A 58-year-old man complains of ascending weakness, palpitations, and abdominal pain. He has a history of hypertension, type II diabetes mellitus, diabetic retinopathy, and end-stage renal disease requiring dialysis. He denies any recent infection. Physical examination is notable for decreased motor strength in both his upper and lower extremities, intact cranial nerves, as well as decreased bowel sounds. On further questioning, the patient shares that he has been depressed, as he feels he may not be able to see his grandchildren grow due to his complicated medical course. This caused him to miss two of his dialysis appointments. Which of the following will mostly likely be found on electrocardiography?
Q62
A 33-year-old African American woman presents to her primary care physician for a wellness checkup. She states that she has lost 20 pounds over the past 2 months yet has experienced an increased appetite during this period. She endorses hyperhidrosis and increased urinary volume and frequency. Physical exam is notable for an anxious woman and a regular and tachycardic pulse. Laboratory values are ordered as seen below.
Serum:
Na+: 139 mEq/L
Cl-: 100 mEq/L
K+: 4.3 mEq/L
HCO3-: 25 mEq/L
Ca2+: 12.2 mg/dL
The patient's urine calcium level is elevated. Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?
Q63
A 45-year-old man presents to the emergency department with complaints of right-sided weakness and slurring of speech for 1 hour. There is no history of head trauma, myocardial infarction, recent surgery, gastrointestinal or urinary bleeding. He has hypertension, chronic atrial fibrillation, and a 20 pack-year cigarette smoking history. The medication list includes valsartan and rivaroxaban. The vital signs include: blood pressure 180/92 mm Hg, pulse 144/min and irregular, and temperature 37.2°C (99.0°F). On physical examination, there is a facial asymmetry with a deviation of angle of mouth to the left side on smiling. Muscle strength is reduced in both upper and lower limbs on the right side while on the left side it’s normal. Random blood glucose is 104 mg/dL. A complete blood count is normal. A CT scan of the head is shown in the image. What is the most appropriate next step in the management of this patient?
Q64
A 65-year-old woman is brought to the emergency department by her husband due to difficulty speaking and confusion for 1 hour. She was gardening when she suddenly developed these symptoms. She is not able to respond to the questions despite multiple repetitions. She also appears unsteady with her gait and is able to walk with support. The past medical history includes type 2 diabetes mellitus, dyslipidemia, and osteoarthritis. The medicine list includes aspirin, atorvastatin, metformin, and chondroitin sulfate. The vital signs include: blood pressure 174/88 mm Hg, heart rate 154/min and irregular, respiratory rate 12/min, and oxygen saturation 96% on room air. She is awake, but not following commands. The pupils are equal bilaterally and reactive to light. There is mild facial droop on the right side. The forehead wrinkles are preserved. When the soles of her feet are stimulated with a blunt instrument, the right-sided big toe goes upward, while the left-sided big toe goes downward. The ECG shows variable R-R intervals and absence of P waves. What is the next step in the management of this patient?
Q65
A 75-year-old man presents to the emergency department after an episode of syncope while walking outside with his wife. His wife states that he suddenly appeared pale and collapsed to the ground. She says he remained unconscious for 1 minute. He says he noticed a fluttering in his chest and excessive sweating before the episode. He has type 2 diabetes mellitus, essential hypertension, and chronic stable angina. He has not started any new medications in the past few months. Vital signs reveal: temperature 37.0°C (98.6°F), blood pressure 135/72 mm Hg, and pulse 72/min. Physical examination is unremarkable. ECG shows an old bifascicular block. Echocardiogram and 24-hour Holter monitoring are normal. Which of the following is the best next step in the evaluation of this patient's condition?
Q66
A 24-year-old woman presents to the emergency department with palpitations for the last hour. This is her 3rd emergency department visit in the last 8 weeks due to the same complaint. She denies fever, shortness of breath, nasal discharge, bowel changes, weight loss, and heat intolerance. She has asthma that is poorly controlled despite regular inhaler use. She drinks a cup of coffee each morning, and she is physically active and jogs for at least 30 minutes daily. She is in a monogamous relationship with her boyfriend and regularly uses barrier contraceptives. Her last menses was 1 week ago. Physical examination reveals: blood pressure 104/70 mm Hg, pulse 194 /min that is regular, and respiratory rate 18/min. Her ECG is shown in the image. A gentle massage over the carotid artery for 5–10 seconds did not terminate her palpitations. What is the most appropriate next step in the management of this patient?
