A 27-year-old woman presents to the clinic with severe pain in her left knee of 1-day duration. Physical examination reveals a red, swollen, warm, and tender left knee with a decreased range of motion. The patient affirms that she has been sexually active with several partners over the last year and that 1 of her partners has complained of dysuria and yellow urethral discharge. An arthrocentesis was performed and showed a WBC count of 60,000/µL, with 90% polymorphonuclear leukocytes. Visualization of the patient's synovial fluid is provided in the image. Which of the following is a characteristic feature of the organism causing this condition?
Q22
A 21-year-old woman comes to the physician because of a 4-day history of abdominal cramps and bloody diarrhea 5 times per day. Her symptoms began after she ate an egg sandwich from a restaurant. Her vital signs are within normal limits. Physical examination shows diffuse abdominal tenderness. Stool culture shows gram-negative rods that produce hydrogen sulfide and do not ferment lactose. Which of the following effects is most likely to occur if she receives antibiotic therapy?
Q23
A 33-year-old man living in the United States recently consumed a meal mostly consisting of raw shellfish that his girlfriend brought on her trip to Asia. After 2 days, he experienced a sudden onset of diarrhea and vomiting with severe abdominal cramps while his girlfriend developed mild diarrhea just several hours later. The diarrhea was profuse, looked like rice water, and had a pungent fishy odor. He soon started to experience muscle cramps and weakness, together with a deep labored breathing pattern. They called an ambulance and were transported to a local hospital. Based on the symptoms and blue hue to the skin, the attending physician hospitalized the male patient, started an intravenous infusion, and sent a stool specimen to the clinical microbiology laboratory for analysis. The next day, yellow bacterial colonies were observed on thiosulfate-citrate-bile salts-sucrose agar (as shown on the image). If you were the microbiologist on call, what kind of bacterial morphology would you expect to see during microscopic evaluation of a gram-stain slide made from those bacterial colonies?
Q24
A previously healthy 26-year-old woman comes to the physician because of a 2-day history of pain with urination. She has been sexually active with two partners over the past year. She uses condoms for contraception. Vital signs are within normal limits. Physical examination shows suprapubic tenderness. Urinalysis shows neutrophils and a positive nitrite test. Urine culture grows gram-negative, oxidase-negative rods that form greenish colonies on eosin-methylene blue agar. Which of the following virulence factors of the causal organism increases the risk of infection in this patient?
Q25
A 15-year-old boy is brought to the Emergency department by ambulance from school. He started the day with some body aches and joint pain but then had several episodes of vomiting and started complaining of a terrible headache. The school nurse called for emergency services. The boy was born at 39 weeks gestation via spontaneous vaginal delivery. He is up to date on all vaccines and is meeting all developmental milestones. Past medical history is noncontributory. He is a good student and enjoys sports. At the hospital, his blood pressure is 120/80 mm Hg, heart rate is 105/min, respiratory rate is 21/min, and his temperature is 38.9°C (102.0°F). On physical exam, he appears drowsy with neck stiffness and sensitivity to light. Kernig’s sign is positive. An ophthalmic exam is performed followed by a lumbar puncture. An aliquot of cerebrospinal fluid is sent to microbiology. A gram stain shows gram-negative diplococci. A smear is prepared on blood agar and grows round, smooth, convex colonies with clearly defined edges. Which of the following would identify the described pathogen?
Q26
A 20-year-old woman presents for a follow-up visit with her physician. She has a history of cystic fibrosis and is currently under treatment. She has recently been struggling with recurrent bouts of cough and foul-smelling, mucopurulent sputum over the past year. Each episode lasts for about a week or so and then subsides. She does not have a fever or chills during these episodes. She has been hospitalized several times for pneumonia as a child and continues to struggle with diarrhea. Physically she appears to be underweight and in distress. Auscultation reveals reduced breath sounds on the lower lung fields with prominent rhonchi. Which of the following infectious agents is most likely associated with the recurrent symptoms this patient is experiencing?
