serum ferritin**) indicates **microcytic hypochromic anemia** due to **iron deficiency**. The elevated **RDW** suggests significant variation in red blood cell size (anisocytosis) and shape (poikilocytosis), making **anisopoikilocytosis** on the smear most likely.
- **Iron deficiency anemia** is characterized by the presence of red blood cells that vary widely in size and shape on a peripheral smear. In severe cases, a wide variety of abnormal shapes are observed (poikilocytosis), along with variations in size (anisocytosis).
*Teardrop cells*
- **Teardrop cells** (dacryocytes) are typically seen in conditions like **myelofibrosis**, **thalassemia**, or other types of **myelophthisic anemia**, which are not suggested by this patient’s presentation.
- While they can be seen in severe iron deficiency, the primary and most defining feature would be the overall variation in size and shape encapsulated by anisopoikilocytosis.
*Degmacytes*
- **Degmacytes**, also known as **bite cells**, are formed when phagocytes remove denatured hemoglobin (Heinz bodies) from red blood cells, which is characteristic of **G6PD deficiency** or other **oxidative hemolytic anemias**.
- This is not consistent with the patient's presentation of iron deficiency, which is a production problem rather than a premature destruction problem.
*Basophilic stippling*
- **Basophilic stippling** refers to the presence of small, dark blue granules in red blood cells that represent aggregated ribosomes and is typically associated with conditions such as **lead poisoning**, **thalassemia**, or **sideroblastic anemia**.
- These conditions are not indicated by the patient's symptoms or lab findings.
*Echinocytes*
- **Echinocytes**, or **burr cells**, are red blood cells with evenly spaced, spiny projections and are commonly seen in **uremia**, **pyruvate kinase deficiency**, or as an artifact of slide preparation.
- They are not a characteristic finding in iron deficiency anemia.
Question 152: A 35-year-old G4P1 woman presents for follow-up after her 3rd miscarriage. All 3 miscarriages occurred during the 2nd trimester. Past medical history is significant for systemic lupus erythematosus (SLE) and a deep vein thrombosis (DVT) in her right lower leg 3 years ago. Her current medication is hydroxychloroquine. The patient denies any tobacco, alcohol, and illicit substance use. Her vitals include: temperature 36.8℃ (98.2℉), blood pressure 114/76 mm Hg, pulse 84/min, respiration rate 12/min. Physical examination reveals a lacy, violaceous discoloration on her lower legs. Which of the following autoantibodies would this patient most likely test positive for?
A. Anti-smooth muscle
B. Anti-Ro
C. Anti-Scl-70
D. Anti-centromere
E. Anti-phospholipid (Correct Answer)
Explanation: ***Anti-phospholipid***
- This patient presents with a history of **recurrent second-trimester miscarriages** and a **deep vein thrombosis (DVT)**, classic features of **antiphospholipid syndrome (APS)**.
- The **lacy, violaceous discoloration (livedo reticularis)** on her lower legs is also a common cutaneous manifestation of APS, further supporting this diagnosis.
*Anti-smooth muscle*
- **Anti-smooth muscle antibodies (ASMAs)** are primarily associated with **autoimmune hepatitis**.
- While autoimmune conditions can coexist, the patient's presentation does not include features indicative of hepatitis.
*Anti-Ro*
- **Anti-Ro (SSA) antibodies** are associated with **Sjögren's syndrome** and a subset of **systemic lupus erythematosus (SLE)**, particularly with **subacute cutaneous lupus erythematosus** and **neonatal lupus**.
- Although the patient has SLE, the key thrombotic and obstetric complications point more strongly to APS than to conditions primarily associated with anti-Ro antibodies.
*Anti-Scl-70*
- **Anti-Scl-70 antibodies** (also known as **anti-topoisomerase I**) are highly specific for **systemic sclerosis (scleroderma)**, particularly the **diffuse cutaneous form**.
- The patient's symptoms are not consistent with systemic sclerosis.
*Anti-centromere*
- **Anti-centromere antibodies** are characteristic of **CREST syndrome**, a limited form of systemic sclerosis.