Q67
A 43-year-old woman presents to a physician with weakness and fatigue for a week. She mentions that she has been taking oral fluconazole for the last 4 weeks for the treatment of tinea capitis. She also says that she loves coffee and usually consumes 4–6 cups of coffee every day. On physical examination, her vital signs are stable and examination of all systems, including nervous system, is normal. Her laboratory evaluation reveals that her serum potassium level is 3.1 mmol/L (3.1 mEq/L). The physician orders an ECG. Which of the following findings is most likely to be present?
Q68
A 27-year-old man presents to the emergency department with a progressively worsening cough, wheezes, and chest tightness over the last 2 days. He has a history of moderate persistent asthma and his maintenance regimen consists of an inhaled corticosteroid, a long-acting beta-agonist, and albuterol as rescue therapy. He has not improved with his rescue inhaler despite increased use. He reports prior exposure to a person who had symptoms of a respiratory infection. His temperature is 37.4°C (99.3°F), blood pressure is 101/68 mm Hg, heart rate is 99/min, and respiratory rate is 32/min. Physical examination reveals widespread polyphonic wheezes but equal air entry. His oxygen saturation is 92% on room air. The presence of which of the following categorizes this patient’s condition as life-threatening?
Q69
A 26-year-old man comes to the physician because of episodic palpitations for the past 2 months. He has the feeling that sometimes his heart “skips a beat”. His father has a history of atrial fibrillation and myocardial infarction. He has smoked one pack of cigarettes daily for 5 years. He drinks 1–2 beers on the weekends. His vital signs are within normal limits. Physical examination reveals a regular pulse. Cardiopulmonary examination shows no abnormalities. Serum studies, including electrolytes and creatinine, are within normal limits. An excerpt of 24h Holter monitoring is shown. Echocardiography is normal. Which of the following is the most appropriate next step in management?
Q70
A 23-year-old man comes to the emergency department because of palpitations, dizziness, and substernal chest pain for three hours. The day prior, he was at a friend’s wedding, where he consumed seven glasses of wine. The patient appears diaphoretic. His pulse is 220/min and blood pressure is 120/84 mm Hg. Based on the patient's findings on electrocardiography, the physician diagnoses atrial fibrillation with rapid ventricular response and administers verapamil for rate control. Ten minutes later, the patient is unresponsive and loses consciousness. Despite resuscitative efforts, the patient dies. Histopathologic examination of the heart at autopsy shows an accessory atrioventricular conduction pathway. Electrocardiography prior to the onset of this patient's symptoms would most likely have shown which of the following findings?
Arrhythmias US Medical PG Practice Questions and MCQs
Question 61: A 58-year-old man complains of ascending weakness, palpitations, and abdominal pain. He has a history of hypertension, type II diabetes mellitus, diabetic retinopathy, and end-stage renal disease requiring dialysis. He denies any recent infection. Physical examination is notable for decreased motor strength in both his upper and lower extremities, intact cranial nerves, as well as decreased bowel sounds. On further questioning, the patient shares that he has been depressed, as he feels he may not be able to see his grandchildren grow due to his complicated medical course. This caused him to miss two of his dialysis appointments. Which of the following will mostly likely be found on electrocardiography?
A. Progressive PR prolongation, followed by a 'drop' in QRS
B. ST-segment elevation in leads II, III, and aVF
C. Diffuse PR segment depression and ST-segment deviations
D. S wave in lead I, Q wave in lead III, and inverted T wave in lead III
E. Peaked T-waves and shortened QT interval (Correct Answer)
Explanation: ***Peaked T-waves and shortened QT interval***
- The patient's presentation of **ascending weakness**, **palpitations**, **abdominal pain**, and **missed dialysis appointments** in the context of end-stage renal disease strongly suggests **hyperkalemia**.
- **Peaked T-waves** (tall, narrow, symmetric T-waves) are the **earliest and most characteristic ECG finding** in hyperkalemia.
- **Shortened QT interval** occurs due to accelerated repolarization from elevated potassium levels.
- As hyperkalemia worsens, ECG changes progress to widened QRS, prolonged PR interval, loss of P waves, and eventually a sine wave pattern that can lead to cardiac arrest.
- The missed dialysis appointments are the key factor causing potassium accumulation in this patient.
*Progressive PR prolongation, followed by a 'drop' in QRS*
- This description is characteristic of **Mobitz Type II (second-degree AV block)**, which is typically associated with structural conduction abnormalities in the His-Purkinje system rather than the electrolyte imbalances seen here.