Q27
A 65-year-old woman is brought to the emergency department by her daughter for fever and cough. She just returned from a cruise trip to the Bahamas with her family 5 days ago and reports that she has been feeling ill since then. She endorses fever, productive cough, and general malaise. Her daughter also mentions that the patient has been having some diarrhea but reports that the rest of her family has been experiencing similar symptoms. Physical examination was significant for localized crackles at the right lower lobe. Laboratory findings are as follows:
Serum
Na+: 130 mEq/L
K+: 3.9 mEq/L
Cl-: 98 mEq/L
HCO3-: 27 mEq/L
Mg2+: 1.8 mEq/L
What findings would you expect in this patient?
Q28
An 18-year-old female college student is brought to the emergency department by ambulance for a headache and altered mental status. The patient lives with her boyfriend who is with her currently. He states she had not been feeling well for the past day and has vomited several times in the past 12 hours. Lumbar puncture is performed in the emergency room and demonstrates an increased cell count with a neutrophil predominance and gram-negative diplococci on Gram stain. The patient is started on vancomycin and ceftriaxone. Which of the following is the best next step in management?
Q29
A previously healthy 52-year-old woman comes to the physician because of a 1-week history of productive cough, fevers, and malaise. She has smoked one pack of cigarettes daily for 35 years. Her temperature is 39°C (102.2°F). Diffuse inspiratory crackles are heard bilaterally. Her leukocyte count is 14,300/mm3. Sputum analysis shows numerous polymorphonuclear leukocytes and a few squamous epithelial cells. An x-ray of the chest shows bilateral patchy consolidations. Which of the following findings on sputum culture is most consistent with this patient's respiratory symptoms?
Q30
A 15-year-old boy is admitted to the emergency department with neck stiffness, maculopapular rash, fever, and a persistent headache. A blood culture shows encapsulated gram-negative diplococci. He has had this same infection before. Which of the following proteins is likely to be deficient in this patient?
Gram-negative US Medical PG Practice Questions and MCQs
Question 21: A 27-year-old woman presents to the clinic with severe pain in her left knee of 1-day duration. Physical examination reveals a red, swollen, warm, and tender left knee with a decreased range of motion. The patient affirms that she has been sexually active with several partners over the last year and that 1 of her partners has complained of dysuria and yellow urethral discharge. An arthrocentesis was performed and showed a WBC count of 60,000/µL, with 90% polymorphonuclear leukocytes. Visualization of the patient's synovial fluid is provided in the image. Which of the following is a characteristic feature of the organism causing this condition?
A. It causes the Jarisch-Herxheimer reaction when treated with penicillin
B. It produces a heat-labile toxin that prevents protein synthesis
C. It selectively grows on Thayer-Martin medium (Correct Answer)
D. It is a gram-positive diplococcus
E. It ferments maltose
Explanation: ***It selectively grows on Thayer-Martin medium***
- The patient's presentation with **septic arthritis**, a history of multiple sexual partners, and a partner with symptoms of **urethritis** suggests **gonococcal arthritis** caused by *Neisseria gonorrhoeae*.
- *Neisseria gonorrhoeae* is a fastidious organism that requires an enriched selective medium like **Thayer-Martin agar** for optimal growth, which contains antimicrobial agents to inhibit commensal flora.
*It causes the Jarisch-Herxheimer reaction when treated with penicillin*
- The **Jarisch-Herxheimer reaction** is typically associated with treatment of **spirochetal diseases** like **syphilis** (caused by *Treponema pallidum)* or **Lyme disease** (caused by *Borrelia burgdorferi*) with penicillin.
- This reaction results from the rapid lysis of spirochetes and the release of endotoxins, which is not characteristic of gonococcal infection or its treatment.
*It produces a heat-labile toxin that prevents protein synthesis*
- This description is characteristic of toxins produced by organisms like **diphtheria toxin** (*Corynebacterium diphtheriae*) or **Shiga toxin** (*Shigella dysenteriae* and enterohemorrhagic *E. coli*), which inhibit protein synthesis but are not associated with *Neisseria gonorrhoeae*.
- *Neisseria gonorrhoeae* possesses virulence factors like pili, Opa proteins, and LOS, but its primary pathogenicity mechanism does not involve a heat-labile toxin that prevents protein synthesis.