- The patient's clinical picture does not align with the typical features of CREST syndrome (calcinosis, Raynaud's phenomenon, esophageal dysmotility, sclerodactyly, telangiectasias).
Question 153: Two weeks after undergoing allogeneic stem cell transplant for multiple myeloma, a 55-year-old man develops a severely pruritic rash, abdominal cramps, and profuse diarrhea. He appears lethargic. Physical examination shows yellow sclerae. There is a generalized maculopapular rash on his face, trunk, and lower extremities, and desquamation of both soles. His serum alanine aminotransferase is 115 U/L, serum aspartate aminotransferase is 97 U/L, and serum total bilirubin is 2.7 mg/dL. Which of the following is the most likely underlying cause of this patient's condition?
A. Preformed cytotoxic anti-HLA antibodies
B. Proliferating transplanted B cells
C. Activated recipient T cells
D. Donor T cells in the graft (Correct Answer)
E. Newly formed anti-HLA antibodies
Explanation: ***Donor T cells in the graft***
- The symptoms (rash, GI symptoms, liver dysfunction) after an allogeneic stem cell transplant are classic signs of **acute graft-versus-host disease (GVHD)**. This condition occurs when **immunocompetent T cells from the donor graft** recognize the recipient's tissues as foreign and mount an immune attack.
- The rapid onset within two weeks post-transplant, elevated liver enzymes, jaundice (**yellow sclerae**, **elevated bilirubin**), severe pruritic rash, and GI symptoms (**abdominal cramps**, **profuse diarrhea**) are all characteristic manifestations of acute GVHD.
*Preformed cytotoxic anti-HLA antibodies*
- Preformed antibodies would typically cause **hyperacute rejection**, which occurs within minutes to hours of transplantation and involves widespread thrombosis and necrosis of the graft, not the systemic symptoms seen here.
- This reaction is mediated by the recipient's antibodies attacking donor antigens, leading to immediate graft failure.
*Proliferating transplanted B cells*
- Transplanted B cells can contribute to chronic GVHD through antibody production, but they are not the primary mediators of **acute GVHD**; acute GVHD is predominantly a T cell-mediated process.
- Proliferation of donor B cells is more commonly associated with post-transplant lymphoproliferative disorders (PTLD) or chronic GVHD, not the acute presentation described.
*Activated recipient T cells*
- In an allogeneic transplant, the recipient's immune system is usually heavily suppressed beforehand to prevent host-versus-graft rejection.
- If recipient T cells were active, they would primarily cause **rejection of the donor stem cells** (graft rejection), not the systemic symptoms of GVHD, which is a reaction of the donor cells against the host.
*Newly formed anti-HLA antibodies*
- Newly formed antibodies the recipient develops against the donor's HLA antigens would cause graft rejection, a process often delayed but not presenting as the widespread organ damage of acute GVHD.
- These antibodies are part of the host's attempt to reject the foreign graft, not the donor cells attacking the host.
Question 154: A 61-year-old woman comes to the physician for evaluation of numbness and a burning sensation in her feet for the past 5 months. She has type 2 diabetes mellitus and hypercholesterolemia. Her blood pressure is 119/82 mm Hg. Neurologic examination shows decreased sensation to pinprick, light touch, and vibration over the soles of both feet. There is a nontender ulcer on the plantar surface of her left foot. Pedal pulses are strong bilaterally. Her hemoglobin A1c concentration is 8.6%. Which of the following processes is most likely involved in the pathogenesis of this patient's current symptoms?
A. Demyelination of posterior columns and lateral corticospinal tracts
B. Increased protein deposition in endoneural vessel walls (Correct Answer)
C. Accumulation of lipids and foam cells in arteries
D. Elevated hydrostatic pressure in arteriolar lumen
E. Osmotic damage to oligodendrocyte nerve sheaths
Explanation: ***Increased protein deposition in endoneural vessel walls***
- The patient exhibits symptoms consistent with **diabetic neuropathy**, including numbness, burning sensation, decreased sensation to pinprick, light touch, and vibration, along with a plantar ulcer and poorly controlled diabetes (HbA1c 8.6%).