- While severe hyperkalemia can cause AV nodal dysfunction, a complete "drop" in QRS following PR prolongation is less specific than **peaked T-waves** for initial hyperkalemic changes.
- The patient's acute presentation after missed dialysis points more specifically to hyperkalemia.
*ST-segment elevation in leads II, III, and aVF*
- This pattern indicates an **inferior wall myocardial infarction**, representing acute coronary occlusion typically of the right coronary artery.
- While the patient has cardiovascular risk factors (diabetes, hypertension), his symptoms of **ascending weakness** (suggesting neuromuscular dysfunction) and **abdominal pain** with decreased bowel sounds are more consistent with hyperkalemia's effects on skeletal muscle and smooth muscle.
- An acute MI would typically present with chest pain/pressure and diaphoresis rather than ascending paralysis.
*Diffuse PR segment depression and ST-segment deviations*
- **Diffuse PR segment depression** with widespread ST elevation is a classic ECG finding in **acute pericarditis**.
- Pericarditis typically presents with positional chest pain (better when leaning forward), a friction rub, and often follows a viral illness.
- The patient's presentation of ascending weakness and the specific history of missed dialysis makes hyperkalemia far more likely than pericarditis.
*S wave in lead I, Q wave in lead III, and inverted T wave in lead III*
- This constellation of ECG findings is known as the **S1Q3T3 pattern**, which is classically associated with **acute pulmonary embolism** causing right heart strain.
- Pulmonary embolism typically presents with sudden dyspnea, pleuritic chest pain, and possibly hemoptysis.
- The patient's symptoms of ascending weakness, abdominal pain, and decreased bowel sounds do not align with PE, making hyperkalemia the more probable diagnosis given his ESRD and missed dialysis.
Question 62: A 33-year-old African American woman presents to her primary care physician for a wellness checkup. She states that she has lost 20 pounds over the past 2 months yet has experienced an increased appetite during this period. She endorses hyperhidrosis and increased urinary volume and frequency. Physical exam is notable for an anxious woman and a regular and tachycardic pulse. Laboratory values are ordered as seen below.
Serum:
Na+: 139 mEq/L
Cl-: 100 mEq/L
K+: 4.3 mEq/L
HCO3-: 25 mEq/L
Ca2+: 12.2 mg/dL
The patient's urine calcium level is elevated. Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?
A. Sarcoidosis
B. Hyperparathyroidism
C. Malignancy
D. Familial hypercalcemic hypocalciuria
E. Hyperthyroidism (Correct Answer)
Explanation: ***Hyperthyroidism***
- The patient's symptoms of **weight loss with increased appetite**, **hyperhidrosis**, **tachycardia**, and **anxiety** are classic for hyperthyroidism.
- While hypercalcemia can occur in hyperthyroidism due to **increased bone turnover**, the elevated urine calcium level helps distinguish it from other hypercalcemic causes, especially when PTH is suppressed, leading to increased calcium filtration and excretion.
*Sarcoidosis*
- Sarcoidosis causes hypercalcemia due to **granulomatous production of 1,25-dihydroxyvitamin D**, which enhances intestinal calcium absorption.
- However, the patient's prominent **hypermetabolic symptoms** (weight loss with increased appetite, hyperhidrosis, tachycardia) are not typical primary manifestations of sarcoidosis, and there is no mention of other common sarcoidosis features like lung involvement, skin lesions, or lymphadenopathy.
*Hyperparathyroidism*
- Primary hyperparathyroidism leads to hypercalcemia through **excessive PTH secretion**, which increases bone resorption and renal calcium reabsorption.
- While it causes hypercalcemia, it typically results in a **low or inappropriately normal urine calcium** (due to PTH-mediated reabsorption), which contradicts the patient's elevated urine calcium.
*Malignancy*
- Malignancy can cause hypercalcemia through mechanisms like **PTHrp production** (humoral hypercalcemia of malignancy) or **bone metastases**, leading to increased bone resorption.
- While malignancy can cause weight loss and sometimes an increased metabolic rate, the constellation of symptoms including **increased appetite, hyperhidrosis, and prominent anxiety** points more strongly to a primary endocrine disorder like hyperthyroidism.
*Familial hypercalcemic hypocalciuria*
- This is a genetic disorder characterized by **gain-of-function mutations** in the calcium-sensing receptor, leading to inappropriately normal or high PTH and **hypercalcemia with low urine calcium excretion**.