*It is a gram-positive diplococcus*
- The image clearly shows **gram-negative diplococci** within phagocytes (neutrophils), which is a classic microscopic finding for *Neisseria gonorrhoeae*.
- *Neisseria gonorrhoeae* is specifically a **Gram-negative organism**, not Gram-positive.
*It ferments maltose*
- *Neisseria gonorrhoeae* metabolizes **glucose only** and does not ferment maltose, which helps differentiate it from *Neisseria meningitidis* (which ferments both glucose and maltose).
- This metabolic characteristic is a key biochemical test used in the laboratory for the identification of *Neisseria* species.
Question 22: A 21-year-old woman comes to the physician because of a 4-day history of abdominal cramps and bloody diarrhea 5 times per day. Her symptoms began after she ate an egg sandwich from a restaurant. Her vital signs are within normal limits. Physical examination shows diffuse abdominal tenderness. Stool culture shows gram-negative rods that produce hydrogen sulfide and do not ferment lactose. Which of the following effects is most likely to occur if she receives antibiotic therapy?
A. Orange discoloration of bodily fluids
B. Pruritic maculopapular rash on the extensor surface
C. Self-limiting systemic inflammatory response
D. Prolonged fecal excretion of the pathogen (Correct Answer)
E. Thrombocytopenia and hemolytic anemia
Explanation: ***Prolonged fecal excretion of the pathogen***
- The patient's symptoms (abdominal cramps, bloody diarrhea after eating an egg sandwich) and stool culture results (gram-negative rods, hydrogen sulfide producers, non-lactose fermenting) are highly suggestive of **Salmonella enterica** infection.
- Antibiotic treatment for non-typhoidal Salmonella gastroenteritis typically **prolongs fecal excretion** and does not shorten the illness, reserving antibiotics for severe cases or immunocompromised individuals.
*Orange discoloration of bodily fluids*
- **Orange discoloration of bodily fluids** (urine, sweat, tears) is a known side effect of **rifampin**, an antibiotic primarily used for tuberculosis and some bacterial meningitides.
- Rifampin is not indicated nor commonly used for Salmonella gastroenteritis.
*Pruritic maculopapular rash on the extensor surface*
- A **pruritic maculopapular rash on the extensor surfaces** is a common presentation of drug reactions, often associated with **penicillins** or **cephalosporins**, especially in viral infections (e.g., amoxicillin rash in mononucleosis).
- This is a general antibiotic side effect and not specifically linked to the outcome of treating Salmonella.
*Self-limiting systemic inflammatory response*
- A self-limiting systemic inflammatory response could be a general reaction to an active infection or a drug, but it's not the most likely or specific outcome of **antibiotic therapy in Salmonella gastroenteritis**.
- Worsening of symptoms can occur in some cases due to toxemia from bacterial lysis (e.g., Jarisch-Herxheimer reaction), but "self-limiting systemic inflammatory response" is too generic for this specific scenario.
*Thrombocytopenia and hemolytic anemia*
- **Thrombocytopenia and hemolytic anemia** in the setting of diarrheal illness strongly suggest **hemolytic uremic syndrome (HUS)**, which is typically associated with **Shiga toxin-producing E. coli** (STEC), particularly E. coli O157:H7.
- While Salmonella can cause severe disease, HUS is not a typical complication of its treatment, and antibiotics are often avoided in STEC infections due to increased risk of HUS.
Question 23: A 33-year-old man living in the United States recently consumed a meal mostly consisting of raw shellfish that his girlfriend brought on her trip to Asia. After 2 days, he experienced a sudden onset of diarrhea and vomiting with severe abdominal cramps while his girlfriend developed mild diarrhea just several hours later. The diarrhea was profuse, looked like rice water, and had a pungent fishy odor. He soon started to experience muscle cramps and weakness, together with a deep labored breathing pattern. They called an ambulance and were transported to a local hospital. Based on the symptoms and blue hue to the skin, the attending physician hospitalized the male patient, started an intravenous infusion, and sent a stool specimen to the clinical microbiology laboratory for analysis. The next day, yellow bacterial colonies were observed on thiosulfate-citrate-bile salts-sucrose agar (as shown on the image). If you were the microbiologist on call, what kind of bacterial morphology would you expect to see during microscopic evaluation of a gram-stain slide made from those bacterial colonies?