- **Chronic hyperglycemia** in diabetes leads to the accumulation of advanced glycation end products (AGEs) and activation of the polyol pathway, which cause **thickening and hyalinization of endoneural vessel walls**, impairing blood flow to peripheral nerves.
*Demyelination of posterior columns and lateral corticospinal tracts*
- **Posterior column demyelination** occurs in conditions like **vitamin B12 deficiency** (subacute combined degeneration) and results in loss of vibratory and proprioceptive sensation.
- **Lateral corticospinal tract demyelination** is associated with **motor deficits** (e.g., spasticity, weakness), which are not the primary symptoms described in this patient.
*Accumulation of lipids and foam cells in arteries*
- This process describes **atherosclerosis**, which can lead to peripheral artery disease (PAD) and contribute to foot ulcers due to **ischemia**.
- However, the patient has **strong pedal pulses**, making significant atherosclerosis of the macrovessels less likely to be the primary cause of her neuropathic symptoms.
*Elevated hydrostatic pressure in arteriolar lumen*
- **Elevated hydrostatic pressure** in arterioles (hypertension) contributes to various microvascular complications, but it is not the direct or most prominent mechanism for the **nerve damage** seen in diabetic neuropathy.
- The patient's blood pressure is relatively normotensive, making this cause less likely to be the predominant factor.
*Osmotic damage to oligodendrocyte nerve sheaths*
- **Oligodendrocytes** are responsible for myelin formation in the **central nervous system**, not the peripheral nervous system.
- While osmotic damage can occur in conditions like **rapid correction of hyponatremia** (osmotic demyelination syndrome), it primarily affects the CNS and is not typically associated with chronic diabetic peripheral neuropathy.
Question 155: A 59-year-old woman comes to the physician because of upper extremity weakness and fatigue for the past 4 months. She has had difficulty combing her hair and lifting objects. She has also had difficulty rising from her bed in the mornings for 2 months. Over the past month, she started using over-the-counter mouth rinses for dry mouth. She has smoked 1 pack of cigarettes daily for 40 years. Examination shows decreased deep tendon reflexes. Repetitive muscle tapping shows increased reflex activity. There are no fasciculations or muscle atrophy. A low-dose CT scan of the chest shows a 3-cm mass with heterogeneous calcifications in the center of the right lung. Which of the following is the most likely underlying mechanism responsible for this patient’s current symptoms?
A. Metastasis
B. Infection
C. Invasion
D. Autoimmunity (Correct Answer)
E. Inflammation
Explanation: ***Autoimmunity***
- The patient's symptoms of **proximal muscle weakness**, fatigue, difficulty rising from bed, and a lung mass with **heterogeneous calcifications** (suggesting lung cancer in a heavy smoker) are highly indicative of **Lambert-Eaton myasthenic syndrome (LEMS)**, a **paraneoplastic autoimmune disorder** strongly associated with **small cell lung cancer** (60% of cases).
- LEMS is caused by **autoantibodies against presynaptic P/Q-type voltage-gated calcium channels** at the neuromuscular junction, leading to **impaired acetylcholine release** and muscle weakness. The **dry mouth** (autonomic dysfunction), **decreased reflexes that improve with repetitive muscle tapping** (post-tetanic potentiation), and absence of fasciculations or atrophy are characteristic features that distinguish LEMS from other neuromuscular disorders.
*Metastasis*
- While lung cancer can metastasize to various sites, including bone and brain, muscle weakness of this type and presentation is **unlikely to be directly caused by muscle metastases** in the absence of significant muscle atrophy or focal lesions.
- Furthermore, the specific neurological findings like **increased reflex activity with repetitive muscle tapping** (post-tetanic potentiation) and dry mouth point away from direct metastatic involvement as the primary mechanism for the muscle weakness.
