A 31-year-old woman presents to her primary care provider to discuss the results from a previous urine analysis. She has no new complaints and feels well. Past medical history is significant for systemic lupus erythematosus. She was diagnosed 5 years ago and takes hydroxychloroquine every day and prednisone when her condition flares. Her previous urine analysis shows elevated protein levels (4+) and blood (3+). The urine sediment contained red blood cells (6 RBCs/high-power field). The treating physician would like to perform a renal biopsy to rule out lupus nephritis. What type of hypersensitivity is suggestive of lupus nephritis?
Q112
A 65-year-old patient presents with rapidly progressive dementia, myoclonus, and ataxia over 3 months. Laboratory studies, including serum vitamin B12 (cyanocobalamin), thyroxine (T4), and thyroid-stimulating hormone concentrations, are within normal limits. A lumbar puncture is performed. Cerebrospinal fluid (CSF) analysis is most likely to show which of the following?
Q113
A 29-year-old GP10 woman at 24 weeks estimated gestational age presents for follow-up. Six weeks ago, a complete blood count showed a microcytic hypochromic anemia for which she was prescribed iron sulfate tablets. A repeat complete blood count today shows no improvement in her hemoglobin level. Past medical history is significant for her being Rh-positive with an Rh-negative partner. She emigrated to the United States with her husband 7 years ago and did not have regular medical care in her country. An abdominal ultrasound shows findings consistent with hydrops fetalis. Which of the following is the most likely etiology of the condition of her fetus?
Q114
A 25-year-old female with no significant past medical history presents to her primary care physician with several weeks of increased fatigue and decreased exercise tolerance. On physical exam, her skin and conjunctiva appear pale. The physician suspects some form of anemia and orders a complete blood panel, which is remarkable for hemoglobin 11.7 g/dl, MCV 79 fL, MCHC 38% (normal 31.1-34%), and reticulocyte index 3.6%. Peripheral blood smear shows red blood cells with a lack of central pallor. This patient would most likely develop which of the following conditions?
Q115
An otherwise healthy 42-year-old man undergoes routine investigations prior to blood donation. His complete blood count is shown:
Hemoglobin 9.3 g/dL
Mean corpuscular volume (MCV) 71 μm3
Mean corpuscular hemoglobin (MCH) 21 pg/cell
White blood cell count 8,200/mm3
Platelet count 317,000/mm3
Iron studies are shown:
Serum iron 210 μg/dL
Serum ferritin 310 ng/mL
Total iron binding capacity (TIBC) 290 μg/dL
Transferrin saturation 78%
He occasionally drinks alcohol and denies smoking or use of illicit drugs. There is a family history of anemia including his brother and maternal uncle. Examination shows conjunctival pallor, but is otherwise unremarkable. Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?
Q116
A 32-year-old woman is brought to your office by her husband. The husband says that she had been acting strange lately. She has been forgetful, and she sometimes becomes angered for no reason, which is highly unusual for her. She has also been having random, uncontrollable movements, which are also new. On examination, she appears withdrawn and flat. On further questioning, she reveals that her father died at age 45 from a movement disorder. Which of the following is the pathological hallmark of the patient's condition?
Q117
A 40-year-old man presents to the office with complaints of epigastric discomfort for the past 6 months. He adds that the discomfort is not that bothersome as it does not interfere with his daily activities. He does not have any other complaints at the moment. The past medical history is insignificant. He is a non-smoker and does not consume alcohol. He recently came back from a trip to South America where he visited a relative who owned a sheep farm. On physical examination, he has a poorly palpable epigastric non-tender mass with no organomegaly. The hepatitis B and C serology are negative. The liver CT scan and MRI are shown. What is the most likely diagnosis?
Q118
A 60-year-old African American woman presents to her family physician with shortness of breath on exertion. She also describes shortness of breath when she lies down to go to bed at night, as well as recent swelling in her ankles. Past medical history is significant for long-standing hypertension, for which she takes amlodipine and lisinopril. Her temperature is 36.8°C (98.2°F), the heart rate is 90/min, the respiratory rate is 15/min, and the blood pressure is 135/80 mm Hg. The physical exam is significant for JVD, lower extremity pitting edema, laterally displaced PMI, left ventricular heave, bilateral pulmonary crackles, and an S4 heart sound. Chest X-ray demonstrates pulmonary vascular congestion, Kerley B lines, and cardiomegaly. Echocardiogram demonstrates a preserved ejection fraction. Kidney biopsy would likely demonstrate which of the following?