A. Seagull-shaped rods
B. Club-shaped rods
C. Corkscrew-shaped rods
D. Spiral-shaped rods
E. Comma-shaped rods (Correct Answer)
Explanation: ***Comma-shaped rods***
- The clinical presentation of **profuse, rice-water diarrhea** with a **fishy odor** after consuming **raw shellfish** imported from Asia is highly characteristic of **cholera**, caused by *Vibrio cholerae*.
- *Vibrio cholerae* are gram-negative, **curved, or comma-shaped rods** that grow well on **thiosulfate-citrate-bile salts-sucrose (TCBS) agar**, forming specific colonies that, when gram-stained, reveal this distinct morphology.
- The yellow colonies on TCBS indicate sucrose fermentation, which is typical of *V. cholerae*, and the severe dehydration with blue hue (cyanosis) reflects the massive fluid loss caused by cholera toxin.
*Seagull-shaped rods*
- This morphology is characteristic of *Campylobacter jejuni*, which typically causes acute **gastroenteritis** with bloody diarrhea but not the classic "rice-water" stool associated with cholera.
- While *Campylobacter* can be acquired from contaminated food, the stool characteristics and rapid, severe dehydration point away from it.
*Club-shaped rods*
- **Club-shaped rods** are typical of *Corynebacterium diphtheriae*, the causative agent of **diphtheria**, which manifests as an upper respiratory tract infection with a pseudomembrane and systemic toxicity, not severe diarrheal disease.
- Their growth requirements and clinical presentation are completely different from what is described in the case.
*Corkscrew-shaped rods*
- This describes the morphology of **spirochetes**, such as *Treponema pallidum* (syphilis) or *Leptospira* species (leptospirosis), which cause diseases unrelated to acute diarrheal illness from shellfish.
- Spirochetes are typically visualized using darkfield microscopy and do not grow on TCBS agar.
*Spiral-shaped rods*
- **Spiral-shaped rods** can broadly describe several bacteria, including *Helicobacter pylori* (gastrointestinal ulcers) or some *Campylobacter* species.
- While *Helicobacter* is spiral, it's not associated with acute, severe cholera-like diarrhea, and *Campylobacter* is more specifically "seagull-shaped" or S-shaped.
Question 24: A previously healthy 26-year-old woman comes to the physician because of a 2-day history of pain with urination. She has been sexually active with two partners over the past year. She uses condoms for contraception. Vital signs are within normal limits. Physical examination shows suprapubic tenderness. Urinalysis shows neutrophils and a positive nitrite test. Urine culture grows gram-negative, oxidase-negative rods that form greenish colonies on eosin-methylene blue agar. Which of the following virulence factors of the causal organism increases the risk of infection in this patient?
A. Fimbriae (Correct Answer)
B. Lecithinase
C. IgA protease
D. Biofilm production
E. Lipoteichoic acid
Explanation: ***Fimbriae***
- The patient's symptoms (dysuria, suprapubic tenderness), urinalysis findings (neutrophils, positive nitrite), and culture results (gram-negative, oxidase-negative rods, greenish colonies on EMB agar) are highly suggestive of a **urinary tract infection (UTI)** caused by **Escherichia coli**.
- **P-fimbriae (pili)** are crucial virulence factors for *E. coli* in UTIs, enabling the bacteria to **adhere to uroepithelial cells** and colonize the urinary tract.
*Lecithinase*
- **Lecithinase (alpha-toxin)** is a virulence factor primarily associated with bacteria like *Clostridium perfringens*, causing gas gangrene, and some *Bacillus cereus* strains.
- It is not a significant virulence factor for *E. coli* in the context of UTIs.
*IgA protease*
- **IgA protease** is an enzyme produced by bacteria such as *Neisseria gonorrhoeae*, *Neisseria meningitidis*, and *Haemophilus influenzae*.
- It cleaves IgA antibodies, preventing their protective effects at mucosal surfaces, but it is not a primary virulence factor for *E. coli* in UTIs.