*Infection*
- An infection would typically present with a more **acute onset** of symptoms, fever, or other signs of systemic inflammation, which are not described here.
- While some infections can cause muscle weakness (e.g., botulism, tetanus), the chronic nature, association with a lung mass, and specific neurological examination findings make infection a less likely primary cause.
*Invasion*
- Direct invasion of the tumor into nerves or muscles would typically cause more **focal or asymmetric weakness**, pain, or sensory deficits.
- The **generalized, proximal weakness** and the unique electrophysiological findings (repetitive muscle tapping improves reflexes) are not characteristic of direct tumor invasion.
*Inflammation*
- While some inflammatory myopathies (e.g., polymyositis or dermatomyositis) cause proximal muscle weakness, they typically present with **elevated muscle enzymes** and may have different clinical features (e.g., rash in dermatomyositis).
- The combination of a lung mass, dry mouth, and the specific neurological findings of LEMS points to a **paraneoplastic autoimmune process** rather than a primary inflammatory myopathy.
Question 156: A 38-year-old woman comes to the physician because of a 1-month history of fatigue and pruritus. Examination of the abdomen shows an enlarged, nontender liver. Serum studies show an alkaline phosphatase level of 140 U/L, aspartate aminotransferase activity of 18 U/L, and alanine aminotransferase activity of 19 U/L. Serum antimitochondrial antibody titers are elevated. A biopsy specimen of this patient's liver is most likely to show which of the following findings?
A. Intracytoplasmic eosinophilic inclusions in hepatocytes and cellular swelling
B. Ballooning degeneration and apoptosis of hepatocytes
C. Macrovesicular fatty infiltration and necrosis of hepatocytes
D. Fibrous, concentric obliteration of small and large bile ducts
E. Lymphocytic infiltration of portal areas and periductal granulomas (Correct Answer)
Explanation: ***Lymphocytic infiltration of portal areas and periductal granulomas***
- Elevated **antimitochondrial antibodies (AMAs)**, fatigue, pruritus, and cholestatic liver enzyme elevation (high alkaline phosphatase) are classic features of **primary biliary cholangitis (PBC)**.
- Liver biopsy in PBC typically reveals **nonsuppurative destructive cholangitis**, characterized by lymphocytic infiltration, inflammation, and granuloma formation around small and medium-sized bile ducts.
*Intracytoplasmic eosinophilic inclusions in hepatocytes and cellular swelling*
- This description is characteristic of **alcoholic hepatitis**, where **Mallory bodies (eosinophilic inclusions)** are found in hepatocytes.
- The patient's presentation with high alkaline phosphatase and AMAs does not suggest alcoholic liver disease.
*Ballooning degeneration and apoptosis of hepatocytes*
- These findings are more typical of **viral hepatitis** or **drug-induced liver injury**, indicating hepatocellular damage.
- While some hepatocyte injury can occur in PBC, the primary pathological process is bile duct destruction, and AMA positivity points away from these causes.
*Macrovesicular fatty infiltration and necrosis of hepatocytes*
- **Macrovesicular steatosis** is prominent in **non-alcoholic fatty liver disease (NAFLD)** or **alcoholic fatty liver disease**.
- While necrosis can occur, the combination of AMA positivity and cholestatic enzymes makes these findings less likely to be the primary diagnosis.
*Fibrous, concentric obliteration of small and large bile ducts*
- This "onion skin" fibrosis is the hallmark of **primary sclerosing cholangitis (PSC)**.
- PSC is typically associated with **inflammatory bowel disease** and **p-ANCA** positivity, not AMAs, and affects larger bile ducts more often.
Question 157: A 42-year-old male presents to his primary care physician with complaints of fatigue and occasionally darkened urine over the past 3 months. Upon further questioning, the patient reveals that he has regularly had dark, 'cola-colored' urine when he has urinated at night or early in the morning. However, when he urinates during the day, it appears a much lighter yellow color. Laboratory work-up is initiated and is significant for a hemoglobin of 10.1 g/dL, elevated LDH, platelet count of 101,000/uL, and leukopenia. Urinalysis, taken from an early morning void, reveals brown, tea-colored urine with hemoglobinuria and elevated levels of hemosiderin. Which of the following is responsible for this patient's presentation?