Q119
A 65-year-old African-American woman comes to the physician because of severe lower back pain. She has had dull lower back pain for several months, which suddenly become sharp in nature after lifting a heavy bucket of water 2 days ago. The pain is midline and does not radiate. She has had frequent vaginal dryness and hot flashes since menopause at the age of 55 years, for which she is on hormone replacement therapy. She has hypertension, hypercholesterolemia, and hypothyroidism. Her other medications include hydrochlorothiazide, simvastatin, and levothyroxine. She attends a 30-minute power walking class twice a week. She has smoked a pack of cigarettes daily for 40 years. She does not drink alcohol. She does not appear in distress. She is 165 cm (5 ft 5 in) tall and weighs 75 kg (165 lb); her BMI is 27.6 kg/m2. Vital signs are within normal limits. Examination shows midline lumbar tenderness. Muscle strength is full and deep tendon reflexes are 2+. Straight-leg raising is negative but painful. MRI of the spine shows an acute compression fracture of the L3 vertebral body and an old compression fracture of the L4 vertebra. Which of the following parts of this patient's history is the strongest predisposing factor for her condition?
Q120
A 51-year-old woman with hyperlipidemia comes to the physician because of weakness for one month. At the end of the day, she feels too fatigued to cook dinner or carry a laundry basket up the stairs. She also complains of double vision after she reads for long periods of time. All of her symptoms improve with rest. Her only medication is pravastatin. Physical examination shows drooping of the upper eyelids. Strength is initially 5/5 in the upper and lower extremities but decreases to 4/5 after a few minutes of sustained resistance. Sensation to light touch is intact and deep tendon reflexes are normal. Which of the following best describes the pathogenesis of this patient's condition?
Systemic Pathology US Medical PG Practice Questions and MCQs
Question 111: A 31-year-old woman presents to her primary care provider to discuss the results from a previous urine analysis. She has no new complaints and feels well. Past medical history is significant for systemic lupus erythematosus. She was diagnosed 5 years ago and takes hydroxychloroquine every day and prednisone when her condition flares. Her previous urine analysis shows elevated protein levels (4+) and blood (3+). The urine sediment contained red blood cells (6 RBCs/high-power field). The treating physician would like to perform a renal biopsy to rule out lupus nephritis. What type of hypersensitivity is suggestive of lupus nephritis?
A. Type IV, mediated by IgG and IgM antibodies
B. Type IV, mediated by CD4+ T cells
C. Type III, mediated by IgG antibodies (Correct Answer)
D. Type I, mediated by IgE antibodies
E. Type II, mediated by IgG and IgM antibodies
Explanation: ***Type III, mediated by IgG antibodies***
- Lupus nephritis is a classic example of a **Type III hypersensitivity reaction**, characterized by the formation of **immune complexes** (combinations of antibodies and antigens) in the circulation.
- These circulating **autoantibody-antigen complexes** deposit in the glomeruli of the kidneys, activating complement and initiating an inflammatory response that damages renal tissue.
*Type IV, mediated by IgG and IgM antibodies*
- **Type IV hypersensitivity** is a **delayed-type reaction** mediated by T cells, not antibodies.
- IgG and IgM antibodies are involved in Type II and Type III hypersensitivity, not Type IV.
*Type IV, mediated by CD4+ T cells*
- While **Type IV hypersensitivity** is indeed mediated by **CD4+ T cells** (and CD8+ T cells), lupus nephritis is primarily an **immune complex-mediated (Type III)** disease.
- T cells do play a role in the pathogenesis of SLE, but the direct kidney damage in lupus nephritis is driven by antibody-antigen complex deposition.
*Type I, mediated by IgE antibodies*
- **Type I hypersensitivity** is an **immediate allergic reaction** mediated by **IgE antibodies** binding to mast cells and basophils, leading to histamine release.