- The presence of **elevated urine calcium** in this patient directly rules out familial hypercalcemic hypocalciuria.
Question 63: A 45-year-old man presents to the emergency department with complaints of right-sided weakness and slurring of speech for 1 hour. There is no history of head trauma, myocardial infarction, recent surgery, gastrointestinal or urinary bleeding. He has hypertension, chronic atrial fibrillation, and a 20 pack-year cigarette smoking history. The medication list includes valsartan and rivaroxaban. The vital signs include: blood pressure 180/92 mm Hg, pulse 144/min and irregular, and temperature 37.2°C (99.0°F). On physical examination, there is a facial asymmetry with a deviation of angle of mouth to the left side on smiling. Muscle strength is reduced in both upper and lower limbs on the right side while on the left side it’s normal. Random blood glucose is 104 mg/dL. A complete blood count is normal. A CT scan of the head is shown in the image. What is the most appropriate next step in the management of this patient?
A. Heparin
B. Amiodarone
C. Metoprolol
D. Tissue plasminogen activator
E. Aspirin (Correct Answer)
Explanation: ***Aspirin***
- The patient presents with acute onset **neurological deficits** (right-sided weakness, slurred speech) consistent with an **ischemic stroke** in the setting of **atrial fibrillation**.
- The CT scan shows no evidence of hemorrhage (hypodense or normal appearance), confirming **ischemic stroke**.
- While the patient is on **rivaroxaban**, the question addresses the **within-window acute management**. In the acute setting (within 1 hour of symptom onset), after ruling out hemorrhage on CT, **aspirin 325 mg** is considered as initial antiplatelet therapy for ischemic stroke.
- **Note:** Current guidelines suggest holding rivaroxaban temporarily and avoiding dual therapy (anticoagulation + antiplatelet) due to bleeding risk. However, aspirin remains the safest acute intervention among the choices provided for confirmed ischemic stroke.
*Tissue plasminogen activator (tPA)*
- **tPA** is the preferred thrombolytic for acute ischemic stroke **within 3-4.5 hours** of symptom onset.
- However, it is **absolutely contraindicated** in patients on **direct oral anticoagulants** (like rivaroxaban) due to **dramatically increased risk of intracranial hemorrhage** (up to 10-fold increase).
- Even with normal PT/INR, patients on DOACs cannot receive tPA safely without reversal agents.
*Heparin*
- **Heparin** provides additional anticoagulation on top of rivaroxaban, which would **significantly increase bleeding risk** (both intracranial and systemic).
- Not indicated in acute ischemic stroke management, especially when patient is already therapeutically anticoagulated.
- May be considered in specific scenarios (e.g., crescendo TIAs, arterial dissection) but not first-line here.
*Metoprolol*
- **Metoprolol** is a beta-blocker used for **rate control in atrial fibrillation** (patient has pulse 144/min - rapid ventricular response).
- While rate control is important, **acute blood pressure lowering in ischemic stroke can worsen cerebral perfusion** and extend the infarct.
- Current guidelines recommend **permissive hypertension** in acute stroke (allow BP up to 220/120 unless giving tPA).
- Rate control can be addressed after acute stroke management is initiated.
*Amiodarone*
- **Amiodarone** is an antiarrhythmic used for rhythm control in atrial fibrillation.
- Does **not treat the acute stroke** and is not indicated for emergency management of stroke.
- Rhythm control is not the priority in the acute stroke setting; the focus is on salvaging brain tissue and preventing further ischemia.
Question 64: A 65-year-old woman is brought to the emergency department by her husband due to difficulty speaking and confusion for 1 hour. She was gardening when she suddenly developed these symptoms. She is not able to respond to the questions despite multiple repetitions. She also appears unsteady with her gait and is able to walk with support. The past medical history includes type 2 diabetes mellitus, dyslipidemia, and osteoarthritis. The medicine list includes aspirin, atorvastatin, metformin, and chondroitin sulfate. The vital signs include: blood pressure 174/88 mm Hg, heart rate 154/min and irregular, respiratory rate 12/min, and oxygen saturation 96% on room air. She is awake, but not following commands. The pupils are equal bilaterally and reactive to light. There is mild facial droop on the right side. The forehead wrinkles are preserved. When the soles of her feet are stimulated with a blunt instrument, the right-sided big toe goes upward, while the left-sided big toe goes downward. The ECG shows variable R-R intervals and absence of P waves. What is the next step in the management of this patient?