A. Deficiency of CD-55 and CD-59 cell membrane proteins (Correct Answer)
B. Autosomal recessive deficiency of platelet Glycoprotein IIb/IIIa receptor
C. Deficiency of C1 esterase-inhibitor
D. Autosomal dominant deficiency of spectrin protein in the RBC membrane
E. Presence of a temperature-dependent IgM autoantibody
Explanation: ***Deficiency of CD-55 and CD-59 cell membrane proteins***
- The patient's symptoms of **dark, 'cola-colored' urine** particularly in the morning, along with **fatigue**, anemia (Hb 10.1 g/dL), elevated **LDH**, **thrombocytopenia** (platelet count 101,000/uL), and leukopenia are classic findings of **Paroxysmal Nocturnal Hemoglobinuria (PNH)**.
- PNH is caused by an acquired mutation in the **PIGA gene**, leading to a deficiency of **glycosylphosphatidylinositol (GPI)-anchored proteins** on the surface of hematopoietic cells, most notably **CD55** (decay-accelerating factor) and **CD59** (membrane inhibitor of reactive lysis), which protect red blood cells from complement-mediated lysis.
*Autosomal recessive deficiency of platelet Glycoprotein IIb/IIIa receptor*
- This describes **Glanzmann's thrombasthenia**, a rare bleeding disorder characterized by severe bleeding and impaired platelet aggregation.
- It would present primarily with **mucocutaneous bleeding** (e.g., epistaxis, menorrhagia, purpura) and prolonged bleeding time after injury, not hemolytic anemia and hemoglobinuria.
*Presence of a temperature-dependent IgG autoantibody*
- This describes **cold agglutinin disease**, where **IgM antibodies** (not typically IgG) bind to red blood cells at colder temperatures, causing agglutination and hemolysis.
- The hemolysis is usually triggered by cold exposure and presents as acrocyanosis or Raynaud phenomenon, with hemoglobinuria being less prominent or nocturnal-specific.
*Deficiency of C1 esterase-inhibitor*
- This condition is responsible for **hereditary angioedema**, which is characterized by recurrent episodes of **localized swelling** of the skin, respiratory tract, or gastrointestinal tract, often without urticaria.
- It does not cause hemolytic anemia, hemoglobinuria, or cytopenias.
*Autosomal dominant deficiency of spectrin protein in the RBC membrane*
- This is the underlying cause of **hereditary spherocytosis**, characterized by fragile, spherical red blood cells that are prematurely destroyed in the spleen.
- While it causes hemolytic anemia and sometimes jaundice, it typically does not present with paroxysmal nocturnal hemoglobinuria or the associated cytopenias seen in this patient, and the urine discoloration is not usually limited to morning voids.
Question 158: A 39-year-old man presents to the emergency room for epistaxis. He reports having frequent nosebleeds over the past 48 hours. He also reports a constant pounding headache over the same timeframe. He is accompanied by his wife who reports that he has seemed "off" lately, frequently forgetting recent events and names of his friends. His past medical history is notable for hypertension and rheumatoid arthritis. He takes lisinopril and methotrexate. He has a 10 pack-year smoking history and drinks 2-3 beers per day. His temperature is 101.1°F (38.4°C), blood pressure is 145/90 mmHg, pulse is 110/min, and respirations are 18/min. On exam, he appears pale, diaphoretic, and has mild scleral icterus. His spleen is palpable but non-tender. Laboratory analysis is shown below:
Hemoglobin: 8.9 g/dL
Hematocrit: 26%
Leukocyte count: 4,900/mm^3 with normal differential
Platelet count: 25,000/mm^3
Prothrombin time: 14 seconds
Partial thromboplastin time (activated): 27 seconds
International normalized ratio: 1.1
Bleeding time: 9 minutes
This patient has a condition that is caused by a defect in which of the following processes?