- This type of reaction is responsible for conditions like asthma, allergies, and anaphylaxis, and is not involved in lupus nephritis.
*Type II, mediated by IgG and IgM antibodies*
- **Type II hypersensitivity** involves **antibodies directly targeting antigens on cell surfaces or extracellular matrix components**, leading to cell lysis or dysfunction.
- While IgG and IgM are involved, the defining feature is direct binding to fixed tissue antigens rather than deposition of circulating immune complexes as seen in lupus nephritis.
Question 112: A 65-year-old patient presents with rapidly progressive dementia, myoclonus, and ataxia over 3 months. Laboratory studies, including serum vitamin B12 (cyanocobalamin), thyroxine (T4), and thyroid-stimulating hormone concentrations, are within normal limits. A lumbar puncture is performed. Cerebrospinal fluid (CSF) analysis is most likely to show which of the following?
A. Increased 14-3-3 protein concentration (Correct Answer)
B. Antiganglioside GM1 antibodies
C. Anti-glutamic acid decarboxylase antibodies
D. Increased α-synuclein protein concentration
E. Oligoclonal bands
Explanation: ***Increased 14-3-3 protein concentration***
- The constellation of **rapidly progressive dementia**, **myoclonus**, and **ataxia** over 3 months with normal routine labs is highly suggestive of **Creutzfeldt-Jakob disease (CJD)**.
- An **elevated 14-3-3 protein concentration** in the CSF is a **classic diagnostic marker** for CJD, reflecting rapid neuronal destruction and included in the **WHO diagnostic criteria**.
- This is the most characteristic CSF finding in CJD, with high sensitivity and specificity.
*Oligoclonal bands*
- **Oligoclonal bands** are indicative of intrathecal antibody production and are characteristic of **inflammatory or demyelinating conditions** such as **multiple sclerosis** and **CNS infections**.
- They are **NOT typically found in prion diseases** like CJD, which involve protein misfolding rather than immune-mediated inflammation.
*Increased α-synuclein protein concentration*
- **Alpha-synuclein accumulation** is characteristic of **synucleinopathies** such as Parkinson's disease, Lewy body dementia, and multiple system atrophy.
- While these can involve dementia and motor symptoms, they typically have a **slower progression** and different symptom profile than the rapid course seen in CJD.
*Antiganglioside GM1 antibodies*
- **Anti-ganglioside GM1 antibodies** are primarily associated with autoimmune **motor neuropathies**, particularly **multifocal motor neuropathy** and some forms of Guillain-Barré syndrome.
- They are not typically associated with rapidly progressive dementia or CJD.
*Anti-glutamic acid decarboxylase antibodies*
- **Anti-glutamic acid decarboxylase (GAD) antibodies** are primarily associated with **stiff-person syndrome** and certain types of **autoimmune encephalitis**.
- While these conditions can present with neurological symptoms, the clinical picture of rapidly progressive dementia with myoclonus and ataxia is not typical for GAD antibody-mediated disorders.
Question 113: A 29-year-old GP10 woman at 24 weeks estimated gestational age presents for follow-up. Six weeks ago, a complete blood count showed a microcytic hypochromic anemia for which she was prescribed iron sulfate tablets. A repeat complete blood count today shows no improvement in her hemoglobin level. Past medical history is significant for her being Rh-positive with an Rh-negative partner. She emigrated to the United States with her husband 7 years ago and did not have regular medical care in her country. An abdominal ultrasound shows findings consistent with hydrops fetalis. Which of the following is the most likely etiology of the condition of her fetus?
A. Deletion of 4 alpha-globin genes (Correct Answer)
B. Impaired synthesis of beta-globin chains
C. Pyruvate kinase deficiency
D. Parvovirus infection
E. Rh incompatibility
Explanation: ***Deletion of 4 alpha-globin genes***
- This condition (Hemoglobin Barts hydrops fetalis, alpha-thalassemia major) leads to a complete absence of **alpha-globin chains**, resulting in the formation of **Hb Barts** (tetramers of gamma-globin).