*Biofilm production*
- While *E. coli* can form biofilms, particularly in chronic infections or on catheters, **biofilm production** is not the primary mechanism that increases the **initial risk** of acquiring an acute uncomplicated UTI in a healthy individual.
- The *initial* adherence to uroepithelium, facilitated by fimbriae, is key for colonization and infection establishment.
*Lipoteichoic acid*
- **Lipoteichoic acid** is a major component of the cell wall in **Gram-positive bacteria** and contributes to their immune stimulation and adherence properties.
- The causative organism in this case is a **Gram-negative rod**, making lipoteichoic acid an irrelevant virulence factor.
Question 25: A 15-year-old boy is brought to the Emergency department by ambulance from school. He started the day with some body aches and joint pain but then had several episodes of vomiting and started complaining of a terrible headache. The school nurse called for emergency services. The boy was born at 39 weeks gestation via spontaneous vaginal delivery. He is up to date on all vaccines and is meeting all developmental milestones. Past medical history is noncontributory. He is a good student and enjoys sports. At the hospital, his blood pressure is 120/80 mm Hg, heart rate is 105/min, respiratory rate is 21/min, and his temperature is 38.9°C (102.0°F). On physical exam, he appears drowsy with neck stiffness and sensitivity to light. Kernig’s sign is positive. An ophthalmic exam is performed followed by a lumbar puncture. An aliquot of cerebrospinal fluid is sent to microbiology. A gram stain shows gram-negative diplococci. A smear is prepared on blood agar and grows round, smooth, convex colonies with clearly defined edges. Which of the following would identify the described pathogen?
A. Oxidase-positive and ferments glucose and maltose (Correct Answer)
B. Oxidase-positive test and ferments glucose only
C. Catalase-negative and oxidase-positive
D. No growth on Thayer-Martin medium
E. Growth in anaerobic conditions
Explanation: ***Oxidase-positive and ferments glucose and maltose***
- The patient's symptoms (fever, headache, neck stiffness, sensitivity to light, positive Kernig's sign) are classic for **meningitis**, and the CSF showing **gram-negative diplococci** points to *Neisseria meningitidis*.
- *Neisseria meningitidis* is identified by its positive **oxidase test** and its ability to ferment both **glucose and maltose**.
*Oxidase-positive test and ferments glucose only*
- This description corresponds to *Neisseria gonorrhoeae*, which primarily causes **gonorrhea** and occasionally meningitis due to disseminated infection but is less common in this age group and presentation.
- While *Neisseria gonorrhoeae* is also an **oxidase-positive gram-negative diplococcus**, it specifically ferments only *glucose*, not maltose.
*Catalase-negative and oxidase-positive*
- While *Neisseria meningitidis* is **oxidase-positive**, stating it is "catalase-negative" is incorrect; *Neisseria* species are actually **catalase-positive**.
- This option incorrectly describes a general metabolic property that would rule out *Neisseria meningitidis*.
*No growth on Thayer-Martin medium*
- Thayer-Martin medium is a **selective medium** specifically designed to isolate pathogenic *Neisseria species* by inhibiting the growth of commensal bacteria and fungi.
- Therefore, *Neisseria meningitidis* would **grow well** on Thayer-Martin medium, making "no growth" an incorrect identifier.
*Growth in anaerobic conditions*
- *Neisseria meningitidis* is an **obligate aerobe**, meaning it requires oxygen for growth.
- It would **not grow** in anaerobic conditions, making this statement false for identifying the described pathogen.
Question 26: A 20-year-old woman presents for a follow-up visit with her physician. She has a history of cystic fibrosis and is currently under treatment. She has recently been struggling with recurrent bouts of cough and foul-smelling, mucopurulent sputum over the past year. Each episode lasts for about a week or so and then subsides. She does not have a fever or chills during these episodes. She has been hospitalized several times for pneumonia as a child and continues to struggle with diarrhea. Physically she appears to be underweight and in distress. Auscultation reveals reduced breath sounds on the lower lung fields with prominent rhonchi. Which of the following infectious agents is most likely associated with the recurrent symptoms this patient is experiencing?