A. MRI of the head
B. Echocardiography
C. Amiodarone
D. Aspirin
E. CT scan of the head (Correct Answer)
Explanation: ***CT scan of the head***
- This patient presents with acute neurological deficits suggestive of a **stroke**, including difficulty speaking, confusion, facial droop, and Babinski sign (right-sided big toe going upward).
- An **urgent non-contrast CT scan of the head** is the immediate next step to differentiate between an ischemic stroke and a hemorrhagic stroke, which dictates subsequent management.
*MRI of the head*
- While an **MRI** can provide more detailed imaging of brain tissue, it is **not the initial imaging modality** of choice in acute stroke due to longer acquisition times and limited availability.
- CT is faster and readily available in most emergency settings, making it crucial for timely decision-making.
*Echocardiography*
- **Echocardiography** would be considered later in the workup to identify a potential **cardiac source of emboli**, such as left atrial appendage thrombus in the context of atrial fibrillation.
- However, it is **not the immediate next step** as it does not help differentiate between ischemic and hemorrhagic stroke, which is critical for acute management.
*Amiodarone*
- The patient's irregular heart rate and absent P waves are highly suggestive of **atrial fibrillation with rapid ventricular response**.
- While **amiodarone** can be used for rhythm or rate control in atrial fibrillation, addressing the acute stroke and determining its type (ischemic vs. hemorrhagic) takes **precedence** over cardiac rhythm management.
*Aspirin*
- **Aspirin** is indicated for the acute management of **ischemic stroke** to prevent further clot formation.
- However, administering aspirin to a patient with a **hemorrhagic stroke** could worsen bleeding and be devastating, hence the critical need for a CT scan first.
Question 65: A 75-year-old man presents to the emergency department after an episode of syncope while walking outside with his wife. His wife states that he suddenly appeared pale and collapsed to the ground. She says he remained unconscious for 1 minute. He says he noticed a fluttering in his chest and excessive sweating before the episode. He has type 2 diabetes mellitus, essential hypertension, and chronic stable angina. He has not started any new medications in the past few months. Vital signs reveal: temperature 37.0°C (98.6°F), blood pressure 135/72 mm Hg, and pulse 72/min. Physical examination is unremarkable. ECG shows an old bifascicular block. Echocardiogram and 24-hour Holter monitoring are normal. Which of the following is the best next step in the evaluation of this patient's condition?
A. Cardiac enzymes
B. Continuous loop recorder (Correct Answer)
C. Valsalva maneuver
D. Electroencephalography (EEG)
E. Tilt-table test
Explanation: ***Continuous loop recorder***
- This patient's syncope is preceded by **palpitations (fluttering in chest)** and **sweating**, suggesting a cardiac etiology, specifically a **transient arrhythmia** not captured on a standard ECG or 24-hour Holter.
- A continuous loop recorder provides prolonged monitoring (months to years), increasing the likelihood of detecting intermittent arrhythmias responsible for syncopal episodes.
*Cardiac enzymes*
- While cardiac enzymes (e.g., troponin) are crucial for evaluating **acute myocardial ischemia** or infarction, the patient presents with syncope and no new chest pain, and his stable angina suggests chronic disease rather than an acute event leading to syncope in this specific instance.
- An **ECG showing an old bifascicular block** and an **unremarkable physical exam** make an acute cardiac event less likely as the primary cause of syncope when an arrhythmia is suspected.
*Valsalva maneuver*
- The Valsalva maneuver is a diagnostic tool often used to differentiate between certain types of **tachyarrhythmias** or to evaluate for **autonomic dysfunction**, but it is not an evaluative step for a patient presenting with unexplained syncope where an arrhythmia has not yet been documented.
- It would not help in identifying the cause of intermittent syncope in a patient whose standard workup has been unremarkable, as it's a test for immediate physiological response, not prolonged cardiac rhythm monitoring.
*Electroencephalography (EEG)*
- EEG is indicated when **seizure disorder** is suspected as the cause of loss of consciousness, often characterized by tonic-clonic movements, post-ictal confusion, or focal neurologic signs, which are absent in this patient's presentation.
- The patient's pre-syncopal symptoms of **palpitations and sweating** point away from a seizure and towards a cardiac cause.
*Tilt-table test*
- A tilt-table test is used to evaluate for **vasovagal syncope** or **postural orthostatic tachycardia syndrome (POTS)**, often considered when other cardiac causes are ruled out or when syncope is typically triggered by prolonged standing.