- Hb Barts has an extremely high affinity for oxygen, preventing its release to tissues, leading to severe fetal hypoxia, profound anemia, and ultimately **hydrops fetalis**. The patient's microcytic hypochromic anemia unresponsive to iron, combined with her ethnicity (immigrated from a high-prevalence area), suggests an underlying thalassemia.
*Impaired synthesis of beta-globin chains*
- This describes **beta-thalassemia**, which typically causes anemia but usually does not manifest as **hydrops fetalis** in utero because beta-globin chains only become dominant after birth.
- While beta-thalassemia can cause severe anemia, the characteristic in-utero presentation of hydrops fetalis points away from this diagnosis.
*Pyruvate kinase deficiency*
- This is an **autosomal recessive** disorder affecting glycolysis in red blood cells, leading to **hemolytic anemia**.
- While it can cause anemia, it is a rare cause of **hydrops fetalis**, which is more commonly associated with severe hemoglobinopathies or infections.
*Parvovirus infection*
- **Parvovirus B19** can cause severe anemia in the fetus by directly infecting and destroying erythroid progenitor cells, which can lead to **hydrops fetalis**.
- However, the mother's persistent **microcytic hypochromic anemia** unresponsive to iron suggests a chronic underlying genetic hematologic disorder rather than an acute viral infection.
*Rh incompatibility*
- This occurs when an **Rh-negative mother** is exposed to **Rh-positive fetal blood**, leading to alloimmunization and hemolytic disease of the fetus and newborn.
- The patient is stated to be **Rh-positive**, making Rh incompatibility with an Rh-negative partner impossible as she would not produce antibodies against Rh-positive blood cells.
Question 114: A 25-year-old female with no significant past medical history presents to her primary care physician with several weeks of increased fatigue and decreased exercise tolerance. On physical exam, her skin and conjunctiva appear pale. The physician suspects some form of anemia and orders a complete blood panel, which is remarkable for hemoglobin 11.7 g/dl, MCV 79 fL, MCHC 38% (normal 31.1-34%), and reticulocyte index 3.6%. Peripheral blood smear shows red blood cells with a lack of central pallor. This patient would most likely develop which of the following conditions?
A. Stroke
B. Gallstones (Correct Answer)
C. Retinopathy
D. Avascular necrosis of the femoral head
E. Aplastic anemia with parvovirus B19 infection
Explanation: ***Gallstones***
- The patient's presentation with **anemia**, **low MCV**, **high MCHC**, and **reticulocyte index > 2%** suggests a **hemolytic anemia**, likely **hereditary spherocytosis** given the lack of central pallor (spherocytes).
- Chronic hemolysis leads to **unconjugated hyperbilirubinemia**, which predisposes to the formation of **pigment (bilirubin) gallstones**.
- Gallstones occur in approximately **50-85%** of adults with hereditary spherocytosis, making this the **most common chronic complication**.
*Stroke*
- While some hemolytic anemias can be associated with increased stroke risk (e.g., **sickle cell anemia**), this specific presentation with **spherocytes** and **high MCHC** does not directly confer a high risk of stroke.
- Stroke is not a primary or highly frequent complication of **hereditary spherocytosis**.
*Retinopathy*
- **Retinopathy** is a common complication in **sickle cell disease**, due to vascular occlusions from sickled cells.
- It is not a characteristic complication of **hereditary spherocytosis**, which is suggested by the patient's blood work.
*Avascular necrosis of the femoral head*
- **Avascular necrosis** is most commonly associated with **sickle cell disease** due to vaso-occlusive crises where sickled red blood cells block blood flow to the bone.
- This condition is not a typical complication of **hereditary spherocytosis**, as spherocytes are fragile but do not cause vaso-occlusion.
*Aplastic anemia with parvovirus B19 infection*
- While **parvovirus B19** can cause **aplastic crisis** in patients with hereditary spherocytosis by transiently suppressing erythropoiesis, this is an **acute, intermittent complication** rather than a chronic one.
- The patient's current **elevated reticulocyte index** indicates active hemolysis without suppressed erythropoiesis, so aplastic crisis is not occurring now.
- Compared to gallstones (which develop in 50-85% of patients), aplastic crises are **less frequent** and episodic, making gallstones the "most likely" complication overall.