A. Nucleotide excision repair
B. Porphobilinogen metabolism
C. Platelet binding to von Willebrand factor
D. Platelet binding to fibrinogen
E. Metalloproteinase-mediated protein degradation (Correct Answer)
Explanation: ***Metalloproteinase-mediated protein degradation***
- This patient's symptoms (epistaxis, headache, neurological changes, fever, anemia, thrombocytopenia, and palpable spleen) are highly suggestive of **Thrombotic Thrombocytopenic Purpura (TTP)**.
- TTP is caused by a severe deficiency of **ADAMTS13**, a metalloproteinase responsible for cleaving ultra-large **von Willebrand factor (vWF)** multimers.
*Nucleotide excision repair*
- Defects in **nucleotide excision repair** are associated with conditions like **xeroderma pigmentosum**, which presents with extreme photosensitivity and a high risk of skin cancers.
*Porphobilinogen metabolism*
- Disorders of **porphobilinogen metabolism** are seen in **acute intermittent porphyria**, characterized by acute neurovisceral attacks, but not typically accompanied by severe thrombocytopenia and microangiopathic hemolytic anemia leading to epistaxis.
*Platelet binding to von Willebrand factor*
- A defect in **platelet binding to von Willebrand factor** (e.g., in **Bernard-Soulier syndrome** due to GP Ib/IX/V deficiency) would cause bleeding, but typically features giant platelets and less severe neurological symptoms or fever as seen in TTP.
*Platelet binding to fibrinogen*
- A defect in **platelet binding to fibrinogen** (e.g., in **Glanzmann thrombasthenia** due to GP IIb/IIIa deficiency) leads to impaired aggregation and bleeding.
- This condition presents with mucocutaneous bleeding and does not typically involve the microangiopathic hemolytic anemia, organ damage, or neurological symptoms characteristic of TTP.
Question 159: A 33-year-old woman is brought to the emergency department after she was involved in a high-speed motor vehicle collision. She reports severe pelvic pain. Her pulse is 124/min and blood pressure is 80/56 mm Hg. Physical examination shows instability of the pelvic ring. As part of the initial emergency treatment, she receives packed red blood cell transfusions. Suddenly, the patient starts bleeding from peripheral venous catheter insertion sites. Laboratory studies show decreased platelets, prolonged prothrombin time and partial thromboplastin time, and elevated D-dimer. A peripheral blood smear of this patient is most likely to show which of the following findings?
A. Grouped erythrocytes with a stacked-coin appearance
B. Erythrocytes with a bullseye appearance
C. Crescent-shaped, fragmented erythrocytes (Correct Answer)
D. Erythrocytes with cytoplasmic hemoglobin inclusions
E. Erythrocytes with irregular, thorny projections
Explanation: ***Crescent-shaped, fragmented erythrocytes***
- The clinical picture of **hypotension**, **tachycardia**, **pelvic instability**, and widespread bleeding, along with laboratory findings of **decreased platelets**, **prolonged PT/PTT**, and **elevated D-dimer**, is highly suggestive of **Disseminated Intravascular Coagulation (DIC)**.
- **Fragmented erythrocytes** (schistocytes) are a hallmark of **DIC** on peripheral blood smear, as red blood cells are mechanically sheared while passing through areas of microvascular thrombosis.
*Grouped erythrocytes with a stacked-coin appearance*
- This describes **rouleaux formation**, commonly seen in conditions with **elevated plasma proteins**, such as multiple myeloma or severe inflammation.
- While inflammation can be part of trauma, the specific constellation of lab findings points more strongly to DIC, where rouleaux is not a primary diagnostic feature.
*Erythrocytes with a bullseye appearance*
- This describes **target cells**, which are characteristic of **thalassemia**, **liver disease**, or **postsplenectomy states**.
- These conditions are not indicated by the patient's acute presentation or laboratory results.
*Erythrocytes with cytoplasmic hemoglobin inclusions*
- These are **Heinz bodies**, which are denatured hemoglobin precipitates seen in conditions like **G6PD deficiency** or **unstable hemoglobin variants**.