- Given the patient's pre-syncopal **palpitations**, a **cardiac arrhythmia** remains a higher suspicion than vasovagal syncope at this stage, especially after normal echocardiogram and Holter monitoring, necessitating further arrhythmia investigation.
Question 66: A 24-year-old woman presents to the emergency department with palpitations for the last hour. This is her 3rd emergency department visit in the last 8 weeks due to the same complaint. She denies fever, shortness of breath, nasal discharge, bowel changes, weight loss, and heat intolerance. She has asthma that is poorly controlled despite regular inhaler use. She drinks a cup of coffee each morning, and she is physically active and jogs for at least 30 minutes daily. She is in a monogamous relationship with her boyfriend and regularly uses barrier contraceptives. Her last menses was 1 week ago. Physical examination reveals: blood pressure 104/70 mm Hg, pulse 194 /min that is regular, and respiratory rate 18/min. Her ECG is shown in the image. A gentle massage over the carotid artery for 5–10 seconds did not terminate her palpitations. What is the most appropriate next step in the management of this patient?
A. Amiodarone
B. Propranolol
C. Verapamil
D. Digoxin
E. Adenosine (Correct Answer)
Explanation: ***Adenosine***
- The ECG shows a **regular narrow-complex tachycardia** with a rate of 194 bpm and absent P waves, consistent with a re-entrant supraventricular tachycardia (SVT), most likely **AVNRT or AVRT**.
- After vagal maneuvers (carotid massage) fail to terminate stable SVT, **adenosine** is the **first-line pharmacologic treatment** according to ACLS guidelines.
- Adenosine works by temporarily blocking AV nodal conduction, interrupting re-entrant circuits and terminating most SVTs with a success rate of 80-90%.
- It is administered as a **rapid IV bolus** (6 mg, followed by 12 mg if needed), with effects occurring within seconds.
*Verapamil*
- **Verapamil** (nondihydropyridine calcium channel blocker) is an effective **second-line agent** for SVT when adenosine fails or is contraindicated.
- It slows AV nodal conduction and can terminate SVT, but should only be used after adenosine has been attempted in stable patients.
*Digoxin*
- **Digoxin** has a **slow onset of action** (hours to days) and is not appropriate for acute termination of SVT.
- It may be used for chronic rate control in atrial fibrillation but is not indicated for emergency SVT management.
*Amiodarone*
- **Amiodarone** is reserved for **ventricular arrhythmias** or refractory supraventricular arrhythmias unresponsive to first-line agents.
- It has significant side effects and prolonged onset, making it inappropriate as initial therapy for stable narrow-complex SVT.
*Propranolol*
- **Propranolol** (non-selective beta-blocker) is **contraindicated** in this patient due to her **poorly controlled asthma**.
- Beta-blockers can precipitate severe bronchospasm in asthmatic patients by blocking beta-2 receptors in the airways.
- While beta-blockers can be used for SVT rate control, they should be avoided in patients with reactive airway disease.
Question 67: A 43-year-old woman presents to a physician with weakness and fatigue for a week. She mentions that she has been taking oral fluconazole for the last 4 weeks for the treatment of tinea capitis. She also says that she loves coffee and usually consumes 4–6 cups of coffee every day. On physical examination, her vital signs are stable and examination of all systems, including nervous system, is normal. Her laboratory evaluation reveals that her serum potassium level is 3.1 mmol/L (3.1 mEq/L). The physician orders an ECG. Which of the following findings is most likely to be present?
A. Shortened QT interval
B. Tall peaked T waves
C. Disappearing P waves
D. Depression of ST segment (Correct Answer)
E. Widening of QRS complexes
Explanation: ***Depression of ST segment***
- The patient presents with **hypokalemia** (serum potassium 3.1 mmol/L), which is commonly associated with **ST segment depression** on an ECG.
- Fluconazole can cause hypokalemia, and coffee consumption can exacerbate it due to its diuretic effect, further contributing to the likelihood of this ECG finding.
*Shortened QT interval*
- A **shortened QT interval** is typically associated with **hypercalcemia** rather than hypokalemia.
- Hypokalemia is more commonly associated with **QT prolongation** or prominent U waves, not shortening.
*Tall peaked T waves*
- **Tall, peaked T waves** are characteristic of **hyperkalemia**, which is the opposite of the patient's condition.
- In hypokalemia, T waves tend to be flattened or inverted.
*Disappearing P waves*
- **Disappearing P waves** are often seen in conditions like **atrial fibrillation** or severe hyperkalemia, where atrial activity is affected.