Question 115: An otherwise healthy 42-year-old man undergoes routine investigations prior to blood donation. His complete blood count is shown:
Hemoglobin 9.3 g/dL
Mean corpuscular volume (MCV) 71 μm3
Mean corpuscular hemoglobin (MCH) 21 pg/cell
White blood cell count 8,200/mm3
Platelet count 317,000/mm3
Iron studies are shown:
Serum iron 210 μg/dL
Serum ferritin 310 ng/mL
Total iron binding capacity (TIBC) 290 μg/dL
Transferrin saturation 78%
He occasionally drinks alcohol and denies smoking or use of illicit drugs. There is a family history of anemia including his brother and maternal uncle. Examination shows conjunctival pallor, but is otherwise unremarkable. Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?
A. Hemochromatosis
B. Anemia of chronic disease
C. Acute myeloid leukemia
D. Sideroblastic anemia (Correct Answer)
E. Myelodysplastic syndrome
Explanation: ***Sideroblastic anemia***
- The patient presents with **microcytic anemia** (Hb 9.3 g/dL, MCV 71, MCH 21) and evidence of **iron overload** (serum iron 210, ferritin 310, transferrin saturation 78%). These findings, along with a **family history of anemia affecting males** (brother and maternal uncle), are classic for **hereditary sideroblastic anemia**, typically X-linked.
- **Sideroblastic anemia** is characterized by the bone marrow producing ring sideroblasts (erythroblasts with iron-laden mitochondria), leading to ineffective erythropoiesis and iron accumulation.
- The hereditary form presents in younger patients with isolated anemia and strong family history, distinguishing it from acquired forms.
*Hemochromatosis*
- While **hemochromatosis** also presents with iron overload (high serum iron, ferritin, and transferrin saturation), it typically does **not cause microcytic anemia** or any significant anemia.
- The primary defect in hemochromatosis is increased iron absorption leading to tissue iron deposition (liver, heart, pancreas), without the erythropoietic dysfunction seen in sideroblastic anemia.
*Anemia of chronic disease*
- **Anemia of chronic disease (ACD)** typically presents with normal or slightly reduced MCV and MCH, and is characterized by **low serum iron** and **low TIBC**, with normal or elevated ferritin.
- In this case, the patient has **elevated serum iron** and **high transferrin saturation (78%)**, making ACD unlikely.
*Acute myeloid leukemia*
- **Acute myeloid leukemia (AML)** involves the proliferation of immature myeloid cells and usually presents with pancytopenia or symptoms related to bone marrow failure (e.g., fatigue, bleeding, infections).
- The blood counts here show **isolated anemia with normal WBC and platelet counts**, and the iron studies are not typical for AML.
*Myelodysplastic syndrome*
- **Myelodysplastic syndromes (MDS)** are clonal disorders of hematopoietic stem cells, often presenting with cytopenias and dysplastic features in the bone marrow.
- While **acquired sideroblastic anemia** is a subtype of MDS (refractory anemia with ring sideroblasts), it typically occurs in **older adults (>60 years)** without a family history.
- This patient's **young age (42 years)** and **strong family history** (brother and maternal uncle) point to **hereditary sideroblastic anemia** rather than MDS-associated acquired sideroblastic anemia.
Question 116: A 32-year-old woman is brought to your office by her husband. The husband says that she had been acting strange lately. She has been forgetful, and she sometimes becomes angered for no reason, which is highly unusual for her. She has also been having random, uncontrollable movements, which are also new. On examination, she appears withdrawn and flat. On further questioning, she reveals that her father died at age 45 from a movement disorder. Which of the following is the pathological hallmark of the patient's condition?
A. Lipohyalinosis
B. Loss of neurons in the caudate nucleus and putamen (Correct Answer)
C. Substantia nigra pars compacta
D. Alpha-synuclein intracellular inclusions
E. Beta-amyloid plaques
Explanation: ***Loss of neurons in the caudate nucleus and putamen***
- The patient's symptoms (forgetfulness, anger, uncontrolled movements) and family history of an early-onset movement disorder (father died at age 45) are highly suggestive of **Huntington's disease**.
