Multiple gestation management — MCQs

A 30-year-old woman, gravida 2, para 1, at 12 weeks' gestation comes to the physician for a prenatal visit. She feels well. Pregnancy and vaginal delivery of her first child were uncomplicated. Five years ago, she was diagnosed with hypertension but reports that she has been noncompliant with her hypertension regimen. The patient does not smoke or drink alcohol. She does not use illicit drugs. Medications include methyldopa, folic acid, and a multivitamin. Her temperature is 37°C (98.6°F), pulse is 80/min, and blood pressure is 145/90 mm Hg. Physical examination shows no abnormalities. Laboratory studies, including serum glucose level, and thyroid-stimulating hormone concentration, are within normal limits. The patient is at increased risk of developing which of the following complications?

A 2250-g (5.0-lb) male newborn and a 2900-g (6.4-lb) male newborn are delivered at 36 weeks' gestation to a 24-year-old, gravida 1, para 1 woman. The mother had no prenatal care. Examination of the smaller newborn shows low-set ears, retrognathia, and right-sided clubfoot. The hematocrit is 41% for the smaller newborn and 69% for the larger newborn. This pregnancy was most likely which of the following?

A 32-year-old primigravid woman with a history of seizures comes to the physician because she had a positive pregnancy test at home. Medications include valproic acid and a multivitamin. Physical examination shows no abnormalities. A urine pregnancy test is positive. Her baby is at increased risk for requiring which of the following interventions?

Immediately following prolonged delivery of the placenta at 40 weeks gestation, a 32-year-old multiparous woman develops vaginal bleeding. Other than mild asthma, the patient’s pregnancy has been uncomplicated. She has attended many prenatal appointments and followed the physician's advice about screening for diseases, laboratory testing, diet, and exercise. Previous pregnancies were uncomplicated. She has no history of a serious illness. She is currently on intravenous infusion of oxytocin. Her temperature is 37.2°C (99.0°F), blood pressure is 108/60 mm Hg, pulse is 88/min, and respirations are 17/min. Uterine palpation reveals a soft enlarged fundus that extends above the umbilicus. Based on the assessment of the birth canal and placenta, which of the following options is the most appropriate initial step in patient management?

A 28-year-old woman, gravida 2, para 1, at 30 weeks' gestation comes to the physician because of headache for the past 5 days. Her pregnancy has been uncomplicated to date. Pregnancy and vaginal delivery of her first child were uncomplicated. The patient does not smoke or drink alcohol. She does not use illicit drugs. Medications include folic acid and a multivitamin. Her temperature is 37°C (98.6°F), pulse is 82/min, and blood pressure is 150/92 mm Hg. Physical examination reveals 2+ pitting edema in the lower extremities. Laboratory studies show: Hemoglobin 11.8 g/dL Platelet count 290,000/mm3 Urine pH 6.3 Protein 2+ WBC negative Bacteria occasional Nitrites negative The patient is at increased risk of developing which of the following complications?

A 29-year-old G1P0 female at 32 weeks gestation presents to the emergency department with vaginal bleeding. She has had minimal prenatal care to-date with only an initial visit with an obstetrician after a positive home pregnancy test. She describes minimal spotting that she noticed earlier today that has progressed to larger amounts of blood; she estimates 30 mL of blood loss. She denies any cramping, pain, or contractions, and she reports feeling continued movements of the baby. Ultrasound and fetal heart rate monitoring confirm the presence of a healthy fetus without any evidence of current or impending complications. The consulted obstetrician orders blood testing for Rh-status of both the mother as well as the father, who brought the patient to the hospital. Which of the following represents the best management strategy for this situation?

A 37-year-old primigravid woman comes to the physician at 13 weeks' gestation for a prenatal visit. She feels well. Her only medication is folic acid. Vital signs are within normal limits. Pelvic examination shows a uterus consistent in size with a 13-week gestation. Ultrasonography shows a nuchal translucency above the 99th percentile. Maternal serum pregnancy-associated plasma protein A is decreased and human chorionic gonadotropin concentrations are elevated to 2 times the median level. Which of the following is most likely to confirm the diagnosis?

A 21-year-old female presents to her primary care doctor for prenatal counseling before attempting to become pregnant for the first time. She is an avid runner, and the physician notes her BMI of 17.5. The patient complains of chronic fatigue, which she attributes to her busy lifestyle. The physician orders a complete blood count that reveals a Hgb 10.2 g/dL (normal 12.1 to 15.1 g/dL) with an MCV 102 µm^3 (normal 78 to 98 µm^3). A serum measurement of a catabolic derivative of methionine returns elevated. Which of the following complications is the patient at most risk for if she becomes pregnant?

A 28-year-old G2P1 female is concerned that she may give birth to another child with Down syndrome. She states that she may not be able to take care of another child with this disorder. Which of the following tests can confirm the diagnosis of Down syndrome in utero?

A 31-year-old G6P6 woman with a history of fibroids gives birth to twins via vaginal delivery. Her pregnancy was uneventful, and she reported having good prenatal care. Both placentas are delivered immediately after the birth. The patient continues to bleed significantly over the next 20 minutes. Her temperature is 97.0°F (36.1°C), blood pressure is 124/84 mmHg, pulse is 95/min, respirations are 16/min, and oxygen saturation is 98% on room air. Continued vaginal bleeding is noted. Which of the following is the most appropriate initial step in management?