A. Mycobacterium avium
B. Pseudomonas (Correct Answer)
C. Histoplasma
D. Pneumococcus
E. Listeria
Explanation: ***Pseudomonas***
- **Pseudomonas aeruginosa** is a common and opportunistic pathogen in patients with **cystic fibrosis** due to altered mucus secretion and impaired mucociliary clearance.
- Recurrent cough, foul-smelling, and **mucopurulent sputum** are classic symptoms of **Pseudomonas** lung infections in CF patients, often leading to chronic colonization and bronchiectasis.
*Mycobacterium avium*
- While *Mycobacterium avium complex* (MAC) can infect patients with cystic fibrosis, it typically causes a **more indolent and chronic lung disease** rather than recurrent, self-limiting bouts of cough and sputum.
- MAC infections are often associated with **nodular or cavitary lesions** on imaging and may require prolonged multidrug therapy.
*Histoplasmosis*
- **Histoplasmosis** is a fungal infection endemic to certain geographic regions (e.g., Ohio and Mississippi River valleys) and is acquired by inhaling spores.
- It's **not a typical or recurrent pathogen** in cystic fibrosis patients in the way bacterial infections are, and its presentation often includes fever, chills, and disseminated disease in immunocompromised individuals.
*Pneumococcus*
- *Streptococcus pneumoniae* (**Pneumococcus**) is a common cause of **acute bacterial pneumonia** in the general population, including young children.
- While CF patients can get pneumococcal infections, the pattern of **recurrent bouts of foul-smelling mucopurulent sputum** without fever and the chronic nature of the lung disease point away from typical acute pneumococcal infection and more towards a chronic colonizer like *Pseudomonas*.
*Listeria*
- *Listeria monocytogenes* is primarily a cause of **foodborne illness**, leading to gastroenteritis, meningitis, or sepsis, particularly in immunocompromised individuals, pregnant women, and neonates.
- It is **not a common respiratory pathogen**, and its presentation does not align with the described recurrent pulmonary symptoms in a cystic fibrosis patient.
Question 27: A 65-year-old woman is brought to the emergency department by her daughter for fever and cough. She just returned from a cruise trip to the Bahamas with her family 5 days ago and reports that she has been feeling ill since then. She endorses fever, productive cough, and general malaise. Her daughter also mentions that the patient has been having some diarrhea but reports that the rest of her family has been experiencing similar symptoms. Physical examination was significant for localized crackles at the right lower lobe. Laboratory findings are as follows:
Serum
Na+: 130 mEq/L
K+: 3.9 mEq/L
Cl-: 98 mEq/L
HCO3-: 27 mEq/L
Mg2+: 1.8 mEq/L
What findings would you expect in this patient?
A. High titers of cold agglutinins
B. Gram-negative rod on chocolate agar with factors V and X
C. Gram-negative on silver stain (Correct Answer)
D. Gram-positive diplococci on Gram stain
E. Broad-based budding on fungal sputum culture
Explanation: ***Gram-negative on silver stain***
- The patient's symptoms (fever, productive cough, malaise, diarrhea), recent cruise travel, and hyponatremia are classic presentations of **Legionnaires' disease** caused by *Legionella pneumophila*.
- *Legionella* is a **Gram-negative rod** that stains poorly with Gram stain and is best visualized using **silver stain**.
*High titers of cold agglutinins*
- **Cold agglutinins** are typically associated with **atypical pneumonia** caused by *Mycoplasma pneumoniae*.
- While *Mycoplasma* can cause similar respiratory symptoms, the presence of diarrhea and hyponatremia points away from it.
*Gram-negative rod on chocolate agar with factors V and X*
- This describes the growth requirements for *Haemophilus influenzae*, which needs **hematin (factor X)** and **NAD (factor V)** to grow on chocolate agar.
- While *H. influenzae* can cause pneumonia, the patient's specific presentation (cruise travel, diarrhea, hyponatremia) is more indicative of *Legionella*.
*Gram-positive diplococci on Gram stain*
- This microscopic finding is characteristic of **Streptococcus pneumoniae**, the most common cause of **community-acquired pneumonia**.