- **Huntington's disease** is characterized pathologically by **selective atrophy and loss of GABAergic neurons** in the **caudate nucleus and putamen** within the basal ganglia.
*Lipohyalinosis*
- **Lipohyalinosis** refers to the **thickening of the vessel walls** of small penetrating arteries, often seen in the brain, and is associated with **lacunar infarcts** due to hypertension and diabetes.
- While it can lead to neurological symptoms, it does not explain the specific combination of psychiatric, cognitive, and choreiform movements with an autosomal dominant family history.
*Substantia nigra pars compacta*
- Degeneration of the **substantia nigra pars compacta** and the resultant **loss of dopaminergic neurons** is the hallmark of **Parkinson's disease**.
- Parkinson's disease typically presents with tremor, rigidity, bradykinesia, and postural instability, which are different from the patient's choreiform movements.
*Alpha-synuclein intracellular inclusions*
- **Alpha-synuclein intracellular inclusions**, known as **Lewy bodies**, are the characteristic pathological finding in **Parkinson's disease** and **Lewy body dementia**.
- These are not associated with Huntington's disease, and the clinical presentation of the patient is not typical of either Parkinson's or Lewy body dementia.
*Beta-amyloid plaques*
- **Beta-amyloid plaques** are extracellular protein deposits, along with **neurofibrillary tangles** (tau protein), that are the pathological hallmarks of **Alzheimer's disease**.
- While Alzheimer's involves cognitive decline, it does not typically present with the prominent choreiform movements and specific genetic inheritance pattern seen in this patient.
Question 117: A 40-year-old man presents to the office with complaints of epigastric discomfort for the past 6 months. He adds that the discomfort is not that bothersome as it does not interfere with his daily activities. He does not have any other complaints at the moment. The past medical history is insignificant. He is a non-smoker and does not consume alcohol. He recently came back from a trip to South America where he visited a relative who owned a sheep farm. On physical examination, he has a poorly palpable epigastric non-tender mass with no organomegaly. The hepatitis B and C serology are negative. The liver CT scan and MRI are shown. What is the most likely diagnosis?
A. Echinococcosis (Correct Answer)
B. Liver abscess
C. Hepatocellular carcinoma
D. Tuberculosis
E. Hemangioma
Explanation: ***Echinococcosis (Correct Answer)***
- The patient's history of travel to **South America** and contact with a **sheep farm** is highly suggestive of exposure to *Echinococcus granulosus*, the causative agent of hydatid disease.
- The **CT scan image** shows a large, well-defined cyst with a **calcified wall** and internal septations, consistent with the characteristic appearance of a **hydatid cyst** in the liver.
- This presentation is classic for **hepatic echinococcosis**: chronic indolent course, epidemiological exposure, and pathognomonic imaging findings.
*Liver abscess (Incorrect)*
- Liver abscesses typically present with more acute symptoms such as **fever, chills, and significant pain**, which are absent in this case.
- Imaging usually reveals a **hypo-dense lesion** with a rim of enhancement, possibly gas formation, and less commonly a calcified wall.
*Hepatocellular carcinoma (Incorrect)*
- This patient lacks typical risk factors for HCC, such as **chronic hepatitis B or C infection** (serology is negative) or cirrhosis.
- HCC imaging typically shows an **enhancing mass** that washes out on delayed phases, without the calcified, multi-loculated appearance seen here.
*Tuberculosis (Incorrect)*
- Hepatic tuberculosis typically presents with fever, weight loss, and multiple **small, hypo-dense lesions** on imaging, often with an associated pulmonary or extra-pulmonary focus.
- The single, large, calcified cystic lesion seen on imaging is not characteristic of hepatic tuberculosis.
*Hemangioma (Incorrect)*
- Hepatic hemangiomas are benign vascular tumors that often present as **incidental findings** and are typically asymptomatic.
- On CT scans, they show characteristic **peripheral nodular enhancement** that fills in centripetally on delayed phases, which is different from the calcified cyst observed.