- This patient's symptoms are acute and related to trauma and hemorrhage, not a chronic hemolytic disorder.
*Erythrocytes with irregular, thorny projections*
- This describes **acanthocytes** (spur cells), typically associated with **severe liver disease** or **abetalipoproteinemia**.
- These findings are not consistent with an acute presentation of trauma-induced coagulopathy.
Question 160: A 25-year-old African-American woman visits the doctor’s office complaining of fatigue for a couple of months. She says that she feels exhausted by the end of the day. She works as a dental assistant and is on her feet most of the time. However, she eats well and also tries to walk for 30 minutes every morning. She also says that she sometimes feels breathless and has to gasp for air, especially when she is walking or jogging. Her past medical history is insignificant, except for occasional bouts of cold during the winters. Her physical exam findings are within normal limits except for moderate conjunctival pallor. Complete blood count results and iron profile are as follows:
Hemoglobin 9 g/dL
Hematocrit 28.5%
RBC count 5.85 x 106/mm3
WBC count 5,500/mm3
Platelet count 212,000/mm3
MCV 56.1 fl
MCH 20.9 pg/cell
MCHC 25.6 g/dL
RDW 11.7% Hb/cell
Serum iron 170 mcg/dL
Total iron-binding capacity (TIBC) 458 mcg/dL
Transferrin saturation 60%
A peripheral blood smear is given. When questioned about her family history of anemia, she says that all she remembers is her dad was never allowed to donate blood as he was anemic. Which of the following most likely explains her cell counts and blood smear results?
A. Thalassemia (Correct Answer)
B. Iron-deficiency anemia
C. B12 deficiency
D. Hemolysis
E. Folate deficiency
Explanation: ***Thalassemia***
- The patient presents with **microcytic, hypochromic anemia** (low MCV, MCH, MCHC) despite elevated iron stores, which is characteristic of thalassemia.
- The **elevated RBC count** (5.85 x 10^6/mm³) in the presence of anemia (hemoglobin 9 g/dL) is a hallmark of thalassemia, as the body attempts to compensate for ineffective erythropoiesis.
- The **elevated serum iron (170 mcg/dL) and high transferrin saturation (60%)** indicate iron overload, not iron deficiency, which occurs in thalassemia due to ineffective erythropoiesis and increased iron absorption.
- The **low RDW (11.7%)** indicates uniform cell size despite microcytosis, typical of thalassemia (vs. high RDW in iron deficiency).
- **Positive family history** (father was anemic and couldn't donate blood) supports an inherited disorder.
*Iron-deficiency anemia*
- This condition typically presents with **low serum iron**, **high TIBC**, and **low transferrin saturation** (<20%), which contradicts the patient's iron profile showing elevated iron and high transferrin saturation (60%).
- While iron-deficiency anemia also causes **microcytic, hypochromic RBCs**, the RBC count would be low or normal (not elevated), and RDW would be elevated (>14%) due to anisocytosis.
*B12 deficiency*
- **B12 deficiency** causes **macrocytic anemia** (high MCV >100 fl), which is inconsistent with the patient's low MCV (56.1 fl).
- It also often presents with neurological symptoms (peripheral neuropathy, subacute combined degeneration), which are absent in this case.
*Hemolysis*
- While hemolysis can cause anemia and fatigue, it is usually associated with elevated **reticulocyte count**, **indirect bilirubin**, and **LDH**, and decreased **haptoglobin**, none of which are indicated here.
- Hemolysis typically presents with **normocytic anemia** (normal MCV), not the marked **microcytosis** (MCV 56.1 fl) seen in this patient.
*Folate deficiency*
- Similar to B12 deficiency, **folate deficiency** leads to **macrocytic anemia** (high MCV >100 fl), which is not observed in this patient with MCV of 56.1 fl.
- Folate deficiency does not cause neurological symptoms (unlike B12 deficiency), but the **macrocytic** red cell morphology is the key differentiator here.