- Although *S. pneumoniae* can cause pneumonia, the detailed clinical picture, including hyponatremia and diarrhea, is not typical for uncomplicated pneumococcal pneumonia.
*Broad-based budding on fungal sputum culture*
- **Broad-based budding** is a characteristic feature of **Blastomyces dermatitidis**, a cause of fungal pneumonia.
- While fungal infections can cause pneumonia, the rapid onset, cruise exposure, and systemic symptoms (diarrhea, hyponatremia) are not classic for blastomycosis.
Question 28: An 18-year-old female college student is brought to the emergency department by ambulance for a headache and altered mental status. The patient lives with her boyfriend who is with her currently. He states she had not been feeling well for the past day and has vomited several times in the past 12 hours. Lumbar puncture is performed in the emergency room and demonstrates an increased cell count with a neutrophil predominance and gram-negative diplococci on Gram stain. The patient is started on vancomycin and ceftriaxone. Which of the following is the best next step in management?
A. Treat boyfriend with rifampin (Correct Answer)
B. Add ampicillin to treatment regimen
C. Add ampicillin, dexamethasone, and rifampin to treatment regimen
D. Add dexamethasone to treatment regimen
E. Treat boyfriend with ceftriaxone and vancomycin
Explanation: ***Treat boyfriend with rifampin***
- The patient's presentation with headache, altered mental status, neutrophilic pleocytosis, and **Gram-negative diplococci** on CSF Gram stain is highly suggestive of **Neisseria meningitidis** meningitis.
- The patient is already on appropriate empiric antibiotic therapy (vancomycin and ceftriaxone), so the **immediate priority** is to prevent secondary cases through **post-exposure prophylaxis** for close contacts.
- Close contacts, including household members like the boyfriend, are at high risk of contracting the infection and should receive prophylaxis within **24 hours** of case identification, with **rifampin**, **ciprofloxacin**, or **IM ceftriaxone** being standard options.
*Add ampicillin to treatment regimen*
- Ampicillin provides coverage for **Listeria monocytogenes**, but the Gram stain demonstrating **Gram-negative diplococci** makes Listeria (Gram-positive rod) unlikely in this otherwise healthy young adult without specific risk factors for Listeria.
- The current regimen of vancomycin and ceftriaxone provides adequate empiric coverage for acute bacterial meningitis, targeting common pathogens like **S. pneumoniae** and **N. meningitidis**.
*Add ampicillin, dexamethasone, and rifampin to treatment regimen*
- While providing rifampin prophylaxis to the boyfriend is appropriate, adding it to the **patient's** treatment regimen is not indicated for her active infection.
- **Dexamethasone** is often added to reduce inflammation and neurological sequelae but should be given **prior to or concurrently** with the first dose of antibiotics; adding it later in the course may not be as beneficial.
- This option conflates treatment of the patient with prophylaxis of contacts.
*Add dexamethasone to treatment regimen*
- Dexamethasone is recommended in adults with suspected pneumococcal meningitis to reduce mortality and neurological sequelae, but ideal administration is **prior to or with the first dose of antibiotics**.
- While it might still be considered, the priority given the **Gram-negative diplococci** (suggesting N. meningitidis rather than S. pneumoniae) is **contact prophylaxis** to prevent further spread, and the timing for optimal dexamethasone benefit has likely passed.
*Treat boyfriend with ceftriaxone and vancomycin*
- Ceftriaxone and vancomycin are appropriate for treating the patient's active meningitis, but they are not the standard or preferred agents for **post-exposure prophylaxis** in contacts.
- Post-exposure prophylaxis typically involves a short course of agents like **rifampin**, **ciprofloxacin**, or a single dose of **intramuscular ceftriaxone**, primarily to eradicate nasopharyngeal carriage and prevent transmission.
Question 29: A previously healthy 52-year-old woman comes to the physician because of a 1-week history of productive cough, fevers, and malaise. She has smoked one pack of cigarettes daily for 35 years. Her temperature is 39°C (102.2°F). Diffuse inspiratory crackles are heard bilaterally. Her leukocyte count is 14,300/mm3. Sputum analysis shows numerous polymorphonuclear leukocytes and a few squamous epithelial cells. An x-ray of the chest shows bilateral patchy consolidations. Which of the following findings on sputum culture is most consistent with this patient's respiratory symptoms?