Question 118: A 60-year-old African American woman presents to her family physician with shortness of breath on exertion. She also describes shortness of breath when she lies down to go to bed at night, as well as recent swelling in her ankles. Past medical history is significant for long-standing hypertension, for which she takes amlodipine and lisinopril. Her temperature is 36.8°C (98.2°F), the heart rate is 90/min, the respiratory rate is 15/min, and the blood pressure is 135/80 mm Hg. The physical exam is significant for JVD, lower extremity pitting edema, laterally displaced PMI, left ventricular heave, bilateral pulmonary crackles, and an S4 heart sound. Chest X-ray demonstrates pulmonary vascular congestion, Kerley B lines, and cardiomegaly. Echocardiogram demonstrates a preserved ejection fraction. Kidney biopsy would likely demonstrate which of the following?
A. Thinning of the intima and media
B. Onion-skinning
C. Nodular sclerosis
D. Intimal thickening and medial hypertrophy (Correct Answer)
E. Fibrinoid necrosis
Explanation: ***Intimal thickening and medial hypertrophy***
* The patient's presentation of **heart failure with preserved ejection fraction (HFpEF)**, long-standing **hypertension**, and findings like left ventricular heave and S4 heart sound strongly suggest **hypertensive cardiomyopathy**, which in turn causes **hypertensive nephrosclerosis**.
* **Hypertensive nephrosclerosis** is characterized by **intimal thickening** and **medial hypertrophy** of renal arterioles, leading to **ischemia** and atrophy of glomeruli and tubules.
*Thinning of the intima and media*
* This is not a characteristic pathological change seen in hypertensive nephrosclerosis.
* In hypertension, the vessel walls typically undergo thickening due to **hypertrophy** and **hyperplasia** of smooth muscle cells and increased extracellular matrix, not thinning.
*Onion-skinning*
* **"Onion-skinning"** is a hallmark feature of **malignant hypertension**, characterized by concentric laminar thickening of the arteriolar walls.
* The patient's blood pressure (135/80 mmHg) is not consistent with malignant hypertension, which would typically involve much higher blood pressure readings.
*Nodular sclerosis*
* **Nodular sclerosis** (also known as **Kimmelstiel-Wilson lesions**) is characteristic of **diabetic nephropathy**, not primarily hypertensive nephrosclerosis.
* While diabetes and hypertension often co-exist, the prompt in this case points more directly to long-standing hypertension as the primary cause of renal damage.
*Fibrinoid necrosis*
* **Fibrinoid necrosis** of arterioles is also associated with **malignant hypertension** and some forms of vasculitis.
* This patient's blood pressure is controlled (135/80 mmHg) and does not indicate the severe, rapid increase in blood pressure seen in malignant hypertension.
Question 119: A 65-year-old African-American woman comes to the physician because of severe lower back pain. She has had dull lower back pain for several months, which suddenly become sharp in nature after lifting a heavy bucket of water 2 days ago. The pain is midline and does not radiate. She has had frequent vaginal dryness and hot flashes since menopause at the age of 55 years, for which she is on hormone replacement therapy. She has hypertension, hypercholesterolemia, and hypothyroidism. Her other medications include hydrochlorothiazide, simvastatin, and levothyroxine. She attends a 30-minute power walking class twice a week. She has smoked a pack of cigarettes daily for 40 years. She does not drink alcohol. She does not appear in distress. She is 165 cm (5 ft 5 in) tall and weighs 75 kg (165 lb); her BMI is 27.6 kg/m2. Vital signs are within normal limits. Examination shows midline lumbar tenderness. Muscle strength is full and deep tendon reflexes are 2+. Straight-leg raising is negative but painful. MRI of the spine shows an acute compression fracture of the L3 vertebral body and an old compression fracture of the L4 vertebra. Which of the following parts of this patient's history is the strongest predisposing factor for her condition?
A. Exercise activity
B. Hormone replacement therapy
C. Smoking history (Correct Answer)
D. Age at menopause
E. Ancestry
Explanation: ***Smoking history***
- **Smoking** is a significant predisposing factor for osteoporosis and vertebral compression fractures due to its negative impact on bone density. It decreases **osteoblast activity** and **estrogen levels**, and increases **cortisol**, all of which contribute to bone loss.
- This patient's extensive 40-year smoking history (a pack a day for 40 years) makes it the strongest modifiable risk factor for her vertebral compression fractures in this scenario.