- They are not a characteristic finding of hypokalemia.
*Widening of QRS complexes*
- **Widening of QRS complexes** is typically associated with conditions like **bundle branch blocks**, certain intoxications, or severe **hyperkalemia**, not hypokalemia.
- Hypokalemia does not directly lead to a widened QRS complex.
Question 68: A 27-year-old man presents to the emergency department with a progressively worsening cough, wheezes, and chest tightness over the last 2 days. He has a history of moderate persistent asthma and his maintenance regimen consists of an inhaled corticosteroid, a long-acting beta-agonist, and albuterol as rescue therapy. He has not improved with his rescue inhaler despite increased use. He reports prior exposure to a person who had symptoms of a respiratory infection. His temperature is 37.4°C (99.3°F), blood pressure is 101/68 mm Hg, heart rate is 99/min, and respiratory rate is 32/min. Physical examination reveals widespread polyphonic wheezes but equal air entry. His oxygen saturation is 92% on room air. The presence of which of the following categorizes this patient’s condition as life-threatening?
A. Dyspnea that limits usual daily activity
B. Respiratory acidosis (Correct Answer)
C. Peak expiratory flow rate (PEFR) >70%
D. Respiratory alkalosis
E. Symptoms lasting for > 3 days after starting treatment
Explanation: **Respiratory acidosis**
- The development of **respiratory acidosis** (elevated PaCO2 and decreased pH) indicates severe airflow obstruction leading to **carbon dioxide retention** and impending respiratory failure.
- This is a critical sign of a rapidly worsening asthma exacerbation and suggests the need for immediate, aggressive intervention, potentially including mechanical ventilation.
*Dyspnea that limits usual daily activity*
- While experiencing **dyspnea that limits usual activity** indicates a significant asthma exacerbation, it does not, by itself, categorize the condition as immediately life-threatening.
- Many patients with moderate to severe asthma exacerbations experience this symptom without necessarily having imminent respiratory failure.
*Peak expiratory flow rate (PEFR) >70%*
- A **PEFR >70%** of personal best or predicted values generally indicates a mild to moderate exacerbation, not a life-threatening one.
- In severe or life-threatening asthma, PEFR would typically be significantly lower, often less than 40%.
*Respiratory alkalosis*
- **Respiratory alkalosis** (low PaCO2 and elevated pH) is often seen in the early stages of an asthma exacerbation due to **tachypnea** and hyperventilation as the body attempts to compensate for hypoxemia.
- While it indicates an ongoing exacerbation, it is not a sign of life-threatening respiratory compromise; rather, a normal or rising PaCO2 (leading to acidosis) is the critical alarm signal.
*Symptoms lasting for > 3 days after starting treatment*
- Symptoms lasting for more than 3 days after starting treatment primarily indicates **poor response to treatment** or a persistent exacerbation, requiring re-evaluation.
- While concerning, it does not inherently mean the condition is acutely life-threatening at that specific moment; rather, it prompts a change in management strategy.
Question 69: A 26-year-old man comes to the physician because of episodic palpitations for the past 2 months. He has the feeling that sometimes his heart “skips a beat”. His father has a history of atrial fibrillation and myocardial infarction. He has smoked one pack of cigarettes daily for 5 years. He drinks 1–2 beers on the weekends. His vital signs are within normal limits. Physical examination reveals a regular pulse. Cardiopulmonary examination shows no abnormalities. Serum studies, including electrolytes and creatinine, are within normal limits. An excerpt of 24h Holter monitoring is shown. Echocardiography is normal. Which of the following is the most appropriate next step in management?
A. Diltiazem therapy
B. Metoprolol therapy
C. Smoking cessation (Correct Answer)
D. Coronary angiography
E. Permanent pacemaker placement
Explanation: ***Smoking cessation***
- The Holter monitor shows **premature ventricular contractions (PVCs)**, which are benign in patients with structurally normal hearts (as evidenced by the normal echocardiogram).
- In a young patient with **no structural heart disease** and only mild symptoms ("skipped beats"), the most appropriate initial step is to address **modifiable risk factors**.
- **Smoking** is a well-established trigger for arrhythmias, including PVCs, and cessation is crucial for overall cardiovascular health, especially given the family history of atrial fibrillation and myocardial infarction.
- Lifestyle modification should be attempted before pharmacological intervention in asymptomatic or minimally symptomatic patients with benign PVCs.