A. Anaerobic gram-positive, branching, filamentous bacilli
B. Gram-positive, alpha-hemolytic, optochin-resistant cocci in chains
C. Encapsulated, pleomorphic, gram-negative coccobacilli (Correct Answer)
D. Pseudohyphae with budding yeasts at 20°C
E. Gram-positive, catalase-positive, coagulase-negative cocci in clusters
Explanation: ***Encapsulated, pleomorphic, gram-negative coccobacilli***
- This description is characteristic of ***Haemophilus influenzae***, a common cause of **community-acquired pneumonia**, especially in patients with a history of **smoking** and **COPD**.
- The clinical presentation with productive cough, fever, malaise, bilateral patchy consolidations, and leukocytosis is highly consistent with bacterial pneumonia caused by this organism.
*Anaerobic gram-positive, branching, filamentous bacilli*
- This describes organisms like ***Actinomyces***, which typically cause **abscesses**, **fistulas**, and granulomatous lesions, rather than acute community-acquired pneumonia.
- The patient's acute symptoms and diffuse infiltrates are not typical for **actinomycosis**.
*Gram-positive, alpha-hemolytic, optochin-resistant cocci in chains*
- This morphology (alpha-hemolytic, optochin-resistant cocci in chains) describes ***Streptococcus viridans***.
- While *S. viridans* can cause infections, it is not a primary cause of **community-acquired pneumonia**; it is more commonly associated with **endocarditis** or oral infections.
*Pseudohyphae with budding yeasts at 20°C*
- This describes a **fungal pathogen**, possibly *Candida albicans*, which forms **pseudohyphae** and **budding yeasts**.
- While *Candida* can cause lung infections, it is usually seen in **immunocompromised individuals** or those with prolonged antibiotic use, which is not suggested here.
*Gram-positive, catalase-positive, coagulase-negative cocci in clusters*
- This describes **coagulase-negative *Staphylococcus***, such as *Staphylococcus epidermidis*.
- These organisms are common **skin commensals** and typically cause infections related to **indwelling medical devices** or **bacteremia** in immunocompromised patients, not community-acquired pneumonia.
Question 30: A 15-year-old boy is admitted to the emergency department with neck stiffness, maculopapular rash, fever, and a persistent headache. A blood culture shows encapsulated gram-negative diplococci. He has had this same infection before. Which of the following proteins is likely to be deficient in this patient?
A. C9 (Correct Answer)
B. C1 esterase inhibitor
C. CD55 (decay accelerating factor)
D. Calcineurin
E. CD4
Explanation: **C9**
- A deficiency in C9, or any other terminal complement components (C5-C8), impairs the formation of the **membrane attack complex (MAC)**.
- This significantly increases susceptibility to recurrent, severe infections with **Neisseria meningitidis**, an encapsulated gram-negative diplococcus matching the clinical presentation.
*C1 esterase inhibitor*
- Deficiency of **C1 esterase inhibitor** is associated with **hereditary angioedema**, characterized by recurrent episodes of edema without urticaria.
- It does not primarily predispose to recurrent bacterial infections like meningococcemia.
*CD55 (decay accelerating factor)*
- Deficiency of **CD55 (DAF)**, along with CD59, is pathognomonic for **paroxysmal nocturnal hemoglobinuria** (PNH), a disorder of red blood cell lysis.
- This condition is not typically associated with recurrent meningococcal infections.
*Calcineurin*
- **Calcineurin** is a protein phosphatase involved in T-cell activation; its inhibitors are used as immunosuppressants.
- A defect in calcineurin itself is not a known cause of recurrent bacterial infections, though its inhibition can lead to opportunistic infections.
*CD4*
- **CD4** is a co-receptor on T helper cells essential for immune responses, and its deficiency (e.g., in HIV/AIDS) leads to severe immunodeficiency.
- While it causes increased susceptibility to various infections, it doesn't specifically target encapsulated bacteria like Neisseria in a way that would cause recurrent meningococcal disease with an intact MAC pathway.