*Exercise activity*
- **Weight-bearing exercises**, such as power walking, generally help maintain bone density and are protective against osteoporosis.
- While an acute injury occurred during heavy lifting, her regular exercise history is unlikely to be a predisposing factor for the underlying fragility fractures.
*Hormone replacement therapy*
- **Hormone replacement therapy (HRT)** is typically protective against **postmenopausal osteoporosis** by replacing estrogen, which helps maintain bone density.
- Therefore, her use of HRT would generally mitigate, rather than predispose to, her condition.
*Age at menopause*
- An earlier age of menopause (before 45) is a risk factor for osteoporosis due to a longer period of **estrogen deficiency**. This patient experienced menopause at 55, which is an average age and not an early menopause.
- While menopause itself increases osteoporosis risk, her age at menopause is not an unusually early onset that would be a particularly strong predisposing factor here.
*Ancestry*
- **African-American women** generally have higher bone mineral density and a lower risk of osteoporosis compared to Caucasian or Asian women, making ancestry less of a risk factor in this case.
- Although risk still exists, it is not considered the strongest predisposing factor for osteoporosis and fractures in this demographic when compared to other presented risks.
Question 120: A 51-year-old woman with hyperlipidemia comes to the physician because of weakness for one month. At the end of the day, she feels too fatigued to cook dinner or carry a laundry basket up the stairs. She also complains of double vision after she reads for long periods of time. All of her symptoms improve with rest. Her only medication is pravastatin. Physical examination shows drooping of the upper eyelids. Strength is initially 5/5 in the upper and lower extremities but decreases to 4/5 after a few minutes of sustained resistance. Sensation to light touch is intact and deep tendon reflexes are normal. Which of the following best describes the pathogenesis of this patient's condition?
A. Type II hypersensitivity reaction (Correct Answer)
B. Anterior horn cell destruction
C. Impaired acetylcholine release
D. Peripheral nerve demyelination
E. Adverse drug effect
Explanation: ***Type II hypersensitivity reaction***
- This patient's symptoms of **fatigue** and **muscle weakness** that worsen with activity and improve with rest (**fatigable weakness**), along with **ptosis** (drooping eyelids) and **diplopia** (double vision), are classic for **myasthenia gravis**.
- Myasthenia gravis is an **autoimmune disease** characterized by autoantibodies that target and destroy **acetylcholine receptors** at the neuromuscular junction, leading to impaired signal transmission. This is a classic example of a **Type II hypersensitivity reaction**, where antibodies directly mediate cellular destruction or dysfunction.
*Anterior horn cell destruction*
- **Anterior horn cell destruction**, as seen in **amyotrophic lateral sclerosis (ALS)**, typically presents with both upper and lower motor neuron signs, such as **spasticity**, **hyperreflexia**, **fasciculations**, and **muscle atrophy**.
- In ALS, there is progressive weakness but typically **without fatigability** and oculomotor symptoms (ptosis, diplopia) are less common or occur late in the disease.
*Impaired acetylcholine release*
- **Impaired acetylcholine release** is characteristic of **Lambert-Eaton myasthenic syndrome (LEMS)**, which is often associated with small cell lung cancer.
- Unlike myasthenia gravis, LEMS typically shows **improvement in muscle strength with sustained activity** (due to increased presynaptic acetylcholine release), rather than worsening.
*Peripheral nerve demyelination*
- **Peripheral nerve demyelination** is the hallmark of conditions like **Guillain-Barré syndrome (GBS)** or **chronic inflammatory demyelinating polyneuropathy (CIDP)**.
- These conditions usually present with **sensory deficits**, **areflexia**, and **ascending paralysis/weakness**, which are absent in this patient.
*Adverse drug effect*
- While **statins** can cause **myopathy** (muscle pain and weakness), this typically involves diffuse muscle aches and elevated **creatine kinase** levels, and does not typically present with the classic fatigable weakness, ptosis, and diplopia seen here.
- The specific pattern of fatigable weakness improving with rest and affecting specific muscle groups (e.g., ocular muscles) points away from a simple statin-induced myopathy.