*Diltiazem therapy*
- This is a **calcium channel blocker** typically used for rate control in supraventricular tachyarrhythmias (e.g., atrial fibrillation) or for hypertension and angina.
- It is **not first-line therapy for isolated PVCs** in an otherwise healthy individual with a structurally normal heart.
- Given the patient's normal echocardiogram and mild symptoms, aggressive pharmacological intervention is not indicated initially.
*Metoprolol therapy*
- **Beta-blockers** like metoprolol can be used to reduce symptomatic PVCs, especially when they are frequent, bothersome, or causing hemodynamic compromise.
- However, in a patient with a **structurally normal heart** and **mild symptoms**, addressing lifestyle factors like smoking cessation is the more appropriate first-line approach before initiating medication.
- Beta-blockers would be considered if symptoms persist despite lifestyle modifications or if PVCs are highly symptomatic.
*Coronary angiography*
- This invasive procedure is used to visualize the **coronary arteries** and detect significant stenoses, typically in patients with symptoms suggestive of **ischemic heart disease** (e.g., angina, exertional chest pain, positive stress test).
- The patient's symptoms are palpitations from PVCs, with a **normal echocardiogram** and no evidence of ischemia, making coronary angiography overly aggressive and unnecessary at this stage.
- There is no indication for invasive testing in this clinical scenario.
*Permanent pacemaker placement*
- A pacemaker is indicated for symptomatic **bradyarrhythmias** (pathologically slow heart rates) or certain types of heart blocks where the heart's intrinsic electrical system fails to maintain an adequate heart rate.
- The patient presents with palpitations due to **premature ventricular beats** (extra beats, not slow rhythm), making pacemaker placement completely inappropriate.
- PVCs represent ectopic electrical activity, not failure of the heart's pacing system.
Question 70: A 23-year-old man comes to the emergency department because of palpitations, dizziness, and substernal chest pain for three hours. The day prior, he was at a friend’s wedding, where he consumed seven glasses of wine. The patient appears diaphoretic. His pulse is 220/min and blood pressure is 120/84 mm Hg. Based on the patient's findings on electrocardiography, the physician diagnoses atrial fibrillation with rapid ventricular response and administers verapamil for rate control. Ten minutes later, the patient is unresponsive and loses consciousness. Despite resuscitative efforts, the patient dies. Histopathologic examination of the heart at autopsy shows an accessory atrioventricular conduction pathway. Electrocardiography prior to the onset of this patient's symptoms would most likely have shown which of the following findings?
A. Epsilon wave following the QRS complex
B. Prolongation of the QT interval
C. Cyclic alteration of the QRS axis
D. Slurred upstroke of the QRS complex (Correct Answer)
E. Positive Sokolow-Lyon index
Explanation: ***Slurred upstroke of the QRS complex***
- The patient's presentation with **atrial fibrillation with rapid ventricular response** and subsequent collapse after verapamil administration—a calcium channel blocker—is classic for a pre-excitation syndrome like **Wolff-Parkinson-White (WPW) syndrome**.
- In WPW, an accessory pathway (bundle of Kent) bypasses the AV node, leading to a **short PR interval** and a **delta wave** (slurred upstroke of the QRS complex) on ECG during normal sinus rhythm.
*Epsilon wave following the QRS complex*
- An **epsilon wave** is characteristic of **arrhythmogenic right ventricular cardiomyopathy (ARVC)**, representing delayed depolarization of the right ventricle.
- While ARVC can cause arrhythmias, it is distinctly different from the pre-excitation syndrome described, which involves an accessory pathway.
*Prolongation of the QT interval*
- **Prolonged QT interval** is associated with an increased risk of **torsades de pointes**, a polymorphic ventricular tachycardia.
- This finding is typical of **long QT syndrome** and does not directly relate to an accessory atrioventricular conduction pathway.
*Cyclic alteration of the QRS axis*
- **Cyclic alteration of the QRS axis** or electrical alternans is seen in conditions causing swings in cardiac position, most notably **pericardial effusion with tamponade**.
- This ECG finding is unrelated to accessory pathways or the mechanisms of pre-excitation syndromes.
*Positive Sokolow-Lyon index*
- A **positive Sokolow-Lyon index** signifies **left ventricular hypertrophy (LVH)**, characterized by large QRS voltages (e.g., SV1 + RV5/V6 ≥ 35 mm).
- While LVH can be associated with various cardiac conditions, it is not a direct ECG manifestation of an accessory atrioventricular conduction pathway.